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59 Cards in this Set

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Intramedullary Spinal Cord Mass Presumptively Associated with Leishmaniasis in a Dog
What is the organism that causes Leishmaniasis

a. Protozoan parasite of L. infantum
2
What transmits Leishmaniasis

a. Sand flies of the genus Phlebotomus an Lutzomyia
3
What is the importance of canine visceral leishmaniasis

a. Source for zoonotic disease affecting humans
4
How is Leishmaniasis traditionally diagnosed

a. Cytologic or histologic identification of amastigotes (either inside or outside macrophages) in stained smears from lymph node or splenic aspirates, skin touch impressions, or bone marrow samples; Additional diagnossi can be made by serologic testing or culture of the organism or PCR
5
How is Leishmaniasis treated worldwide (not necessarily in the US)

a. Meglumine antimoniate

6
Performance of a commercially available in-clinic ELISA for detection of antibodies against Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Anaplasma platys, Borrelia burgdorferi, Ehrlichia canis, and Ehrlichia ewingii and Dirofilaria immitis antigen in dogs
What proteins are detected by the test for Ehrlichia ewingii

a. P28
7
What proteins are detected for Anaplasma platys

a. P44
8
What proteins are detected for E canis

a. P30, p30-1
9
What proteins are detected for B. burgdorferi

a. VlsE protein-derived C6 peptide
10
What is the clinical syndrome caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum and how is it transmitted

a. Transmitted by ixodes spp. And infects neutrophils of dogs and causes granulocytotrophic anaplasmosis, lameness, lethargy, fever, anorexia, thrombocytopenia
11
What phase of Anaplasma is detected on blood smear

a. Morulae in acute infection
12
Which vector transmits Analplasma platys

a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus (Brown dog tick)
13
What is anaplasma platys

a. Grame negative obligate intracellular bacteriathat infects platelest and causes cyclic thrombocytopenia
14
Coinfections with what organism is common in dogs with Anaplasma platys

a. Ehrlichia canis
15
Which tick vector transmits Lyme disease and what are the clinical signs

a. Ixodes, lameness, anorexia, depression
16
Why are new methods for detecting lyme disease used

a. Because previous methods could not distinguish between vaccine or infection
17
Which vector transmits E. Canis

a. R. sanguineus
18
How is E. Canis detected

a. Detection morulae in monocytes, increase in antibody titers (4 fold change), detection of E. Canis by DNA by PCR
19
What organism causes canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis

a. Ehrlichia ewingii, clinical signs include fever, lethargy, anorexia, lameness, neutrophilic polyarthritis, and severe thrombocytopenia
20
Which vector transmits Ehrlichia ewingii

a. Ambyloma americanum (lone start tick)
21
How is Ehrlichia ewingii diagnosed

a. Morulae in neutrophils, PCR testing
22
Why is IFA not helpful in cases of ehrlichiosis

a. Cross reactivity among ehrlichia species
23
Was the ELISA test considered to be a highly specific and sensitive test

a. Yes, least sensitive for analplasma platys and most sensitive for dirofilaria and most specific for dirofilaria least specific for ehrlichia canis

24
Biofilm-infected wounds in a dog
What is the definition of a biofilm

a. Adaherent community of bacteria surround and protected by an exopolysaccharide matrix consisting of polysaccharides, extracellular DNA, proteins, and lipids
25
How do biofilms disseminate

a. Release surface bacteria in planktonic form into the surrounding environment
26
What causes pressure ulcers

a. Chronic compression of the soft tissues that overlie a bony prominence causing ischemia-reperfusion injury to the soft tissue
27
What are the proposed mechanisms behind why biofilms form on pressure sores

a. Combination of necrotic tissue, poor vasculature supply, other host issues such as systemic illness and immune compromise
28
Why are biofilms perceived to be less of a problem in animals

a. Heal by wound contraction unlike humans except in the limbs where there is less loose skin and must heal by granulation and epithelialization to heal
29
When should biofilms be suspected

a. In any wound that has delayed healing (over 3 weeks), highly friable granulation tissue and repeated incisional dehiscenses and a foul odor
30
What is the recommended therapy for suspected biofilm infected wounds

a. Sharp debridement; long term systemic antimicrobials, topical antimicrobials and biocides, and appropriate treatment of the underlying issue

31
Ultrasonographic, computed tomographic and operative findings in dogs infested with giant kidney worms (Dioctophyme renale)
What species are most often affected by the giant kidney worm

a. Dogs and wild canids
32
What is the life cycle-transmission for this roundworm

a. Intermediate host such as terrestrial segmented worm or earthworm, paratenic host such as fish or frogs, and definitive host which acquire the disease by ingestion of raw fish or frogs infected
33
What is the prepatent period

a. 155 days but can take 2 years to complete lifecycle
34
What is the preferred pathogenesis of the organism

a. Predilection for the right kidney but can be found free in the abdomen, found in bladder, uterus, inguinal area, and mammary gland
35
What are some clinical signs that can be demonstrated

a. Hematuria, hyporexia, pollakiuria, anemia, emaciation, urinary tract infection, and peritonitis
36
How is this most frequently diagnosed

a. Ova in the urine (only if gravid female in the kidney), necropsy most commonly; more recently ultrasound or CT and MRI in humans
37
Which method was most sensitive for diagnosing infections in dogs in this study

a. CT and ultrasound had sensitivity of over 90%; poor specificity (less of the abdominal parasites were seen)

38
Outbreak of Salmonella enterica serotype infantis infection in humans liked to dry dog food in the US and Canada 2012
Salmonellosis an be found in what types of contaminated foods

a. Meat, poultry, eggs, dairy, produce, processed foods
39
What are the zoonotic implications of salmonellosis

a. Diarrhea, fever, cramps, sepsis, joint infections, meningitis
40
How can salmonellosis be detected

a. Fecal samples for culture
b. PFGE- pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
41
Raw diet foods have an increased risk of what contaminants

a. Salmonellosis, campylobacter, listeria

42
Veterinary perceptions of borreliosis in North Carolina
What is the benefit of detecting dogs infected with B. burgdorferi even if they are healthy

a. Serve as a sentinel for risk of human borreliosis as they are 6 times more likely to be infected as a human

43
Yersenia pestis infection in dogs: 62 cases (2003-2011)
What is the causative agent for plague

a. Yersenia pestis transmitted by fleas and affects mammals
44
What part of the US has an enzootic foci

a. New Mexico
45
What time of year are increased amounts of cases seen

a. Winter-spring
46
What are the most common hosts for plague

a. Prarie dogs, ground squirrels, mice, wood rats, rabbits, hares, chipmunks
47
How do cats and dogs become infected

a. Ingestion of tissue of an infected animal or flea bite
48
How long do antibodies last in the dog

a. 6 months
49
What are the three ways that plague is tested for in New mexico

a. Direct immunofluorescent antibody tests on tissue imprints, lymph node aspirates, throat or wound specimens; tissue culture; 4 fold or greater change in titers taken 14 days apart
50
What antibiotics have been shown to be effective against plague

a. Doxycycline, gentamicin, and ciprofloxacin
51
In contrast to previous studies, this study demonstrated that dogs infected with plague can have what

a. Severe infections and even die; high fever and neutrophilia
52
When is a dog considered noninfectious

a. After 72 hours of treatment, fever has abated, and clinical improvement has occurred

53
Association between oral health status and retrovirus test results in cats
What end-stage diseases can develop in cats that have FIV

a. Encephalopathy, stomatitis, enteritis, and nephropathy
54
How quickly do cats with FIV seroconvert

a. 3-6 weeks after infection and remain seropositive for life
55
What is feline chronic gingivastomatitis

a. Extensive and persistent inflammation of the mucosa throughout the mouth, including the gingiva. Multifactorial and includes: oral bacterial flora, diet, hypersensitivity, viral infection, immune status
56
What types of inflammatory cells have been isolated from cats with gingivostomatitis

a. CD8+ lymphocytes (cytotoxic T cells)
57
Seropositivity of FIV has been associated with what

a. Oral inflammatory disease
58
Seropositivity for retroviruses is positively correlated with what

a. Age
59
Did retrovirus seropositivity have any correlation with oral inflammatory disease

a. Yes, significantly higher and the reverse was true for FIV and Felv