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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Aortic Thrombosis in dogs: 31 cases (2000-2010)
What percentage of cats with ATE have cardiac disease with congestive heart failure

a. 40-60%
What is the recurrence rate for cats in a 6 month period

a. 45-75%
What conditions have been associated with aortic thrombosis in dogs

a. Hyperadrenocorticism, PLN, infective endocarditis, and neoplasia
What signs of acute or chronic disease might be seen in dogs

a. Exercise intolerance, hind limb paresis, absent femoral pulses, cold extremities, signs of pain
What factor was associated with a longer survival time and reduced recurrence in dogs with ATE

a. Chronic clinical signs
Was cardiac disease or overt cardiac changes associated with aTE in dogs in this study

a. No
What three hematological findings were found in many of the study dogs

a. Azotemia, hypoalbuminemia, and an increased UPC
Based on the hematological findings, what theory did the author offer as to an underlying reason

a. That dogs likely had renal disease as a predisposing factor rather than having the thrombus cause renal disease
In the dogs that had TEG performed, what percentage of dogs had a hypercoagulable state

a. 80%
What test should be part of the minimum database in dogs that present with ATE according to the author

a. Echo, regardless of whether there is a murmur or cardiomegaly
What were the most common sites for thrombus formation

a. Aorta distally and internal/external iliac arteries
Evaluation of Cytauxzoon felis infection status in captive-born wild felids housed in an area endemic for the pathogen
What is the name for the stage of Cytauxzoonosis where the parasite replicates in mononuclear cells

a. Shizogonous phase
What is the name for the phase that infect red blood cells

a. Piroplasm phase (merozoites ruptured from infected mononuclear cells that are take up by erythrocytes)
The PCR test for cytauxzoonosis detects what gene sequence in cats

a. 18S gene sequence
What did this study demonstrate in relation to captive tigers in this facility

a. That they were not clinical but tested positive for the disease and could be carriers for the disease

Comparison of two assays for detection of antibodies against canine parvovirus and canine distemper virus in dogs admitted to a Florida animal shelter
Why are animal shelters a high risk for transmission of infections among shelter dogs for distemper and parvovrisu

a. Because 33% of dogs lack protective antibodies for parvovirus and 57% lack protective antibodies for distemper
Which test in this study was shown to have greater specificity as well as a greater positive predictive value for identification of dogs that had CDV and CPV PAT

a. ELISA, had fewer false positives
Which test was recommended in this study based on the fact that there were fewer false positives and the ease of performing the test and getting the results back quicker


Effect of canine parvovirus strain variations on diagnostic test results and clinical management of enteritis in dogs
What impact was initially suspected in this study from the alteration of viral capsid epitopes in this study with respect to the different parvovirus strains

a. May reduce the effectiveness of CPV vaccines or alter performance of rapid in-clinic diagnostic tests for CPV that rely on antibody binding
In this study which parvovirus strain was found to be most common

a. CPV-2c
Was any difference in disease severity or clinical outcome noted in this study when comparing the different groups

a. No
Proposed mechanisms as to why the predominant strain was in highest prevalence included what

a. Possible advantage in replicating, greater volume of virus for shedding, transmitted more efficiently between dogs, or cause less severe disease than other known CPV
Did the detection sensitivities and specificites vary in dogs that had CPV-2b vs. CPV-2c

a. No
In this study, compared to previous studies, what was the one thing that was associated with a poorer outcome

a. Hydration status vs. other studies that have shown association with leukopenia, GI parasites, and lack of early enteral nutrition

Factors associated with methicillin-resistant versus methicillin-susceptible staphylococcus psuedointermedius infection in dogs
What was associated with MRSP infections in dogs in this study and surgery

a. Recent (within 30 days) antimicrobial use
What were the most common sources of bacteria in this study

a. Pyoderma and otitis
Is more virulence associated with MRSP vs. nonresistant types

a. No

Treatment of dematiaceous fungal keratitis in a dog
How common is fungal keratitis in small animals

a. Not common
Which layer of the cornea is associated with access to deeper structures

a. Stromal layer
What do dermatiaceous fungi produce in their cell wall that makes them more resistant to death and promotes their pathogenicity

a. Production of melanin; helps to scavenge free radicals and bind hydrolytic enzymes
Which species of fungus is most commonly associated with keratitis in both humans and species in veterinary interest

a. Curvularia spp.; come from contaminated soil or plant material
What factors predispose dogs to the development of fungal keratitis

a. Trauma, immunocompromise, previous corneal surgery, topical treatmetns with corticosteroids or antimicrobials
What treatment is recommended for noninvasive and noninfectious corneal disease

a. Superficial lamellar keratectomy

Control of terrestrial animal rabies in Anne Arundel County, Maryland, after oral vaccination of raccoons (1998-2007)
Use of oral vaccine via bait in this study reduced seropositivity rates in trapped raccoons by how much

a. 92%
Clinical evaluation of a single dose of immune plasma for treatment of canine parvovirus infection
What is the rationale behind using passive immunotherapy

a. Infused antibodies will neutralize free virus and impede viral spread by blocking entry into new target cells and suppress release of new infectious virions from infected cells
Was the sue of immune plasma beneficial for dogs with CPV enteritis in terms of hematologic values, reduction in viremia, duration of hospital stay

a. No

Prevalence and antimicrobial resistance of Enterococcus spp and Staphylococcus spp. Isolated from surfaces in a veterinary teaching hospital
Which surface yielded the highest prevalence of enterococci and staphylococci and had the highest likelihood of bacterial isolation in univariate and multivariate analysis

a. The scale

Prevalence of serum antibody titers against feline Panleukopenia virus, feline herpesvirus 1, and feline calicivurs in cats entering a florida animal shelter
What recommendations regarding vaccination did this paper have for cats entering shelters

a. Most cats admitted to shelters do not have adequate protection against life-threatening viral infections and therefore, vaccination of all cats should occur immediately at or before admission to high risk environments such as animal shelters and this should not be withheld from cats with signs of previous veterinary care

National Surveillance for human and pet contact with oral rabies vaccine baits, 2001-2009
What type of virus is Rabies

a. Rhabdoviridae and is genus Lyssavirus
What risk factors can affect humans that become exposed to the oral rabies vaccine percutaneously

a. Immunocompromised, atopic dermatitis, exfoliative dermatologic conditions
Deletion of what in the Cophenhagen strain of the vaccinia virus allows it to be attenuated

a. Thymidine kinase
How common are people coming in contact with the ORV

a. Rare
How are most humans coming in contact with the ORV

a. Through exposure of their pet, trying to get it out of their mouth

Rabies Surveillance in the United States during 2011
What is the postexposure prophylaxis protocol in the US

a. Wound care, infiltration with Rabies immune globulin, and administration of a series of 4 doses of rabies vaccines over 14 days
Wildlife has accounted for what percentage of rabies cases in the US since 1980

a. > 90%
Most human exposures come from what specific wildlife

a. Bats

Pneumoesophagography and the appearance of masses in the caudal portion of the esophagus in dogs with spirocercosis
Differentials for caudodorsal mediastinal disease includes what

a. Foreign bodies, spirocerca lupi, neoplasm, Megaesophagus, hiatal hernia, Gastroesophageal intussusception, and esophageal diverticula
How is pneumoesophagographic technique performed

a. Endotracheal tube placement with tip located at distal cervical region with resuscitator attached in order to inflate the esophagus
b. Routine right lateral and left lateral radiographs performed and DV and VD radiographs performed after the esophagus is reinflated
How effective was the pneumoesophagographic technique in identifying lesions for spirocercosis

a. Allowed for good visualization of nodules and evaluation of stomach for aberrant nodules
b. Advantages over endoscopy include that it does not require specialized equipment and that still allowed for elucidating esophageal pathological changes

Comparison of surgical site infection rates in clean and clean-contaminated wounds in dogs and cats after minimally invasive versus open surgery: 179 cases
What risk factors were shown to be correlated with a higher rate for surgical site infection

a. Length of surgery and the amount of time that the area was prepped in advace to the procedure (not related to surgical approach alone). Rates were higher for open surgery vs. minimally invasive surgery