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161 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Cranial Nerve I

Olfactory - Smell
Cranial Nerve II
Optic - Vision
Cranial Nerve III
Oculomotor - eye muscles
Superior Rectus
Inferior Rectus
Medial Rectus
Inferior Oblique
(SIMI RRRO)
Cranial Nerve IV
Trochlear - eye muscles
Superior Oblique
Cranial Nerve V
Trigeminal
Facial sensation of touch and pain
Cranial Nerve VI
Abducens - eye muscles
Lateral Rectus
Cranial Nerve VII
Facial
(damaged with Bell's Palsy)
Cranial Nerve VIII
Acousitc
Cranial Nerve IX
Glossopharyngeal
(gag reflex with X - Vegus)
Cranial Nerve X
Vegus
(gag reflex with XI - Glossopharyngeal)
Cranial Nerve XI
Spinal
Trapezius muscle
Sternomastoid muscle
Cranial Nerve XII
Hypoglossal
("stick out your tongue" test)
How many cranial bones are there?
8
How many facial bones are there?
14
Name the sutures and locations
Coronal - ear to ear
Sagittal - midline
Lambdoid - between parietal and occipital
Name the salivary glands
Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual
Where is the sternomastoid muscle?
Runs from the clavicular cleft to the mandible
Where is the Trapezius muscle?
Occipital bone to scapula and clavicle
Name the lymph nodes of the head and neck in order of exam
Preauricular, post auricular, occipital
Submental, submandibular, jugulodigastric,
Superficial cervical, deep cervical, posterior cervical,
Supraclavicular
What are tension headaches?
Occipital or frontal with band-like tightness
Caused by anxiety and stress
What are migraines?
Vascular headaches
Supra or retro orbital, frontotemporal
Triggers include: alcohol, stress letdown, menstruation, foods
Familial history
Females
What are cluster headaches?
Vascular headaches
1-2 per day for 1/2-2 hours each
Continues for months
Causes include alcohol, daytime naps
Relief for 100% oxygen per nasal canula
Males
What are the symptoms of meningitits?
Fever and nuchal rigidity
What is objective vertigo?
The room is spinning
What is subjective vertigo?
The person is spinning
What do tender lumps or swelling suggest?
Acute infection
What do persistent lumps suggest?
Possible malignancy
What is temporal arteritis?
Tempoarl artery looks torturous and feels hardened
What is crepitation?
limited range of motion and tenderness
When does head tilt occur?
Muscle spasms
What do normal salivary glands feel like?
They are not palpable
Which gland is swollen with mumps?
Parotid gland
Which gland is commonly enlarged with AIDS?
Parotid gland
What do normal lymph nodes feel like?
Freely movable, soft, discrete and non-tender
What is lymphadenopathy?
Enlargement of lymph nodes to greater than 1 cm
Causes: infection, allergy or neoplasm
What do lymph nodes feel like with acute infection?
Swollen bilaterally, firm, but freely movable

What do clumped lymph nodes indicate?

Chronic infection
ex: TB
Which lymph nodes are commonly enlarged in HIV+ patients?
Occipital nodes
firm, non-tender and mobile
What is Virchow's node?
Left supraclavicular node that is hard and enlarged, indicates neoplasm in the thorax or abdomen
What do lymph nodes feel like with Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Painless, rubbery, discrete nodes that appear gradually
When is the trachea displaced to the unaffected side?
Tumor, unilateral thyroid enlargement, and pneumothorax
When is the trachea displaced to the affected side?
Atelectasis (collapsed lung) and pleural adhesions
What does a trachea tug indicate?
Aortic aneurism
(trachea tug - rhythmic pulsing of trachea with systolic pressure)
What does a normal thyroid feel like?
Normally thyroid cannot be palpated
What are senile tremors?
Benign movements that include head nodding and tongue protrusions

What is chloasma?

Blotchy hyperpigmentation of cheeks and forehead during pregnancy
What is hydrocephalus?
Obstruction of drainage of cerebral spinal fluid
frontal bossing, "sun setting eyes" and percussion of head sounds like a cracked pot
Describe Paget's disease.
Localized bone disease that softens, thickens and deforms bone
bowed long bones, sudden fractures, frontal bossing, acorn shaped cranium, more common in males
Describe acromegaly.
Excessive growth hormone after puberty
Enlarged skull, elongated head, heavy eyebrow ridge, coarse facial features
Describe torticollis.
Also called wryneck
hematoma of one sternomastoid muscle from uterine malpositioning
Describe a pilar cyst.
Also called a wen
smooth, firm, fluctuating swelling on the scalp, benign
Describe fetal alcohol syndrome
Midfacial hypoplasia
Describe congenital hypothyroidism.
Low hairline, wide spaced eyes and protruding tongue
Describe down syndrome.
Upslanting eyes, flat nasal bridge, broad flat nose, protruding ears.
Describe the facial appearance of someone with Parkinson's.
Flat affect, "mask-like" face, elevated eyebrows with a staring gaze, oily skin and drooling
Describe the facial appearance of someone with Cushing's syndrome.
Moon face, hirstuism.
Describe the facial appearance of someone with Grave's disease.
Bulging eyes that don't blink, goiter.
(Hyperthyroidism)
Describe myxedema.
Swelling around the eyes
(Hypothyroidism)
Describe Bell's Palsy.
Lesion on cranial nerve VII
Cannot wrinkle forehead, raise eyebrow or close eye on affected side
Describe facial features of a brain attack.
Paralysis of lower face but still able to wrinkle forehead and close eye (but may have ptosis)
Describe a cachectic person.
Gaunt, malnourished
Describe scleroderma.
"Hard skin" - connective tissue disorder that hardens and shrinks skin and other systems
Which of the following this the most important question?
A. Any unusual headaches?
B. Have you had any headaches recently?
C. Have you ever had a headache?
D. When did your headaches start?
C. Have you ever had a headache?
What is dysphagia?
Difficulty swallowing
Describe dizziness.
A lightheaded, swimming sensation or feeling of falling
Describe a cephalohematoma.
Subraperiosteal hemorrhage well-defined over one cranial bone, a result of birth trauma
Describe a caput succedaneum.
Edematous swelling of scalp caused by birth trauma
A large atalectasis will cause the trachea to shift ____________.
Toward the affected side
A tumor or pneumothorax will cause the trachea to shift ____________.
Away from the affected side
What is a palebral fissure?
Slit between eyelids
What is the canthus?
The corner of the eye, where lids meet
What is the caruncle?
Fleshy mass at the inner canthus containing sebaceous glands
What is the puncta?
Where tears drain at inner canthus
What is conjugate movement?
When two eyes move their axes remain parallel
Name and describe the three layers of the eye.
Sclera - inner fibrous layer
Choroid - middle vascular layer
Retina - inner nervous layer
What is the corneal reflex?
A wisp of cotton on one eye, both eyes blink
What does the iris do?
Functions as a diaphragm to control light admitted to retina
What does the lens do?
Keeps viewed objects in focus
Where is the anterior chamber?
Behind cornea, in front of iris and lens
Where is the posterior chamber?
Behind the iris, to the side of the lens
What is the optic papilla?
Optic disc, area where fibers merge into optic nerve, on the nasal side of the retina
Describe retinal vessels.
Paired artery and vein, extend to each of the 4 quadrants
What is the physiologic cup?
Inside optic disc, where blood vessels exit and enter
What is the arterial light reflex?
Sliver of light on the arteries
Describe the fundus.
Background of the retina, varies in color depending on skin color
What is the macula?
Slightly darker pigmented area around the fovea
Describe the fovea centralis.
Area of sharpest and keenest vision, temporal side of retina
Describe the optic chiasm
Where nasal optic fibers cross over to the opposite side of the brain
Describe the visual field carried by the left optic tract.
Fibers from the left half of each visual field travel to the right side of the brain. (Opposite for the right optic tract)
Describe the papillary light reflex.
Normal constriction of the pupils when bright light shines on retina
Describe the direct light reflex versus the consensual light reflex.
Direct light is the reaction of the light receiving the stimulus, the other eye also responds consensually
Describe fixation.
Reflex towards an object attracting attention

Describe smooth pursuit.

Movements to track and keep and object in the fovea
Describe accommodation.
Adapting the eye for near vision, can be observed with convergence and narrowed pupils
Name the three most common causes of decreased vision in adults.
Cataracts, glaucoma (higher risk for men), and macular degeneration (higher risk for women)
Describe presbyopia and when it begins.
Lens looses elasticity, glass-like , cannot accommodate for near vision, starts around age 40
Describe a senile cataract.
Lens thickens and yellows around age 70 (also called nuclear sclerosis)
What is nuclear sclerosis?
A senile cataract
Glaucoma is most common in which race?
Blacks
Visual limitations are most common with which races?
American Indians, Alaska Natives and Blacks
What is the leading cause of blindness in white adults?
Macular degeneration and cataracts
What is the leading cause of blindness in black adults?
Glaucoma and cataracts
What is the leading cause of blindness in hispanic adults?
Glaucoma
What is tropia?
Consistent misalignment of the eyes.
What is phoria?
Mild eye weakness, eye drifts.
What is the cover test?
Determines phoria.
What is strabismus?
True disparity in the axes of the eyes
What does the medial rectus muscle do?
Moves the eye straight toward nose
What does the inferior oblique muscle do?
Moves the eye up and nasal
What does the superior rectus muscle do?
Moves the eye up and temporal
What does the lateral rectus muscle do?
Moves the eye straight temporal
What does the inferior rectus muscle do?
Moves the eye down and temporal
What does the superior oblique muscle do?
Moves the eye down and nasal
Describe a chalazion.
Infection or retention cyst of a mibomian gland, not on lid margin
Describe a hordeolum.
A stye, localized infection on the lid margin follicles
Describe a dacryocystitis.
Inflammation of the lacrimal sac
Describe dacryoadenitits
Inflammation of the lacrimal gland
What is anisocoria?
Unequal pupil size
Miosis
Constricted and fixed pupils
narcotics and glaucoma drops

Mydraisis

Dilated and fixed pupils
circulatory arrest, anesthesia
Argyll Robertson pupil
small and irregular bilaterally
chronic alcoholics
Tonic pupil
Adie's pupil, sluggish in reaction to light, not clinically significant
Damage to cranial nerve III
unilateral dilated pupil, ptosis on that side
Horner's syndrome
unilateral small pupil, ptosis on that side
Macula
central blind area
localized eye damage
blind spot
What does increasing interocular pressure cause?
decreased peripheral vision
Retinal detachment
shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or half (acute onset of floaters)
Lesion in globe or optic nerve
one blind eye
lesion in optic chiasm
loss of temporal part of each field
lesion of outer uncrossed fibers
nasal unilateral blindness
Describe an image on the retina.
Backward and upside down
Homonymous hemianopsia
loss of same half of visual field in both eyes
What could halos around lights indicate?
Glaucoma
Scotoma
a blind spot in visual field
Night blindness causes
Vitamin A deficiency, glaucoma, optic atrophy
Sudden onset of eye problems
may be an emergency
Photophobia
inability to tolerate light
diplopia
double vision
epiphora
excessive tearing
vaginal infections from mother at time of delivery that have eye sequelae for newborn
genital herpes and gonorrhea
snellen eye chart
Distance vision, 20 feet from chart
top number is distance from the chart, bottom number is the distance at which a normal eye could have read the line
Jaeger eye chart
Near vision, 14 inches from the eye, top number is the distance from the chart, bottom number is the distance at which a normal eye could have read that line (14/14)
confrontation test normal results
50 upward
60 nasal
70 down
90 temporal
(increasing counter clockwise)
corneal light reflex
shining a light on the eye should yield reflection from cornea in exactly the same spot
cover test
for deviated alignment, if muscle is weak the alignment will drift on the covered eye
diagnostic positions test
tests 6 cardinal directions for muscle weakness
nystagmus
fine oscillation of the eye, normal at extreme lateral gaze
lid lag
white rim of sclera visible at the top of the iris, present in hyperthyroidism
Pallor near the outer canthus of lower lid
may indicate anemia
Sclera of blacks
may be grayish-blue or "muddy" colored
may have "freckles"
may have yellowish fatty deposits beneath lids
scleral icterus
even yellowing of the sclera indicates jaundice
corneal abrasion
appears as if light is shattered on the cornea
visual exam documentation of R=3/1 L=3/1
means resting pupils at 3mm, constrict to 1mm with light
PERRLA
Pupils equal, round, react to light and accommodation
diopter
unit strength of lenses in ophthalmasocope, + is for near objects, - is for far objects
examining a persons right eye you should use your ______________.
right eye
red reflex
reflection of light off the retina
normal color of the optic disc
creamy yellow-orange to pink
scleral crescent
gray-white new moon shape around optic disc, normal
pigment crescent
black accumulation of pigment around optic disc, normal