Kc-135 Piq Block B

Front 1

With one PMC inoperative, the following are not authorized:
-
-
Additionally, the PIC will not turn off an operational PMC to practice a PMC-inoperative takeoff.

Back 1

Simulated 3 engine approaches
Touch and go's

Front 2

The MEL is located in the __________________, chapter ____.

Back 2

11-2KC-135, Vol III
Chapter 4

Front 3

Column A on the MEL represents missions conducted _________________.

Back 3

home station TDY (departing home station)

Front 4

Column B on the MEL represents missions conducted _______________.

Back 4

outside of home station TDY (departing anywhere but home)

Front 5

An asterisk * in the Required column indicates the number required is ___________________; refer to the next column titled Remarks/Limitations/Exceptions for clarification.

Back 5

situation dependent

Front 6

Define Mission Contributing (MC).

Back 6

A component that is not currently essential for safe aircraft operation.

Front 7

When operating with a waiver for degraded equipment, the _________________ is based on who has execution authority (home unit vs deployed). Waivers are granted on a ________________________. The PIC should request a waiver at the ______________________.

Back 7

waiver authority
case-by-case
controlling Command and Control (C2) agency

Front 8

The primary flight control surfaces are:
-
-
-

Back 8

Ailerons
Elevator
Rudder

Front 9

The secondary flight control surfaces are:
-
-
-

Back 9

Adjustable horizontal stabilizer
Flaps
Spoilers

Front 10

The ailerons and elevators are moved ______________.

Back 10

mechanically

Front 11

The rudder is normally _______________ powered by can be moved _________________.

Back 11

hydraulically
mechanically

Front 12

The outboard ailerons are _____________ when the flaps are fully retracted.

Back 12

locked in the neutral position

Front 13

______________________ is created with balance panels that are contained within a balance bay and attached to the leading edge of the primary flight control surface.

Back 13

Aerodynamic assistance

Front 14

___________ are hydraulic, piston actuated mechanisms that are installed in the inboard ailerons, rudder, and elevators. They are similar to shock absorbers and are installed when wind speeds on the ground are greater than ____ knots (with flaps up, only ____ knots when flaps are down) to prevent damage to the surface.

Back 14

Snubbers
65
35

Front 15

With regards to how they are constructed and used to fly the airplane, primary flight controls have what in common?

Back 15

They are comprised of a control tab and a control surface.

Front 16

When the inboard aileron control surface has moved to its mechanical limit, control force is then _______________ to move the aileron itself.

Back 16

transferred

Front 17

Full outboard aileron movement is allowed when the flap extends to ____ degrees.

Back 17

23

Front 18

When the flaps are at 50 degrees, the outboard ailerons deflect ____ times faster than the inboards.

Back 18

1.4

Front 19

Located on the aft end of the control stand, the aileron trim wheel ____________ actuates the inboard aileron control tabs. The linkage is completely _________________ from the control wheel linkage.

Back 19

mechanically
independent

Front 20

The operation of the elevator control surfaces is similar to the aileron surfaces. The control tab motion coupled with the balance panel assistance generates the aerodynamic force to move the elevators. Each elevator has a separate control tab that move __________________ when actuated by the control column.

Back 20

simultaneously

Front 21

Each elevator has ____ tabs. The larger outboard tab is mechanically moved when the ______________ is moved. The smaller inboard tab is a _______________.

Back 21

pilot control column
trim follow up tab

Front 22

Before testing the elevator deflection during the preflight, the stab trim indicator must indicated between ____ and ____ units nose up trim.

Back 22

6
11

Front 23

Normal hydraulic pressure for the powered rudder in the high range is ______ psi to ______ psi, and the low range is ______ psi to _______. The high range is used when __________________________.

Back 23

high range 2800-3050
low range 2100-2400
flaps are lowered more than 5 degrees

Front 24

The _________ is located at the base of the vertical stab. It provides "rudder feel" by inducing aerodynamic forces proportional to airspeed. A heater can be turned on by the copilot to prevent icing. On the same button to turn on the heater is a _________ light that will come on if the heater is inoperative or has insufficient power.

Back 24

Q inlet
PWR OUT

Front 25

Normal rudder deflection is up to ____ degrees. Manual operation of the rudder reduces deflection to approximately ____ degrees.

Back 25

25
13

Front 26

Actual rudder hydraulic pressure drops to zero when ___________________.

Back 26

the RUDDER POWER switch is turned off
*not when electrical power is lost or when the RUDDER PRESS CONT circuit breaker is pulled. Don't think gauge pressure.

Front 27

The Flight Control Augmentation System (FCAS) is an overarching system that controls ___________________ and the _______________. Both systems control adverse yaw through automatic rudder inputs. FCAS ___________ move the rudder pedals.

Back 27

Engine Failure Assist System (EFAS)
Series Yaw Damper (SYD)
does not

Front 28

EFAS assists the pilot during an ____________ engine failure by monitoring and comparing the EGT of ______________________. EFAS will displace the rudder if there is a difference of _____ RPM or _____ % N1 RPM on the gauge.

Back 28

outboard
outboard and inboard engines
500
10

Front 29

EFAS will be engaged if/when all of the following are met:
-
-
-

Back 29

Airspeed is less than 200 KIAS
Flaps are down more than 5 degrees
Rudder power is on

Front 30

In order for the EFAS system to operate, the following criteria must be met:
-
-
-
-

Back 30

Rudder pressure above 1000 psi
No EFAS faults
Valid air data computer signal
AC power from Bus 1 and DC power from Bus 2

Front 31

EFAS only deflects ____ degrees at airspeeds of _____ KIAS, or less. Between _____ and ____ KIAS, only ____ degrees deflection is possible.

Back 31

10
159
160
200
6

Front 32

The ENGAGE SYSTEM light next to the EFAS panel will illuminate if ____________________.

Back 32

The criteria that require the system to be on are met (below 200 and flaps down more that 5 degrees). It also illuminates during the BIT of EFAS.

Front 33

The ASM THRUST red light will illuminate if N1 is _______ RPM or _____% different between No. ____ and No. ____ engines.

Back 33

1500
30
1
4

Front 34

SYD provides full time, automatic rudder inputs during these adverse yaw conditions:
-
-
-
-

Back 34

Dutch roll
Uncoordinated turns
Asymmetric thrust
Gusts or turbulance

Front 35

Because the rudder pedals do not move when EFAS or SYD is operating, the indication of rudder deflection is on the ____________________.

Back 35

rudder command indicator on the pilot side

Front 36

A minimum of ______ psi rudder pressure is required before performing a BIT on the SYD system.

Back 36

1000

Front 37

Before checking the powered rudder during preflight, allow hydraulic pressure to build to approx. ______ psi.

Back 37

2800

Front 38

You diverted to an installation that does not support KC-135 aircraft, and you have no ground crew. A thunderstorm is approaching the field, with wind gusts expected to be as high as 50 kts. As a minimum, what should your action be regarding flight controls?

Back 38

Retract the flaps to prevent damage to the outboard ailerons.

Front 39

Name all secondary flight controls.

Back 39

Spoilers
Flaps
Adjustable horizontal stabilizer

Front 40

A speed brake setting of less than ____ degrees is not recommended, due to a tendency to over control at these settings.

Back 40

40

Front 41

If only the outboard spoilers receive hydraulic pressure, raising the speed brake pitches the nose _______. Conversely, if only the inboard spoilers receive hydraulic pressure, raising the speed brake pitches the nose _______.

Back 41

up
down

Front 42

The __________ tab on the horizontal stabilizer aligns or streamlines the elevator with the stabilizer's position and acts as an anti balance tab during up elevator movement when the trim is set forward approx. ___ units nose up.

Back 42

servo
6

Front 43

The _____________ tab is what aerodynamically assists the movement of the elevator with control inputs from the control wheel.

Back 43

control

Front 44

The amount of anti-balance function from the servo tab does not restrict elevator movement when the pitch trim is set aft approximately ____ units nose up.

Back 44

6

Front 45

When the adjustable horizontal stabilizer is trimmed properly, what is the position of the control column?

Back 45

Centered

Front 46

When both halves of the pitch trim switch are engaged, the horizontal stab leading edge moves at a rate of _____ degree(s) per second.

Back 46

1/2

Front 47

Caution: Simultaneous actuation of pilot and copilot stabilizer trim switches in ______________ can result in damage to the actuator electrical drive unit and shall be avoided at al times.

Back 47

opposite directions

Front 48

Pitch trim range in units is ______ to _____.

Back 48

-3.5
11

Front 49

When the pitch trim cutout switch is in CUTOUT, _________ and _________ are still operative.

Back 49

manual
autopilot

Front 50

When the stabilizer trim brake release knob is pulled, the brake is ___________, and trim movement is ___________ regardless of control column movement.

Back 50

mechanically released
permitted

Front 51

During preflight, what is the correct setting of the stabilizer trim prior to checking the elevator?

Back 51

6-11 units

Front 52

The main flaps can fully extend or retract in approx. ___ seconds.

Back 52

30

Front 53

The leading edge flaps extend when the outboard flaps are lowered below ___ degrees, and they retract when the outboard flaps are raised above ___ degrees.

Back 53

9.5
6

Front 54

If leading edge flaps fail to extend or are inoperative, the landing data calculator will add ___ knots to approach and threshold speeds and compute a corrected landing distance.

Back 54

6

Front 55

Fillet flaps reduce _______________ spilling off the inboard corner of the inboard main flaps.

Back 55

flap tip vortices

Front 56

The warning horn will sound if the current ______________, ________, or ________________ may not be correct.
The ground conditions for the speed brake are:
The ground conditions for the flaps are:
The ground conditions for the leading edge flaps are:
The air conditions for the landing gear are:

Back 56

speedbrake
flap
landing gear
-No. 3 throttle in the near full open position with the speed brake in the less than 3° position
-No. 3 throttle in the near full open position with the flap lever fwd of approx. 5° or aft of approx. 35°
-No. 3 throttle in the near full open position and the leading edge flaps are not fully extended
-Any throttle near IDLE and any landing gear not down and locked

Front 57

The warning horn is armed when __________________ and the ___________ is near the _______ position.

Back 57

weight is on wheels
No. 3 throttle
OPEN

Front 58

The warning horn cutout switch silences the warning horn only if:
-
-
-

Back 58

-The plane is in the air
-Any gear is in a safe condition
-Any throttle is near the IDLE position

Front 59

The warning horn cutout switch cannot silence the warning horn if:
-
-
-

Back 59

-Plane is on the ground
-Due to a speedbrake condition
-Due to a flap condition

Front 60

The warning horn sounds if the No. 3 throttle is near OPEN and the flap lever is near the ___, ___, or ___ detent.

Back 60

0
40
50

Front 61

Generally, the steps to recover from an unscheduled rudder deflection include:
-
-
-

Back 61

-Controlling the airplane
-Turning off the rudder power
-Determining the cause of the problem

Front 62

After an unscheduled rudder deflection, one of the first steps is to determine whether the rudder pedals moved. What does this step determine?

Back 62

Whether the potential cause of the problem is PCU/mechanical, powered rudder or EFAS/SYD

Front 63

Maximum spoiler deflection using the speed brake lever is __________ degrees.

Back 63

60

Front 64

A speed brake lever position of less than _____ degrees is not recommended due to a tendency to over control at these settings.

Back 64

40

Front 65

If EFAS is inoperative, VMCG can increase by as much as ____ KIAS.

Back 65

25

Front 66

If you experience an unschedule rudder deflection, after S1, you should immediately __________________.

Back 66

turn off the rudder power

Front 67

The _________ elevator tabs improve control characteristics by reducing the tendency to over control at higher speeds.

Back 67

inboard (servo)

Front 68

Prior to performing the Flap and Speed Brake Warning Horn check, ensure the _________ are fully extended.

Back 68

leading edge flaps

Front 69

After an unscheduled rudder deflection, EFAS and SYD turn off as a direct result of __________________.

Back 69

turning off the rudder power

Front 70

Secondary flight controls are powered by __________________.

Back 70

various means

Front 71

After turning off the rudder power due to an unscheduled rudder deflection, check
-
-
-

Back 71

-The rudder pressure bleeds down
-The yaw damper disengages
-The EFAS disengages

Front 72

If the rudder pedals didn't move during an unscheduled rudder deflection what is the possible cause?

Back 72

EFAS/SYD

Front 73

The main flaps operate how?

Back 73

manually or hydraulically

Front 74

The KC-135 displays an effect known as initial buffet. It is caused by:

Back 74

airflow separation on the main wing and is an indication that you are approaching stall speed.

Front 75

Approximately _____ % of the roll authority on the KC-135 comes from the spoilers.

Back 75

60

Front 76

What directly affects induced drag?

Back 76

Ground effect

Front 77

If gusts are present, the takeoff and climbout speeds are increased. For heavy gross weights, if the flap retraction schedule airspeed approaches the flap placard speeds, use the flap placard speed minus ____ knots as the flap retraction speed.

Back 77

5

Front 78

Stall speed increases as bank angle increases. What are the increases to stall speed in percentages for given bank angles?
15° AOB
30° AOB
45° AOB

Back 78

2%
7%
19%
(Since during takeoff we have only a 11% stall margin (flaps 20°), it's easy to see why bank angle is limited)

Front 79

30° Flap setting for takeoff provides for a better _____________________.

Back 79

close-in obstacle avoidance

Front 80

A result of over rotation on take off is the __________________ may use a higher angle of attack as the basis for the ________________.

Back 80

RGA computer
climbout profile

Front 81

High speed buffet begins around ______ Mach. It is also the speed that mach tuck begins.

Back 81

0.875

Front 82

Dive recovery is done by extending the speed brakes ________ to retarding the throttles to idle. This will cause a pitch up, which helps counter the mach tuck.

Back 82

prior

Front 83

What flap setting provides for the best stall airspeed margin?

Back 83

20° (11%)

Front 84

High speed buffet can be characterized as:

Back 84

flow disruptions caused by shock waves on the main wing

Front 85

You have been exploring high speed flight with the aircraft at high altitude. You have been trimming nose down as you accelerate to feel high speed buffet. Now, the aircraft wants to descend and the trim required is nose up. What is happening?

Back 85

The center of lift has shifted, causing mach tuck.

Front 86

You just messed up the approach to landing and just as the aircraft was about to touch down, you relaxed back pressure on the yoke, the nose started down, the aircraft dropped onto the runway and bounced back into the air. You're about 20 feet above the runway! What should you do now?

Back 86

Increase thrust, hold the landing attitude, and either fly away from the runway or land, if the situation is safe to do so.

Front 87

You are flying about 4000 feet above the correct max range altitude for your heavyweight aircraft. You have to do it to get the route you want to England. You get a request to slow down (from ATC) and reduce the power a bit, tell the copilot, "you've got it," and check off for the latrine. As you come back uphill into the cockpit you feel a bit of buffeting and the autopilot suddenly disengages-the aircraft pitches nose down. What do you hope the copilot will do?

Back 87

Immediately increase power and accelerate the aircraft to 0.6 AOA.

Front 88

Your power rudder system isn't operating normally and the SYD is inoperative. You are at cruise altitude and have slowed because of ATC flow restrictions. The aircraft seems to be unstable due to some turbulence. What is happening, and what can you do?

Back 88

Dutch roll-use lateral controls only to correct

Front 89

Flying faster than the charred approach speeds is commonly thought to add a "safety pad". Flying as little as 6 knots fast on final can result in increased flare distances of as much as _______ feet (even more when using less than flaps 50.

Back 89

1000

Front 90

Normal takeoff calculations are computed based on ____ engine performance up to S1, an outboard engine failure at S1, and continuing the takeoff with ______ engines set at the original TRT setting. Your main concern if you experience an engine malfunction or failure during takeoff is:

Back 90

4
3
maintaing control of the aircraft, not deciding to keep on the ground or take it airborne. S1 is a decision that has already been made for you.

Front 91

Define VMCG and VMCA

Back 91

VMCG: Minimum air speed at which the airplane, while on the ground, can lose an outboard engine and maintain directional control with remaining engines at the N1 setting for takeoff (TRT).

Front 92

VMCA:

Back 92

The minimum speed at which an outboard engine can be lost and straight line directional control maintained utilizing full rudder deflection, not more than 5 degrees of bank, and with the three remaining engines set at the thrust setting for takeoff. VMCA will never be greater than takeoff speed.

Front 93

Over stressing the vertical fin can occur with the rudder in the high pressure range when airspeed is above _______ KIAS.

Back 93

230

Front 94

You are the pilot flying making a takeoff and have passed S1 when you hear an odd sound and the aircraft begins to yaw. Your first action should be _______________.

Back 94

stop the yaw with rudder

Front 95

The amount of deflection of the rudder is related to several factors, one of which is how far you displace the pedal by pressing on it. What are some other factors?

Back 95

Airspeed and Hydraulic pressure

Front 96

During takeoff planning, what can you do to reduce control difficulties should an engine fail?

Back 96

Use the lowest allowable thrust.

Front 97

At or above S1, apply _________ and __________ corrections.

Back 97

rudder
aileron

Front 98

The primary navigation source for the autopilot is ______________.

Back 98

vertical gyro

Front 99

While in flight, you decide that you want to switch the pilot's primary heading reference source from INU2 to INU1. What screen would you use to do this?

Back 99

config 2/3 page

Front 100

MMR 1 is powered by ______ and is cooled by a fan which receives power from _________. MMR2 is powered by ______ and is cooled by a fan which receives power from _______.

Back 100

TR2
Gen 1
TR1
CIPS

Front 101

The MMR includes receivers for:
(5)

Back 101

ILS, MLS, GPS, VOR, Marker beacon

Front 102

The GPS receivers inside the MMR are ______________ and the GPS receivers inside the EGIs are __________. MMR1 and EGI1 share the ______ antenna on the top of the aircraft, while EGI2 and MMR2 share the ______ antenna.

Back 102

commercial
military
FWD
AFT

Front 103

The selective availability/antispoofing (SA/AS) is only available on _________ GPS receivers and can be installed on either or both _____. You can find out which EGIs have the SA/AS installed by going to the ___________ page. SA/AS can receive ___ code or ___ code signals and is used if the __________ clear/acquisition (C/A) signals are shut down in areas involved in conflict.

Back 103

military
EGIs
start2, nav/init
P
Y
civilian

Front 104

The 6 independent nav solutions available for the pilot and copilot steering functions are:

Back 104

INU1, INU2, INU1/GPS, INU2/GPS, GPS1/A/H, GPS2/A/H

Front 105

The __________ solutions are NOT approved for cilvil airspace requirements. DO NOT use them for primary navigation when you are flying in _____ airspace, unless all ____ GPS units are unavailable.

Back 105

INU only
RNP
4

Front 106

True or False: GPS/A/H solutions can be used in RNP airspace.

Back 106

True

Front 107

You are flying in RNP airspace using the GPS/A/H navigation solution. Suddenly you get a malfunction alert that you've lost all of your GPS signals. What should you do next?

Back 107

INU/GPS
(INU only is not correct because INU/GPS uses the most recently collected GPS data to determine position during a GPS failure. The GPS/A/H solution cannot provide any position info without a functioning GPS).

Front 108

The standard setup for steering solutions is _________. __________ serve as secondary solutions.

Back 108

INU/GPS
GPS/A/H

Front 109

EGI1 uses a ____ channel unit, while EGI2 uses a ____ channel unit. Both are __________ GPS receivers. The commercial (MMR) GPS receivers are ____ channel units.

Back 109

12
5
military
12

Front 110

The TACAN AN/ARN-118(V) radio operating range varies between ____ and _____ miles, depending on altitude.

Back 110

12
275

Front 111

You are flying with the TACAN in T/R mode and notice that your system is receiving a garbled ID signal. What should you do?

Back 111

Disregard both range and bearing information.

Front 112

If there is a difference between you flight plan (database waypoint info) and your paper copy flight plan, the __________ takes precedence.

Back 112

paper copy

Front 113

The max difference allowed between database course and published course is ____ degrees, and the distances match within ____ NM for a GPS non-precision (overlay) approach, and ____ NM for an RNAV approach.

Back 113

5
0.3
0.1

Front 114

A predictive RAIM check must be accomplished ____ before ETA or ETD for terminal GPS operations.

Back 114

15

Front 115

You can check predictive RAIM (P-RAIM) on the active flight plan by selecting APPR P-RAIM on the ____________ page.

Back 115

fpln edit 2/2

Front 116

The Flight Management Function (FMF), which is hosted in the Integrated Processing Centers (IPCs), performs continuous RAIM on what 2 nav systems?

Back 116

The designated pilot's selected navigation solution (whether EGI or MMR), and the commercial (MMR) GPS.

Front 117

The Fault Detection and Exclusion (FDE) function will detect a faulty satellite and exclude it. FDE is a requirement on all ____ channel GPS units, and as such is found on ______, and both _____ receivers.

Back 117

12
EGI1
MMR

Front 118

If Actual Nav Performance (ANP) becomes greater than Required Nav Performance (RNP) while the FMS is the primary navigation source, _____________ will be displayed in the bottom right corner of the HSI if in the oceanic, enroute, and terminal phases of flight. If in approach phase, the flag will be _____.

Back 118

yellow flag
red

Front 119

To sequence the FMS to the Missed Approach waypoint during an approach, what 3 things can you do?

Back 119

-Pickle if you have MISSED APPR is selected for the go-around mode
-Go DIR to the missed approach waypoint
-If AUTO is selected at LSK 5 on the fpln page, it will auto sequence after reaching the VDP

Front 120

True or False: One of the goals of CNS/ATM is to fit more aircraft into the same amount of airspace.

Back 120

True

Front 121

Heading and attitude, as provided by the INUs, display on the MFDs at the ___________ positions.

Back 121

pilot's and copilot's (not the navigator's)

Front 122

On the CBT question that shows nav system status page, it asks, "At which LSK can you find the status of INU1?". The answer is "LSK2" which is "GO EGI1"

Back 122

-

Front 123

What buttons on the IACP would you receive VHF-NAV audio?

Back 123

VOR1, VOR2

Front 124

You are operating the TACAN in T/R mode and notice that one audio ID signal is clear, but the second one is garbled. What does this mean?

Back 124

The aircraft is receiving range info from one, and audio ID from another.

Front 125

The FMF performs the RAIM calculations using the designated pilot's navigation solution and:
(3 more)
**be careful on the test, this is a "Select all that apply"

Back 125

-the civil continuous RAIM result
-the commercial GPS solution form the MMRs
-the blended navigation solution from the EGIs

Front 126

What are some possible responses to a "√plt anp" annunciation in the annunciation line on the CDU?
(3)
**Select all that apply**

Back 126

-Check the autopilot and flight director configuration
-Notify ATC that an RNP containment alert has been raised
-Crosscheck the nav solution against other nav solutions

Front 127

If the command bars are unreliable, the ____ flag will indicate so.

Back 127

FD

Front 128

The radio altimeter decision height will be set to _________ for the approach being flown.

Back 128

HAT or HAA

Front 129

When the airflow around the AOA probe varies as in a sideslip, the pilot and copilot AOA indicators operate ____________ and indicate __________ readings.

Back 129

independently
different

Front 130

The radio altimeter indicates _____________ only and should not be used as the primary decision height altitude indication.

Back 130

absolute altitude

Front 131

The mode that provides a command for intercepting and tracking a localizer beam and glideslope path is the _________ mode.

Back 131

APPR AUTO

Front 132

In the AC-CL mode, after the flaps are retracted above 16.5 degrees, the command bars command a pitch with transitions to a ________________________.

Back 132

constant speed climb

Front 133

If either the pilot’s or copilot’s angle of attack transmitter is inoperative, the two amber ____________________ lights (one on each pilot’s instrument panel) will illuminate, but will not indicate which of the two transmitters is faulty.

Back 133

RGA FAIL INOPERATIVE

Front 134

When the primary navigation source is not FMS, always set the FD mode selector to ______ or _______ before changing radio frequency to a new station or switching radio navigation

Back 134

HDG
GYRO

Front 135

Normalized AOA means AOA is displayed in ____________ by the pointer on a 0 to 1.0 scale.

Back 135

percent of lift

Front 136

The INU-1 and INU-2 provide __________________ to the pilot’s and copilot’s HSI.

Back 136

heading information

Front 137

The HDG flag in view indicates an invalid ___________.

Back 137

compass

Front 138

TACAN, FMS, or ADF, VOR#1, or VOR#2 information on either H.S.I. is displayed by the _______________.

Back 138

bearing pointer

Front 139

During turning, accelerating, or decelerating while taxiing, do not set the flight director mode selector switch to the _____ position.

Back 139

RGA

Front 140

A momentary depression of the remote slew on the yoke causes the heading marker to move in ___________ increments.

Back 140

one degree

Front 141

When the aircraft is out of the capture range of the localizer, selecting ___________ causes the command bars to direct a ____ degree localizer intercept.

Back 141

APPR MAN
30

Front 142

The capture point for an ILS localizer course when using the NAV/LOC or APPROACH AUTO modes of the FD-109 system is approximately 1.5 to 3 degrees, the _______ dot on the HSI scale.

Back 142

outer

Front 143

Two sets must be separated by ____ channels to use the A/A mode of the TACAN.

Back 143

63

Front 144

The command bars display a ___ degree wings level pitch up command when the RGA pushbutton switches are actuated for a go-around.

Back 144

7

Front 145

_______ and _________ RGA pushbutton switches should be actuated just prior to reaching _______ speed. * (Vrot-10 is the target)

Back 145

Pilot
copilot
Vrot

Front 146

Constant airspeed commands cannot be displayed by the _______________ on the ADI.

Back 146

command bars

Front 147

Depress the _________ light or the ______________ light to extinguish the COMPAR WARNING light.

Back 147

MSTR DISC
COMPAR WARNING

Front 148

In the AC-CL mode, the RGA system is programmed to command a nosedown pitch change during climbout before flap retraction at a rate of ________ every _______ seconds.

Back 148

1 degree
6 to 7

Front 149

The airplane rotation for takeoff will ___________ in order to actuate the RGA pushbutton switch.

Back 149

not be delayed

Front 150

The command bars will not display if:
-
-
-
-

Back 150

-FD master switch is off
-The mode selector is in GYRO
-The airplane is in excessive attitude
-FD flag displayed on ADI

Front 151

On the FD control panel, the manual pitch knob AND altitude hold switch will only function if the mode selector is:
-
-
-

Back 151

-HDG
-NAV/LOC
-APPR AUTO (prior to glideslope capture)

Front 152

The comparator warning monitor panel has 8 annunciators, 5 warning, 3 monitors. When will the light illuminate for the following warnings:
-GLIDESLOPE:
-LOC:
-RADIO ALTM:
-COMP:
-RGA:
-MSTR DISC:

Back 152

-GLIDESLOPE: when either side is more than 1/2 dot different for more than 2 seconds
-LOC: when either side is more than 1/3 dot different for more than 2 seconds
-RADIO ALTM: when either radio altimeter is off for more than 2 seconds
-COMP: when either compass on the HSI is off for more than 4 seconds
-RGA: when there has been a 3 degree pitch error for more than 2 seconds on either side
-MASTER DISC: when power to the comparator warning monitor circuit is lost or if a failure occurs in any of the monitored subsystems

Front 153

Within ___ knots of rotation _______________ will actuate, or "pickle" the ________________.

Back 153

10
both pilots
RGA button

Front 154

How do you properly accomplish the following step in the Interior Inspection checklist step?
Interior Lights - Checked and set
Press TEST RESET switch and check COMP WARN lights and comparator monitor warning lights.

Back 154

Press and hold the TEST RESET button. All lights except the RGA light should illuminate immediately. The RGA light should illuminate after a short delay.

Front 155

The primary components of the AN/ARC-164 are:
-
-
-
-

Back 155

RX/TX (There are 2 rx's, 1 main and 1 guard)
Ant
Control Panel
CIPHONY control panel

Front 156

The RX/TX can tune UHF frequencies in the range of _______ to ___________ MHz. There are _______ frequencies available in step of ______ MHz. There are ______ preset channels available.

Back 156

225.0
399.975
7000
0.025
20

Front 157

True or False: Secure communications for COM2 and COM3 radios are provided by the ciphony control panel.

Back 157

False. COM1 is the only radio that can be encrypted.

Front 158

COM1 is powered by the _____________ bus.

Back 158

switched aux DC
(Can operate radio with just battery power)

Front 159

When the AN/ARC-164 MNL-PRESET-GRD switch is set to GRD, the
-
-

Back 159

guard rx is disabled
main rx is tuned to 243.0

Front 160

When 2 UHF sets in the aircraft are tuned to approximately the same frequency _____________ may be received in the other set.

Back 160

distorted transmissions

Front 161

The VHF/UHF radio set control is ___________ used to control the VHF/UHF radios and ____________ be used unless there is an problem with the ________.

Back 161

not normally
shouldn't
CDU

Front 162

When pressing LSKs 1-4 to tune an airport frequency, what happens after the frequency is tuned to the radio? (In terms of the CDU page)

Back 162

Stays on the same page.

Front 163

How do you know whether the frequency listed in CHAN is AM or FM?

Back 163

If the frequency listed is FM, the space after the numbers is blank. For AM, an "AM" indicator will be displayed after the numbers.

Front 164

What happens when you press LSK 5 or 6 on com radio 1/2 page with nothing in the scratchpad? (Home screen for COM)

Back 164

The radio will recall and set the previously set frequency.

Front 165

The ZERO (PULL) position on the mode selector of the Radio Set Control (RSC, or box on the overhead panel) will clear data from ________ and __________________.

Back 165

presets
all electronic protection parameters (HAVE QUICK, Secure Voice)

Front 166

A "M" displayed in brackets on the Presets LSK means:

Back 166

the frequency in CHAN is a manually entered frequency.

Front 167

What is the meaning of home state?

Back 167

The interphone status after a functional change has been completed.

Front 168

Once you select a function, how much time are you allowed to make an adjustment before the ADIS returns to the home state?

Back 168

6 seconds

Front 169

What will cause a BIT to be accomplished?

Back 169

Applying power
A 2 sec power interruption
Pressing the BIT push button

Front 170

What indications show that you are monitoring COM1?

Back 170

The audio COM1 LED is illuminated

Front 171

What message indicates a successful BIT check?

Back 171

PASS

Front 172

If any of the keys are depressed for more than ____ seconds, a ______________ message will be displayed.

Back 172

35
STCK KEY

Front 173

Which of the IACP's has no backup partner?

Back 173

Boom operator (forward station)

Front 174

When operating in emergency mode, which radio is hardwired to the copilot's IACP?

Back 174

COM2

Front 175

When operating in emergency mode, which radio is hardwired to the pilot's IACP?

Back 175

COM1

Front 176

You are at a station other than the boom operator's and attempt to manually enter the BU mode by a short press of the EMG push button. What does it mean if your IACP shows the message XSIDE BU and the EMG push button status indicator blinks for and exit time out period?

Back 176

Your partner is in the BU mode

Front 177

How do you activate the backup mode?

Back 177

Press the EMG button for a short press

Front 178

One of the buttons on your IACP has been stuck for more than 35 seconds. What kind of message would you see?

Back 178

STCK KEY

Front 179

In an airborne digital inter phone system, which component integrates all of the signals?

Back 179

Combined Audio Interface Unit (CAIU)

Front 180

The Local Interphone Control System (LCL ICS), permits localized intercom communications between __________ within a __________.

Back 180

stations
group

Front 181

To initiate normal intercom communications with another operator, which button would you press on the IACP?

Back 181

ICS

Front 182

What do you need to do to select emergency mode from the IACP?

Back 182

Press EMG for a long press

Front 183

There are ___ Crew Regulator Units on the airplane. They are suitable for routine use up to ________ feet and for emergency use up to _________ feet.

Back 183

9
42,000
50,000

Front 184

The source of oxygen in the KC-135 primary and auxiliary systems is __________ oxygen.

Back 184

gaseous

Front 185

The primary system shutoff valve ail be safety wired in the full ______________ position during normal operation.

Back 185

counterclockwise/open

Front 186

There are ___ portable oxygen bottle assemblies. There are also ___ brackets for additional bottles to be added.

Back 186

8
2

Front 187

The MA-1 portable oxygen bottle assembly consists of what 3 things?

Back 187

A-21 pressure demand regulator
A-6 oxgen cylinder
Carrying harness

Front 188

The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) can be used as a source of oxygen by the crew when movement about the aircraft is necessary for crew duties, except ___________________.

Back 188

passenger monitoring

Front 189

The purpose of the Aircrew Eye Respiratory Protection (AERP) is to:

Back 189

protect aircrew members from toxic chemical exposure

Front 190

When in flight, if the primary system shows a pressure below 100 psi, you must:

Back 190

open the auxiliary system shutoff valve.

Front 191

The primary and auxiliary system will be serviced:

Back 191

as determined by the AC

Front 192

The service panel consists of:
-
-

Back 192

An oxygen filler valve
A pressure gage

Front 193

The oxygen FLOW indicator indicates ___________.

Back 193

normal flow of oxygen

Front 194

With the regulator diluter lever set to NORMAL, the regulator delivers:
-
-
-

Back 194

-100% oxygen at approximately 30,000 ft cabin pressure altitude
-A varying mixture of air an oxygen depending on altitude
-100% air at sea level

Front 195

True or False: On regulators other than the CRU-73A, if the oxygen supply lever is OFF, and the diluter lever is in NORMAL, the crew member will be breathing cabin air only.

Back 195

True

Front 196

The 4 positions of the altitude selector knob on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle are as follows. Describe each position.
-NORM:
-30M:
-42M:
-EMER:

Back 196

-NORM: Regulator operates in demand mode, supplying O2 only on demand. It is used up to FL300
-30M: O2 is supplied under slight pressure and is used between FL300 and FL420
-42M: O2 is supplied at a higher positive pressure and is used between FL420 and FL450
-EMER: O2 is supplied at a still higher positive pressure and is used at altitudes higher than FL450

Front 197

True or False: The A-21 pressure-demand regulator regulates portable oxygen bottle pressure delivered to the mask.

Back 197

True

Front 198

True or False: The MA-1 regulator supplies 100% oxygen, but only when the altitude selector knob is set to EMER.

Back 198

False

Front 199

True or False: A positive lock is provided on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle selector knob.

Back 199

False

Front 200

Which altitude selector knob position supplies the highest positive pressure?

Back 200

EMER

Front 201

What are you checking for when you set the emergency toggle lever to TEST MASK and hold your breath?

Back 201

Proper mask fit and serviceable hoses and connectors

Front 202

Oxygen pressure on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle should not be permitted to drop below ____.

Back 202

50 psi

Front 203

Prior to servicing portable oxygen bottles, you should ensure that what are free of oil and grease?

Back 203

Oxygen cylinder filler port and oxygen recharger outlet

Front 204

Each crew member shall use supplemental oxygen anytime cabin altitude exceeds ________ ft.

Back 204

10,000

Front 205

The copilot will initiate oxygen checks at what time intervals when cabin altitudes are:
-10,000-25,000?
-Above 25,000?

Back 205

15 min
5 min

Front 206

If the aircraft loses cabin pressure, the pilot must initiate an immediate descent to lowest practical altitude, preferable below ________.

Back 206

18,000

Front 207

If any occupant lacks functioning oxygen equipment, the pilot must descend to maintain an altitude of _________ or less.

Back 207

13,000

Front 208

A functioning system and mask located within arm's reach, with regulator set to 100% and ON describes what condition?

Back 208

Readily available

Front 209

Wear a helmet with an oxygen mask attached to one sided, or have available an approved quick-donning/sweep-on mask properly adjusted and positioned describes what condition?

Back 209

Immediately available

Front 210

At a flight altitude of 26,000 ft, when performing crew duties on the flight deck, the boom operator must have oxygen _____________.

Back 210

readily available

Front 211

After setting the oxygen regulator for emergency use, you should:

Back 211

inform the pilot immediately, as this reduces the oxygen supply duration

Front 212

The oxygen pressure gage indicates oxygen pressure at _____________.

Back 212

the regulator

Front 213

When the emergency oxygen toggle over is set to EMERGENCY, the regulator supplies ______________.

Back 213

100% oxygen under positive pressure

Front 214

The oxygen regulator is suitable for routine use up to __________ feet and for emergency use up to __________ feet.

Back 214

42,000
50,000

Front 215

During the oxygen preflight, set the regulator diluter level to NORMAL OXYGEN. Hold your breath and check for no flow around the mask. The blinker should be ______. A ______ blinker indicates a leak.

Back 215

black
white

Front 216

If the primary system falls below _____ psi, open the auxiliary system shutoff valve for continued operation.

Back 216

100

Front 217

What displays allow you to use the IHC free cursor?
-
-
-
-

Back 217

HDG MAP
N MAP
MAP ARC
TACTICAL

Front 218

The limits for IMFD overlays are:
- ____ total for naiads, fixes and airports
- ____ total legs for MOAs and SUA

Back 218

50
51

Front 219

When displaying WPT ALTS in the BKGND, DCLTR page, what does and A or B denote when attached to the end of an altitude? Ex:4000A or 20000B

Back 219

It's an above or below restriction than can be displayed on the IMFD by selecting WPT ALTS on the declutter menu.

Front 220

The altitude scale on the PROFILE overlay is a function of the __________________ of the ___________ mode. It represents ________ ft of altitude with the large tick marks.

Back 220

horizontal range
HDG MAP
10,000

Front 221

What CDU keys should not be used to compose a free text message?

Back 221

Slash (/) or any CDU function key. Ex: IFF, NAV, ect

Front 222

SATCOM communication will be lost when exceeding ____ AOB.

Back 222

30

Front 223

What is the purpose of the slew control on the IHC?

Back 223

To move the cursor between and through menus.

Front 224

What does the color green signify on the IMFD?

Back 224

Data that has been automatically filled in

Front 225

What are 3 types of cursors available on the IMFD?

Back 225

Button Cursor
Free Cursor
Menu Cursor

Front 226

In which situation would you use the free cursor?

Back 226

When you are using a stick map display

Front 227

From the CPDLC page, how do you activate the free text mode?

Back 227

Bring up the MODE menu and select FREE TEXT

Front 228

What ways will the IMFD notify you of an ATC message?

Back 228

-You will hear a chime
-You will see an ATC MSG, in amber, on the IMFD mode bar
-You will see an ATC MSG, in amber, at LSK 6R on the CPDLC main page
-The CPDLC menu will pop up whenever you're viewing a stick map or performance data IMFD display

Front 229

On a HDG MAP display, how much greater is the value of the solid, outer ring range than the selected value on the inner, dashed ring?

Back 229

2 times greater

Front 230

When the TEST button on the MFD control panel is pushed in and held for more than 5 seconds, what happens?

Back 230

The radio altimeter test starts. While holding the button in, the RA flag appears and the altitude counts up to approximately 100 feet (both on the bottom right corner of the ADI)

Front 231

When power is first applied by the FMS power switch, allow ___ minutes warmup time for the temperatures above _________, and ____ minutes warmup time for temps from ____ to ____. Note, manufacturer's specs only go down to ____.

Back 231

2
freezing
5
-15°C/5°F
0°C/32°F
5°F

Front 232

What are the 5 HSI modes (or base displays) to select using the MFD control panel (MCP) mode knob?

Back 232

HSI, HSI ARC, MAP ARC, IMFD, WXR or TERR

Front 233

TCAS can be displayed on which base displays?
-
-
-

Back 233

-MAP ARC
-Tactical (&%^$!, it doesn't list tactical as a base display option!)
-HSI ARC

Front 234

What base displays can TERR or WXR be displayed?
-
-

Back 234

MAP ARC
HSI ARC

Front 235

What color is the primary source course arrow displayed as on the HSI? Secondary? Bearing pointer?

Back 235

White
Magenta
Cyan

Front 236

How can you tell what the primary source and secondary source is when looking at the ADI and HSI?

Back 236

Bottom right hand corner on both displays what nav source is selected in white letters. The secondary is displayed in the bottom left corner of the HSI in magenta.

Front 237

What happens when you press the DIRECT knob in for more than 2 seconds?

Back 237

The primary and secondary sources and courses are swapped.

Front 238

What does the CRS 1/2 button on the MCP do? How do you know what is being controlled by looking at the HSI?

Back 238

It changes what source or course will be controlled when using the SOURCE or CRS knobs. If the secondary source or course is being controlled or changed, a magenta box will appear around the secondary source in the bottom right corner of the HSI.

Front 239

What are the 5 data points that can be displayed on the bottom right corner of the HSI, under the primary source display?

Back 239

GS
TAS
TTG
ET (elapsed time from weight off wheels)
Off

Front 240

If the FMS is the primary nav source, what 3 things will occur when you press the HDG SYNC knob?

Back 240

HDG bug will slew to current ac heading
The FMS heading bug will display
The "FMS" source will change to "FHDG" on the ADI and HSI

Front 241

What will happen if you press the "<-" button on the MCP?

Back 241

The bearing pointer nav source will change. The source can be seen in cyan in the bottom right portion of the HSI display.

Front 242

What will happen if you press the ADI/PFD button on the MCP?

Back 242

The ADI will cycle between normal ADI display to a Primary Flight Display (PFD), which combines both the HSI and ADI on a single display.

Front 243

In what preset increments will pressing the DH knob display?

Back 243

2000, 1000, 500, 250

Front 244

*When taking review questions quiz, or even the end of block test, make sure you check the secondary source for the box, AND whether the question is a "Select All That Apply", before submitting answer.

Back 244

-

Front 245

On which MFD(s) is a turn-slip indicator attached?

Back 245

Both pilot and copilot ADIs

Front 246

In what increments will the RA be displayed at the following altitudes:
2500-1000 feet:
1000-100 feet:
Below 100 feet:

Back 246

50 feet
10 foot
5 foot

Front 247

Can you use the DH displayed on the ADI as the priary means for defining the the DH or MDA?

Back 247

No. Unless the approach is a published radio altitude approach.

Front 248

When will the ATT or attitude miscompare flag display on the the ADI?

Back 248

When there is more than 4° pitch or 5° roll difference for more than .5 seconds between the left and right seat attitude sources.

Front 249

The decision height annunciator (large amber DH left of center on the ADI) is removed from the display when the aircraft is at least ________ above the decision height setting.

Back 249

10 feet

Front 250

If you are at 1200 feet AGL and descending, your radio altimeter will be incrementing in:

Back 250

50 foot increments

Front 251

Which speed mode indicator appears below the speed deviation scale when the speed is relative to AOA?

Back 251

SPD

Front 252

When will the runway symbol appear on the ADI and when will it begin to rise towards the airplane symbol?

Back 252

It will appear if the primary course is localizer, back-course localizer, or FMS approach mode. It will rise when the radio altimeter reaches 200 feet on descent.

Front 253

What increments are displayed on the ADI for bank angle?

Back 253

10, 20, 30, 45, 60

Front 254

What pitch is indicated by the dot below the 10° pitch index on the ADI?

Back 254

8°, to aid in climbout

Front 255

On the vertical deviation scale on the right side of the ADI, in what increments are the dots for both LOC and FMS?

Back 255

For LOC the scale pointer is a magenta trapezoid and is in 0.25° increments.
For FMS the scale pointer is a 4 point white star and each dot represents 500 feet deviation in the enroute or terminal modes. It is a 0.35° deviation in the approach mode.

Front 256

The rate of turn indicator on the bottom of the ADI indicates ____ degrees per second for 1 dot and ____ per second for 2 dots.

Back 256

1.5 (1/2 standard rate turn)
3 (standard rate turn)

Front 257

At what bank angle and pitch angles will the ADI declutter all info except pitch, bank scales and horizon? When will the ADI be restored?

Back 257

+65° of bank
+30° or -20° pitch
ADI will restore when aircraft is recovered to 5 degrees less than the previously listed limits. Ex 60° of bank.

Front 258

An amber GS indicator will appear on the right side of the ADI if glideslope indications differ by more than a _____ dot. An amber LOC indicator will appear at the bottom right portion of the ADI if the localizer indications differ by more than a _____ dot.

Back 258

1/2
1/3

Front 259

The Standby Attitude Indicator (SAI) will function for ____ minutes after a total power loss to the device.

Back 259

9

Front 260

Each dot on the HSI primary course deviation scale represents what amount of course deviation for VOR or TACAN? Localizer? FMS?

Back 260

5°
0.75°
2 NM oceanic, .5 NM terminal, 0.15 NM approach

Front 261

Is the normal heading reference on the HSI in magnetic or true north?

Back 261

Mag

Front 262

The DH on the ADI can be set to a HAT or HAA of ____ to _______ feet.

Back 262

0
2500

Front 263

What are the visual indications that commanded pitch or roll is invalid?

Back 263

A FD flag appears
The command bars are removed from view (pink wings!)

Front 264

Which button and knob are used to toggle between primary and secondary sources and set the desired secondary source on the HSI?

Back 264

CRS 1/2; SOURCE knob

Front 265

The main topics of concentration for the CDU basics are:
(8)

Back 265

-Names of CDU keys
-Names of specific lines on the CDU
-CDU symbols
-Operation of the CLR key
-Overview of the shortcut, dedicated page and function access keys
-FMS system architecture, including bus structure, attitude and heading sources, and system power
-Database structure and data loader and PCMCIA card operations
-Waypoint entry formats

Front 266

How many DTU USB Interface Panels are located at the Nav station?

Back 266

2

Front 267

How many flight plans can the USB memory key store?

Back 267

50

Front 268

What is the max number of waypoints each flight plan can have?

Back 268

200

Front 269

When should you remove the USB memory key?
**Check all that apply

Back 269

Before leaving the aircraft
At the end of the flight
When required

Front 270

Each DTU USB Interface Panel has one USB port displayed as what card slot on the start 4 mission page?
(A, B, C, or D?)

Back 270

C

Front 271

Which of the following keys accesses database and data loader info? (IDX, MSN, INAV or FPLN?)

Back 271

IDX

Front 272

What CDU page allows you to ERASE an active flight plan?

Back 272

Under IDX, Start 5 fpln/load page

Front 273

Describe what the following 8 symbols mean:
[ ]
√
:
*
↕
---
→ (inward arrow)
← (outward arrow)

Back 273

[ ] Indicates you can enter data
√ Check whatever is indicated
← (outward arrow) Accesses the indicated page
* Function is on, enabled, or in process
: Toggles between various selections
→ (inward arrow) Selects or enables the indicated function
↕ Indicates the pages may be scrolled in the respective direction
--- Indicates no data or invalid data

Front 274

The annunciation line on the CDU is where in relation to the LSKs?

Back 274

Between LSK3 and 4 on the left side and LSK7 and 8 on the right

Front 275

What do arrows pointing away from titles mean?

Back 275

Pressing the LSK will access the page indicated by the label.

Front 276

Which CDU key will allow you to store a waypoint as the aircraft passes over it?

Back 276

MARK

Front 277

Describe what the following keys functions are?
-IFF
-STR
-FPLN
-PSN

Back 277

-IFF Incorporates ID, Friend or Foe functionality
-STR Accesses info on selected navigation sources, including course and heading
-FPLN Displays current, future, and history waypoints
-PSN Accesses the page containing the selected present position and current environmental info

Front 278

Describe the primary functions of the following Function Access keys:
-EDIT
-IDX
-MSN
-INAV
-STAT

Back 278

-EDIT: Access to AR patterns, holding patterns, alternate flight plans
-IDX: Access to startup functions, power application, navigation configuration functions
-MSN: Access to pages congaing W/B and FSAS functions
-INAV: Access to pages that monitor navigation sources
-STAT: Access to the status of many components

Front 279

Which key allows you to access functions related to your flight plan? (We're not asking about the key that shows you the waypoints in order - FPLN)
(INAV, EDIT, STR, or IDX?)

Back 279

EDIT

Front 280

Which of the following performs the major monitoring and control functions for the FMS?
a. FSAS bus
b. Flight management bus
c. Embeddded GPS (EGI)
d. Integrated Processing Center (IPC)

Back 280

D ( System architecture diagram is useful in determining answer)

Front 281

Select the true statements from the choices below.
**Select all that apply
a. The IPC is bus controller on the flight management bus, the FSS bus, and the EGI bus.
b. The IPC is bus controller on the flight management bus and the EGI bus.
c. The FSAS is bus controller on the FSAS bus.
d. The CDU is bus controller on the flight management bus.

Back 281

b, and c.
(Again, use the diagram)

Front 282

If an attitude source miscompare occurs, a __________ will appear on the ADI.

Back 282

yellow ATT flag

Front 283

What key is used to access the database and data loader information?

Back 283

IDX

Front 284

You are about to load your flight plan during preflight. It's a long mission and you have PCMCIA cards installed in all four data loader slots. According to the CDU, which one will you be copying from?
(The CDU says "DLDR SRC:DLDR2" on LSK2 and "*CARD A CARDLBL-A" on LSK3)

Back 284

Card A from data loader 2.

Front 285

What would be the most likely source of data if you needed to access a different anchor patter that was in your original flight plan?

Back 285

RFL database on the IPC

Front 286

If DL:OFF is selected on the config 1/3 page and HF1 is in HFDL mode, the HF SILENT function will be ______________. However, if any HF radio is in the ALE (Automatic Link Establishment) mode, the DL:OFF selection will _______________.

Back 286

turned on for the HF1 radio
will not automatically turn on the HF SILENT function.

Front 287

What does the HF SILENT:ON selection do? When should SILENT be set to ON?

Back 287

The ALE function of the radio will scan and receive channels but will not respond to ALE calls or transmit automatically. However, normal HF transmissions by the PTT button will not be affected.
On the ground or when air refueling

Front 288

True or False: You must select SILENT:OFF to allow normal HF voice transmission and reception.

Back 288

False

Front 289

You're on a flight across the pond and need to talk to TACC using an HF phone patch. Where would you find the freq for this patch?

Back 289

FIH, section B

Front 290

For SELCAL operations, squelch should be set to ______.

Back 290

POS (positive)

Front 291

What are the possible choices for AUD on the SELCAL chan page?

Back 291

VOICE or DATA

Front 292

On the SELCAL chan page, what options are there for SQ?

Back 292

POS, 1, 2, 3

Front 293

If you are planning to fly a VOR/DME approach, what consideration would you have to plan for when setting up your NAV frequencies in the CDU?

Back 293

Setting the DME pair frequency into the NAV radio page

Front 294

The MMR includes receivers for what 4 types of nav signals?

Back 294

GPS, glideslope, VOR/localizer, marker beacon

Front 295

For normal ops, the ARC-210 radio set control should _____________.

Back 295

remain off.

Front 296

Which radio has High Frequency Datalink (HFDL) capability?

Back 296

HF1

Front 297

Which mode would you select to manually tune an HF radio?

Back 297

ALE MAN

Front 298

An "@" symbol between the waypoint number and the identifier indicates what? What does the waypoint look like on the map?

Back 298

-It is a "fly-over" waypoint. It will not sequence until you fly over the way point.
-4 point star with a circle

Front 299

What is the default sequence mode?

Back 299

AUTO

Front 300

All earlier history waypoints are marked by a ____.

Back 300

#

Front 301

Waypoint attributes:
H, V, O, R, S, M, T, N, I, P

Back 301

H-Holding pattern waypoint
V-Waypoint has a specific altitude assigned to it
O-Obrit fix (ARCP) of an AR pattern
R-STAR waypoint
S-SID waypoint
M-Missed approach waypoint
T-Required Time of Arrival (RTA) waypoint
N-Ancor fix of AR pattern
I-Intercept solution for a moving target
P-Pattern waypoint (not related to AR)

Front 302

If you entered an altitude block in the scratchpad as FL190/FL250, how would the FMS enter the altitudes on data line 1?

Back 302

FL190A/FL250B

Front 303

What does BLND WND on LSK 3 in the fpln b, wpt [ ] page indicate?

Back 303

The FMS will make calculations from an appropriate blending of planned and actual winds, depending on the proximity of the waypoint.

Front 304

On fpln c, wet [ ] page, how would you find out if you're early or late?

Back 304

Toggle ETA display on data line 3

Front 305

What does a checkmark indicate on fpln a page?

Back 305

There is an altitude constraint problem, the specified climb or descent cannot be accomplished with the indicated altitude constraints.

Front 306

What is the difference between AUTO and MAN sequencing?

Back 306

AUTO will lead turn the sequencing, MAN will not sequence at all.

Front 307

What is a "." used for when preceding an entered waypoint? What about "/"?

Back 307

It is used for inserting published airway waypoints between 2 existing flight plan waypoints.
A "/" is prefaced on a user defined label for a waypoint. Ex: coords are entered into flight plan, and you want to label that waypoint.

Front 308

What are the 2 ways you can perform a direct to?

Back 308

DIR key and selecting waypoint or pressing the CRS knob.

Front 309

What are 2 ways you can exit a hold using the CDU?

Back 309

On hold fpln PPSN page, press LSK 8 EXIT HOLD. Or perform a direct-to to a waypoint other than the holding fix.

Front 310

What are 2 ways you can access the hold page to view or modify holding parameters?

Back 310

On the fpln page, select any waypoint that has an "H" attribute indicated on the right side of the screen
On the patterns page, select LSK 8 HOLD

Front 311

The <<orbit active>> message on fpln d page indicates that you've entered _________________ and the FMS is directing you to capture the appropriate leg.

Back 311

protected airspace region

Front 312

With RDVZ selected on the fpln d page, what will the FMS direct the aircraft to do?

Back 312

The airplane will continue on outbound leg until it is time to turn in front of the receiver rolling out at the designated LEAD distance. At that time you'll toggle to TRACK.

Front 313

If available, what selections must be made to define a SID for your departure airport before inserting it into the flight plane?

Back 313

Origin (ORIG) airport
SID name
Runway
Transition

Front 314

What happens if you changed runways on the sids menu in FPLN?

Back 314

Only the appropriate waypoints for the new runway will be changed in the flight plane, as long as the origin remains the same. If you changed to a new airport for the SID, the departure procedures that did not match would be removed.

Front 315

The alternate flight plan acts as ________________ when loading from a data card or USB key. Then you copy the alternate into the active flight plan.

Back 315

holding area

Front 316

Selecting which LSK would be the first step in saving your active flight plan to a data card?

Back 316

LSK 5 COPY FPLN

Front 317

Which LSK would display the alternate flight plan showing the waypoints in the order they would be flown?

Back 317

LSK 2 LEGS

Front 318

What are 2 ways to create a Markpoint?

Back 318

Press the MRK button at the bottom of the CDU
Using the cursor on the IMFD, slew to the waypoint you want to store and press SELECT. The mark point will be stored ad also entered into the scratchpad.

Front 319

If you receive <<no raim>> or <<no appr raim>> on the CDU, what does it mean?

Back 319

Don't shoot the GPS approach. The accuracy of your GPS navigation solution is suspect.

Front 320

How would you enter a line as a user boundary?

Back 320

Enter a minimum of 2 points, followed by a blank position.

Front 321

What does the APPR P-RAIM function do?

Back 321

Predicts whether or not the satellite monitoring function will be available at a place and time you specify

Front 322

What must be specified to define a SID for KLTS before it can be entered in the flight plan?

Back 322

Runway
SID name
Transition if available

Front 323

What types of approaches can be selected or defined from the FMS APPR page?

Back 323

GPS, visual and tactical

Front 324

What is the benefit of entering a DELAY time and an estimated time of departure (ETD) on the refuel c page at LSKs 5 and 8?

Back 324

Estimated time of arrival (ETA) calculations for future waypoints will be more accurate if a DELAY time and ETD are entered.

Front 325

The offset is automatically recomputed when you pass the ________ waypoint. You can change the offset by entering a new value in the __________ at LSK 3. You can also manually recompute the offset by entering a ______ at LSK 3.

Back 325

ARCP
brackets
dash "-"

Front 326

What will the FMS direct the airplane to do when TRACK is selected on the refuel d fpln page?

Back 326

Turn inbound and intercept the ARCP waypoint.

Front 327

What does the INSERT ALTN function do?

Back 327

Inserts the alternate flight plan in to the active flight plan

Front 328

What does RAIM AVAILABLE mean on the CDU?

Back 328

RAIM will be available at the place and time you specified.

Front 329

The MSN key functions are:
(11)

Back 329

W/B
Fuel quantity and CG
Fuel limits
FSAS performance
TOLD
Flightplan performance
Climb, Cruise, and Descent target performance
ADI remote data line
FSAS data function
Intializing FSAS
Cruise calculator

Front 330

DATA key functions are:
(2)

Back 330

Flightplan summary page
Flightplan ident data page

Front 331

What is the purpose of the low fuel limits page?

Back 331

The LOW FUEL caution light on the fuel panel will illuminate when a tank reaches the fuel quantity shown.

Front 332

What is the purpose of entering options ("*OPT") on the fpln perf clb 2/4 page?

Back 332

To generate target speed and thrust values on the climb performance target (perf tgt) page and remote data line on the ADI.

Front 333

On the mission 1/2 page you can identify or select what data will be displayed on the ___________________.

Back 333

remote data line of each pilot's ADI

Front 334

On the cruise calculator page, BRC and _____ are options at LSK1.

Back 334

END

Front 335

On the cruise calculator page, LSK 7 says CLR. What effect will this have on this page?

Back 335

It will reset the altitude in LSK 3 to the current value.

Front 336

By using the DATA key, you can access distance to, ETE, ETA for:
(3)
**Select all that apply

Back 336

-Your present position direct to any flight plan waypoint
-Your present position direct to any user-selected waypoint
-Your present position to any waypoint in your flight plan along the planned route

Front 337

Big picture this lesson is about:

Back 337

Lateral steering pages - lnav
Vertical steering pages - vnav
Time steering pages - tnav and tnav (gs)
Five available steering solutions
Postion (psn) pages
Required navigation performance (RNP) and rnp pages
CIVIL and MILITARY RNP modes
Containment alerts
Review of M3, IFF, and MARK keys

Front 338

What triggers a containment alert?

Back 338

ANP is greater than RNP.

Front 339

In addition to INU1/GPS, what are the other steering solutions available on the pilot side?

Back 339

INU2/GPS
INU1
INU2
GPS1/A/H
GPS2/A/H
*The A/H means airspeed and heading sensor inputs are used to smooth the GPS data.

Front 340

Which of the GPS receivers have the capability to track the military selective availability/anti spoofing (SA/AS) signals from the GPS satellites?

Back 340

EGI1 and EGI2

Front 341

In order to get vertical navigation (VNAV) guidance from the FMS on the pilot or copilot vnav page, you must first:

Back 341

have an altitude entered for the waypoint on the fpln a wpt page.

Front 342

In order to monitor you target speed on the time navigation (tnav) steering pages, you must first

Back 342

have an RTA entered on the fpln c wpt page.

Front 343

The pilot and copilot rnp pages are accessed using which key?

Back 343

PSN

Front 344

Which key would you press to aceass the page where you can view the current wind broken down by components (tailwind, headwind, or crosswind)?

Back 344

PSN

Front 345

An RNP containment alert will be accompanied by a _________ message win the annunciation line of the pilot's CDU.

Back 345

check pilot anp

Front 346

Which RNP mode would you select in a tactical situation where GPS jamming might be a possibility?

Back 346

MILITARY

Front 347

The topics covered in this lesson are:

Back 347

-6 available INAV functions
-12-channel and 5-channel EGIs
-Continuous RAIM
-INU solutions, including update pages
-GPS/A/H solutions
-Satellite pages
-System status pages
-Subsystem status pages
-Individual component status pages

Front 348

What does continuous RAIM do?

Back 348

Monitors the health of the satellites used in your navigation solution on an ongoing basis.

Front 349

On the inav page for GPS1/A/H, there is a value of 0.12nm listed under DIFF INU1/GPS. What does this mean?

Back 349

The difference between the GPS1/A/H reported position and the pilot-designated steering selection's position.

Front 350

Why is there no ON/OFF toggle for RAIM on the GPS1/A/H inav page?

Back 350

Continuous RAIM is always on for this GPS.

Front 351

At the top of each inav page for each navigation solution are coordinates. What do these coordinates indicate?

Back 351

The present position of the aircraft as computed by the navigation source. Ex: inav page for INU2, the coords at the top of the page are where the INU2 thinks the aircraft is.
*Don't pick the spoofer answer, "… as computed by INU2 and corrected by the amount shown by DIFF on data line 3".

Front 352

Which GPS only has 5 channels?

Back 352

EGI2

Front 353

What are the 4 source selections available when you select UPDATE on an INU inav page?

Back 353

-Pilot's designated steering solution
(will use currently selected steering solution to update INU position)
-MANUAL
(manually enter position)
-VOR/TCN
(manually entered bearing/slant range position)
-TACAN AUTO
(automatically enters bearing/slant off current TACAN)

Front 354

Which steering solutions are completely compliant in civil RNP airspace (unless you receive a containment alert)?

Back 354

INU1/GPS
INU1/GPS
GPS1/A/H
GPS2/A/H

Front 355

What does MODE GC ALN indicate on an inav page?

Back 355

Gyro compass aligning.

Front 356

What does a √ symbol indicate next to any NGO system on the system status 1/2 page?

Back 356

A component in the system has reported a failure and the individual component status page has not been accessed since the failure.

Front 357

What will toggling the ALERT toggle to OFF do on any system status page?

Back 357

Eliminates nuisance status messages for the selected system.

Front 358

On the lock-zeroize page, if the IFF is not in emergency mode, pressing the IFF LSK zeroes modes _____________. If the IFF is in emergency mode, pressing the IFF LSK zeroes only the mode ____.

Back 358

1, 2, 3A and 4
4

Front 359

Pressing the TCAS button on the MFD Control Panel (MCP) toggles the TCAS overlay on what 2 base displays?

Back 359

MAP ARC and HSI ARC (Think flying the arc, where are the other airplanes?)
**If you want to display TCAS on the IMFD, the base displays available are: TACTICAL, HDG MAP, N MAP. Use the IHC to toggle TCAS display on or off.

Front 360

How does automatic dependent surveillance-address (ADS-A) operation in a datalink environment begin?

Back 360

The aircraft establishes an air traffic services facilities notification (AFN) log-on to the air traffic services unit (ATSU).

Front 361

Which of the following is not a type of information in the ADS-A basic reporting group?

Back 361

Meteorological

Front 362

The 3 types of automatic ADS contracts are:

Back 362

periodic, event, demand

Front 363

If you inadvertenty activated an ADS emergency contract, what must you respond with when the ATSU sends an appended "CONFIRM ADS" text message to a "CONFRIM SPEED"? **If you get it wrong, they will assume the aircraft is highjacked.

Back 363

"ADS RESET"

Front 364

The purpose of selective or direct interrogations is to inform ground control of what?
**Select all that apply

Back 364

-Whether on the ground or inflight
-Mode 3/A code
-Altitude
-TCAS info

Front 365

Extended range TCAS enlarges the normal TCAS II surveillance area to a circular area radius of approximately _____ NM

Back 365

40

Front 366

For traffic equipped with Mode 3A only (no mode C), ETCAS will:

Back 366

track the traffic but not display it's altitude.

Front 367

For traffic equipped with Mode S and TCAS II, ETCAS will:
**Select all that apply

Back 367

-Track and display it's relative altitude
-Coordinate resolution advisories with the other aircraft

Front 368

You are lead today and Number 2 loses its transponder. Your ETCAS will:

Back 368

not track Number 2 (it will be "invisible")

Front 369

What 5 components are used to display, control and operate ETCAS?

Back 369

MCP
VSI
Mode S transponder
FMS CDU
MFD

Front 370

The TCAS processor performs what 4 functions?

Back 370

-Issues appropriate aural advisories
-Detects, tracks, and displays intruders
-Computes required vertical navigation
-Determines target range, bearing and closure rate

Front 371

On the VSI, blue dotted ring indicates a radius of ____ NM from your aircraft.

Back 371

2

Front 372

In the normal vertical display volume setting, aircraft ± ______ feet from your aircraft are displayed.

Back 372

4000

Front 373

When LIM is displayed on the left side of the IMFD, what has the TCAS system done?

Back 373

Limited the surveillance area because of excessive traffic density.

Front 374

A solid white diamond on the TCAS display represents ___________ traffic, which is less than or equal to _______ feet AND less than or equal to ____ NM.

Back 374

proximity traffic
1200
6

Front 375

True or False: ETCAS cannot issue resolution advisories on no-bering intruders.

Back 375

False. It can issue advisories, but cannot show their relative positions on your display.

Front 376

What button do you press on the CDU to power up the IFF?

Back 376

IDX

Front 377

On the tcas control page of the CDU, when RNG is toggled to NORM, what is the TCAS surveillance area?

Back 377

30 NM

Front 378

What is on one the main purposes for setting SENS to TA on the tcas control page in the CDU?

Back 378

To avoid nuisance RAs during formation flight.

Front 379

What 4 things must be set correctly for TCAS to operate?

Back 379

-IFF power must be ON from the master power page
-IFF must be out of standby
-TCAS sensitivity (SENS) must be out of standby
-Mode S must be on
* If "MS:OUT" is displayed on the tcas control page, Mode S is not set to ON

Front 380

According to 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, the primary means of ensuring aircraft separation are:

Back 380

see and avoid concept, ATC procedures

Front 381

For initial preventive RA, TCAS expects you to initiate the maneuver within ____ seconds at no more than ______ G's added load factor.

Back 381

5
0.25

Front 382

For an increase or reversal follow-up RA, TCAS expects you to initiate the maneuver within ____ sends at no more than _____ G's added load factor.

Back 382

2.5
0.35

Front 383

As ****** as the ETCAS CBT was, they ask an even shittier question, one that was asked previously, but this one is an a different way…
On what base display(s) can TCAS be displayed?
**Not all are listed and it doesn't specify HSI or IMFD. View answer on this flash card for the "correct" answer for this particular CBT question. Or just pretend you never saw this steaming turd of stump the pilot garbage.

Back 383

HSI ARC
MAP ARC
TACTICAL

Front 384

The _____________ functions as the "brain" of the TCAS system.

Back 384

TCAS processor

Front 385

The ___________ vertical display volume is normally selected for descent and approach.

Back 385

below

Front 386

Where can the normal Mode S address for the aircraft be found?

Back 386

Placard above the copilot's CDU.

Front 387

On the tcas control page, when the ATC LSK is toggled to "OFF:ATC", what is the result?

Back 387

Only airborne Mode S interrogations are responded to. All ATC interrogations will not.

Front 388

All traffic descending below 380 feet AGL or climbing below 500 feet AGL are displayed as _______________.

Back 388

non threat traffic.

Front 389

Main topics covered in this lesson are:

Back 389

-Master power page
-Start pages 1-5, including present position verification, initialization, and flight plan loading
-Configuration pages
-System test page organization and initiated built-in tests (IBITs)
-Erasing and zeroing FMS data and locking the CDU
-Data loader pages
-GPS selective availability/antispoofing (SA/AS) page
-Timer operation
-FROM/TO calculator
-Model aircraft

Front 390

When removing power from either EGI, ensure uninterrupted pilot or copilot FMS power remains on until the system displays ____________ and ____________. Failure to power off the EGI(s) will result in ____________________.

Back 390

EGI1: OFF
EGI2: OFF
airplane battery depletion

Front 391

Under what condition is it not necessary to initialize the GPS using INIT GPS?

Back 391

When the present position, date, and time are accurate on the start 1 psn/time page.

Front 392

Why is it important to make sure FREEZE is selected on the start 1 psn/time page prior to INU alignment?

Back 392

The initial position sent to the INU may not be accurate and alignment may not be possible.

Front 393

What LSK on the index 1/2 page will take you to the datalink toggle? (START, DLDR LD/SV, CONFIG, GPS SA/AS?)

Back 393

CONFIG

Front 394

The configuration pages are use to
**Select all that apply
a. initialize the navigation sensors
b. enter a required time of arrival (RTA) for a waypoint
c. manually select alternate sources for pilot or copilot heading and attitude
d. define navigation parameter limits that, if exceeded, generate alerts on the CDU or flight displays

Back 394

c. and d.

Front 395

If you set a SPD ALERT, what else do you need for this alert to function?

Back 395

An RTA for at least 1 waypoint in the flight plan.

Front 396

CBT question asks, "What LSK would you press to access the individual component test pages for each CDU?", with a picture of the system test page. Basically it's asking what system are CDU's a subsystem of…

Back 396

IMS (Integrated Management System)

Front 397

Controller-Pilot Datalink Communication (CPDLC) messages are used to:
(3)

Back 397

Make route changes
Make requests
Communicate with Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) controllers
*There are currently over 30 ATSUs worldwide

Front 398

Match the documents to the subjects they cover.
DOCs:
1. Global Operational Data Link Document (GOLD)
2. AFMAN 11-217, Vol 3, Chapter 7
3. Aircraft Voice INMARSAT Operations Concept
4. Flight Crew Data Link Guidance for Link 2000+

SUBJECTS:
A. Combines FANS-1/A procedures for Oceanic Datalink
B. Provides the rules for using SATCOM
C. Contains AMC's vision for using data link for C2
D. Rules for datalink in European airspace

Back 398

1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D

Front 399

What document contains a comprehensive review of all datalink procedures?

Back 399

Notsing! You win Notsing!!!
*Trick question - there is no single document.

Front 400

What form is used for filing an international flight plan?

Back 400

DD Form 1801

Front 401

How do you initiate datalink communication with TACC?

Back 401

Send an INIT REQ without any data entered in the message field.

Front 402

What is the meaning of a REQUEST DEFERRED response?

Back 402

The ground station has received your request. Expect a delay in excess of 10 minutes.

Front 403

A datalink message can be sent by SATCOM, VHF, or HF. Who or what decides how it is sent?

Back 403

The Communications Management Unit (CMU)

Front 404

CNS/ATM replaces traditional voice communications to ATC controllers with datalink messages to ___________________.

Back 404

Air Traffic Service Units (ATSUs)

Front 405

What are some reasons you may not be able to make contact with an ATSU using the CPDLC message group?

Back 405

-The aircraft registration is missing from you flight plan
-The ATSU does not have your flight plan
-You entered an incorrect ICAO code for the ATSU you're trying to contact
-The Form 1801 registration does not match the registration you are sending

Front 406

You're using datalink while flying in the Reykjavik FIR in the North Atlantic (NAT) region. How are you expected to communicate in an emergency?

Back 406

Use voice communication. (NAT ATSU's expect to be notified of emergencies by voice. If you send a CPDLC emergency message, they will try to contact you by voice.)

Front 407

Who is responsible for initiating ADS position reports?

Back 407

Nobody, they transmit automatically.

Front 408

The AFN log-on (FLT ID) must match the:

Back 408

aircraft call sign.

Front 409

An appropriate downlink response to an ATC clearance is

Back 409

WILCO.

Front 410

The Ditching checklist calls for the use of a:

Back 410

CPDLC emergency message.

Front 411

What are some of the advantages of using datalink?

Back 411

Clearer communication
More efficient communication
Automatic position reporting

Front 412

What are 3 things you have to do when switching to a new Flight Information Region (FIR)?

Back 412

-Acknowledge END SERVICE message from losing FIR with WILCO
-Complete a CPDLC radio check with gaining FIR
-Send a position report to new FIR

Front 413

Where would you find PIC authorities?

Back 413

11-2KC-135, Vol 3
AFI 11-202, Vol 3

Front 414

According to 11-2KC-135, Vol 3, Ch 3, Flight Duty Period (FDP) is _____ hours max, Crew Duty Time (CDT) is _____ hours max for a basic crew.
*For an augmented crew (2 AC's, 1CP, 2 Booms), FDP max is _____ hours and ____________ for CDT. For all crews, _____ hours is required for crew rest prior to reporting time to fly.

Back 414

16
18
24
24 hours and 45 mins
12

Front 415

What may be required in an emergency? HAHAHAHAHA! Good luck.

Back 415

Immediately jettison fuel to reduce gross weight.

Front 416

Where would you find procedures for aircraft security?

Back 416

11-2KC-135, Vol 3

Front 417

Why do you think the tactics training program is coordinated among the weapons and tactics flight, training office and intelligence office?

Back 417

Ensures continuity and addresses the unit's specific mission tasking.

Front 418

Enroute formation consists of multiple tanker aircraft, in trail, stacked up at ______ foot intervals with ____ NM separation.

Back 418

500
1

Front 419

During VMC conditions, what helps maintain enroute formation?

Back 419

Visual and TCAS.

Front 420

What is most important during a position change?

Back 420

Altitude separation

Front 421

What can you use to maintain enroute formations?

Back 421

TCAS
Radar
A/A TACAN
Visual station-keeping

Front 422

Where do you find restricted maneuvers for the KC-135?

Back 422

11-2KC-135, Vol 3

Front 423

Where can you find information on formation position changes? (Also where you'd find visual station-keeping)

Back 423

AFTTP 3-3.KC-135

Front 424

Where can you find the normal security designation of the KC-135?

Back 424

11-2KC-135, Vol 3

Front 425

Where can you find delayed braking factors (DBF) and appropriate actions to take when you experience them?

Back 425

11-2KC-135, Vol 3

Front 426

If the modified flight plan is not modified or canceled within ____ seconds, the flashing "exec/cnx mod fp" will flash on the annunciation line.

Back 426

60

Front 427

You were making some edits to a modified flight plan. You then went to the tcas control page to change your range to EXT. If you select the FPLN key now, which flight plan will you access?

Back 427

Modified

Front 428

What happens when MOD FPLN is selected?
**Select all that apply

Back 428

-The modified flight plan page is accessed
-Your active plan is copied to the modified flight plan
-The modified flight plan is activated

Front 429

What colors are the following flight plans depicted as on the MFD:
To Active Waypoint
Active Flight Plan
Modified Flight Plan
Alternate Flight Plan

Back 429

Magenta
White
White Dashed
Cyan

Front 430

When a modified flight plan is active in the system, what uplink messages can be inserted directly into the active flight plan?

Back 430

None.

Front 431

You selected INSERT MOD and got an INSERT MOD FAILED annunciation. What do you do next?

Back 431

Respond with UNABLE.

Front 432

What step should be performed after sending your modified flight plan request to ATC?

Back 432

Select CANCEL MOD on the CDU.

Front 433

Once certified for RNAV in the KC-135, you may fly what type of procedures?

Back 433

RNAV 1 DPs
RNAV 1 and 2 routes (Q and T routes in the U.S.)
RNAV/GPS LNAV approaches

Front 434

Q Routes are for use between _________ and ___________. They are depicted in ________ on an enroute high chart.

Back 434

18,000 MSL
FL450
blue

Front 435

T Routes are useable from _______ AGL up to, but not including _________ MSL. They are also depicted in _________ on a low chart.

Back 435

1,200
18,000
blue

Front 436

Terminal procedures _________________ from a database. Manual entry is ______________ because you will not have the correct leg-type information between the points.

Back 436

must be loaded
prohibited

Front 437

Each dot on the CDI equals _______ the RNP value of the area in which you are flying. In other words, 2 dots equals the _______________ distance you can be off course.

Back 437

half
maximum
Ex: when flying non-oceanic RNAV routes with a standard RNP of 2 NM, your CDI will have a sensitivity of ±2NM.

Front 438

What does the "@" symbol indicate on a flight plan?

Back 438

Fly over waypoint

Front 439

To ensure that all points are loaded when entering a STAR into the flight plan, you must also do what?

Back 439

Load an approach to the landing runway.

Front 440

In the event of a predicted, continuous loss of RAIM of more than _____ minutes for any part of the intended flight, the flight should be delayed, cancelled, or rerouted where RAIM requirements can be met.

Back 440

5

Front 441

If you have to execute a MA off of a RNAV approach, what will the CDI sensitivity change from, to? What also is a consideration when executing the missed approach in terms of course maintenance?

Back 441

From 0.3 NM to 1 NM
You must remain within 0.3 NM of course centerline until passing the missed approach waypoint.