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155 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
1. In partnerships. Owners have unlimited liability and may have to cover debts of other less financially sound partners.
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True
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2. The president of chief executive officer is elevated by the firm’s stockholders and has ultimate authority to guide corporate affairs and make general policy.
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False
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3. The corporate controller typically handles the accounting activities, such as tax management, data processing, and cost and financial accounting.
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True
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4. The financial manager places primary emphasis on cash flows, the inflow and out flow of cash.
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True
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5. The profit maximization goal ignores the timing of returns, does not directly consider cash flows, and ignores risk.
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True
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6. Higher risk tends to result in a higher share price since the stockholder must be compensated for the greater risk.
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False
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7. A public offering is the sale of a new security issue directly to an investor or group of investors.
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False
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8. The money market is a financial relationship created by a number of institutions that allows suppliers and demanders of short-term funds to make transactions.
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True
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9. The price-to-earning (PE) ratio measures the amount common stock investors are willing to pay for each dollar of the firm’s earnings.
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True
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10. The marginal tax rate represents the rate at which additional income is taxed.
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True
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11. The income statement is a financial summary of the firm’s financial position at a given point in time.
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False
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12. Retained earnings represent the cumulative of all earnings retained and reinvested in the firm since its inception.
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True
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13. Ratio analysis merely directs the analyst to potential areas of concern; it does not provide conclusive evidence as to the existence of a problem.
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True
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15. The liquidity of a business firm is measured by its ability to satisfy its short-term obligations as they come due.
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True
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16. The less fixed-cost debt (financial leverage) a firm uses, the greater will be its risk and return.
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False
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17. The average age of inventory can be calculated as 365 divided by inventory turnover.
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True
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18. The depreciable life of an asset can significantly affect the pattern of cash flows.
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True
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19. The MARCS depreciation method requires the use of the half-year convention. Assets are assumed to be acquired in the middle of the year and are fully depreciable in the first year.
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False
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20. Operating financial plans are planned short-term financial actions and the anticipated financial impact of those actions.
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True
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21. Cash budget is a statement of the firm’s planned inflows and outflows of cash that is used to estimate its short-term cash requirement.
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True
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23. It would be correct to define Operating Cash Flow (OCF) as net operating profit after taxes plus depreciation.
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True
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24. Net operating profit after taxes (NOPTA) represents the firm’s earnings after deducting both interest and taxes.
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False
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25. The pro forma statements provide the financial manager with the amount, if any, of external financing required to support a given level of sales.
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True
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1. For a given interest rate, the future value of $100 increases with the passage of time. Thus, the longer the period of time, the greater the future value.
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True
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2. Time-value of money is based on the belief that a dollar that will be received at some future date is worth more than a dollar today.
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False
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3. The future value increases with increases in the interest rate or the period of time funds are left on deposit.
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True
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4. Everything else being equal, the higher the discount rate, the higher the present value.
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False
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5. The future value interest factor is the present value of $1 per period compounded at i percent for n periods.
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True
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6. The ordinary annuity is an annuity for which the cash flow occurs at the end of each period.
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True
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7. The future value of an annuity due is always greater than the future value of an otherwise identical ordinary annuity
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True
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8. The effective rate of interest is the contractual rate of interest charged by a lender or promised by a borrower.
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False
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9. For any interest rate and for any period of time, the more frequently interest is compounded, the greater the amount if money that has to be invested today in order to accumulate a given future amount.
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False
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10. The nominal rate of interest is always lower than the effective rate of interest.
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True
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11. For the risk-averse manager, the required return decreases for an increase in risk.
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False
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12. The risk of an asset may be found by subtracting the worst outcome from the best outcome.
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True
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The more certain the return from an asset, the less variability and therefore the less risk.
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True
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15. Combining negatively correlated assets can reduce the overall variability of returns.
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True
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16. A portfolio of two negatively correlated assets has more risk than either of the individual assets.
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False
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17. Combining uncorrelated assets is more effective than combing positively correlated assets in reducing risk.
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True
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Foreign exchange risk is the risk that arises from the danger that a host government might take control of your business.
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False
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19. When the U.S. currency gains in value, the dollar value of a foreign-currency denominated portfolio of assets decline.
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True
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20. The beta coefficient is an index of the degree of movement of an asset’s return in response to a change in the market return
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True
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21. On average, during the past 75 years, the return on long-term corporate bonds has exceeded the return on large-company stocks.
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False
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22. Business risk is the chance that the firm will be unable to cover its operating costs and is affected by a firm’s revenue stability and the structure of its operating costs
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True
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23. Interest rate risk is the chance that changes in interest rates will adversely affect the value of an investment; most investments decline in value when the interest rates rise and increase then the interest rates fall.
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True
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24. Market risk is the chance that the value of an investment will decline because of market factors (such as economic, political, and social events) that are independent of the investment
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True
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Investors should recognize that betas are calculated using historical data and that past performance relative to the market average may not accurately predict future performance.
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True
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26. The shorter the maturity of a Treasury security, the smaller the interest rate risk.
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True
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27. An inverted yield curve indicates generally cheaper, short-term borrowing costs than long-term borrowing costs.
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False
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28. Although Treasury securities have no risk of default, they do suffer from “maturity risk” – the risk that interest rates will change in the future and thereby impact longer maturities more than shorter maturities.
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True
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29. Upward-sloping yield curves result from higher future inflation expectations, lender preferences for shorter maturity loans, and greater supply of short-term as opposed to long-term loans relative to their respective demand.
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True
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30. Debentures such as convertible bonds are unsecured bonds that only creditworthy firms can issue.
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True
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31. High-quality bonds provide higher interest rates than lower-quality bonds.
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False
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32. In the valuation process, the lower the risk, the greater the required return.
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False
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33. Yield to maturity (YTM) is the rate investors earn if they buy the bond at a specific price and hold it until maturity
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True
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34. The longer the amount of time until a bond’s maturity, the more responsive it its market value to a given change in interest rates.
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True
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35. The possibility that the issuer of a bond will not pay the contractual interest or principal payments as scheduled is called default risk
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True
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36. The length of a maturity on a bond offering affects its cost. In general, the longer the maturity, the lower the cost.
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False
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37. As an outstanding bond approaches maturity, the price of the bond will always trend toward par value until, at maturity, the bond is worth its face value.
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True
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38. Holders of equity have claims on both income and assets that are secondary to the claims of creditors.
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True
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39. Cumulative preferred stocks are preferred stocks for which all passed (unpaid) dividends in arrears must be paid in additional shares of preferred stock prior to the payment of dividends to common stockholders.
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False
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40. The cost of preferred stock financing is generally higher than that of debt financing because the dividends are not tax-deductible for the firm.
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True
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41. American Depository Receipts (ADR) are claims issued by U.S. Banks representing ownership of shares of a foreign company’s stock help on deposit by the U.S. bank in the foreign market and issued in dollars to U.S. investors.
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True
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42. In the valuation of common stock, the P/E ratio is considered superior to the use of book or liquidation values since it considers expected earnings.
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True
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43. Any action taken by the financial manager that decreases risk will also decrease the required return.
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True
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44. Unlike creditors (lenders), equity holders are owners of the firm.
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True
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45. In the case of liquidation, common stockholders are paid first, followed by preferred stockholders, followed by bondholders.
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False
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46. Common stock can be either privately or publicly owned.
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True
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47. Like bonds, common stock is usually sold with a par value
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True
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48. A prospectus is another term for a firm’s annual report
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False
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50. The number of outstanding shares of common stock is always greater than or equal to the number of authorized shares of common stock.
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False
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1. Capital budgeting is the process of evaluating and selecting short-term investments consistent with the firm’s goal of owner wealth maximization.
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False
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2. A $30,000 outlay for anew machine with a usable life of 20 years is a capital expenditure
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True
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3. A firm with limited funds must ration its funds by allocating them to projects that will maximize share value.
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True
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4. Mutually exclusive projects are projects whose cash flows are unrelated to one another; the acceptance of one does not eliminate the others from further consideration.
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False
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5. The relevant cash flows for a proposed capital expenditure are the incremental after-tax cash outflows and resulting subsequent inflows
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True
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6. The depreciable value of an asset is equal to its purchase price minus installation costs, if any.
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False
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7. The book value of an asset is equal to its depreciable value minus the accumulated depreciation.
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True
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8. The change in net working capital – regardless of whether an increase or decrease – is taxable.
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False
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9. The capital budgeting process consists of four distinct but interrelated steps: proposal generation, review and analysis, decision making, and termination
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False
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10. A conventional cash flow of pattern is one in which an initial outflow is followed only to be a series of inflows
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True
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11. The three major cash flow components include the initial investment, non-operating cash inflows, and terminal cash flows.
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False
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12. If an asset is sold for more than its initial purchase price, the gain on the sale is composed of two parts: a capital gain and recaptured depreciation
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True
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13. In the case of annuity cash inflows, the payback period can be found by dividing the initial investment by the annual cash inflow.
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True
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14. A project must be rejected if its payback period is longer than the maximum acceptable payback period.
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True
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15. Since the payback period can be viewed as a measure of risk exposure, many firms use it as a decision criterion or as a supplement to sophisticated decision techniques
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True
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16. Net present value is considered a non-sophisticated capital budgeting technique since it gives explicit consideration to the time value of money
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False
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17. The IRR is the discount rate that equates the NPV of an investment opportunity with $0.
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True
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18. For conventional projects, both NPV and IRR techniques will always generate the same accept-reject decision, but differences in their underlying assumptions can cause them to rank projects differently.
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True
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19. The internal rate of return assumes that intermediate cash inflows are reinvested at the projects internal rate of return.
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True
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20. If the NPV is greater than $0, a project should be accepted.
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True
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21. If the IRR is greater than the cost of capital, a project should be accepted
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True
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22. In spite of the theoretical superiority of IRR, financial managers prefer to use NPV.
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False
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23. The breakeven cash flow is the minimum level of cash inflow necessary for a project to be acceptable.
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True
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24. Sensitivity analysis is a behavioral approach that used a number of possible values for a given variable to assess its impact on a firm’s return.
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True
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In a capital budgeting context, risk is the chance that a project will prove unacceptable or, more formally, the degree of variability of cash flows.
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True
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26. Simulation is a statistics-based behavorial approach that applies predetermined probability distributions and random numbers to estimate risky outcomes.
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True
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Exchange rate risk is the danger that an unexpected change in exchange rates will reduce the market value of a project’s cash flow
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True
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28. The objective of capital rationing is to select the group of projects that provides the quickest overall payback and does not require more dollars than are budgeted.
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False
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29. The firm’s objective is to use its budget to generate the highest internal rate of return for its cash inflows.
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False
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1. The target capital structure is the desired optimal mix of debt and equity financing that most firms attempt to achieve and maintain.
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True
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2. The cost of capital is the rate of return a firm must earn on investments in order to at lest leave the share price unchanged.
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True
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3. Business risk is the risk to the firm of being unable to cover required financial obligations.
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False
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4. In general, flotation costs include two components, underwriting costs and administrative costs.
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True
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5. The cost of common stock equity may be measured using on the constant growth valuation model.
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False
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6. The cost of new common stock is normally greater than any other long-term financing cost.
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True
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7. As the volume of financing increases, the costs of the various types of financing will increase the firm’s weighted average cost of capital.
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True
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8. According to the firm’s owner wealth maximization goal, the firm should only accept projects up to the point where the marginal return on its investment is equal to its weighted marginal cost of capital
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True
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9. The cost of common stock equity can be though of a the “magic number” that is used to decide whether a proposed corporate investment will increase or decrease the firm’s stock price
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False
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10. Preferred stock represents a special type of ownership interest in the firm and, thus, the preferred stockholders must receive their stated dividends prior to the distribution of any earnings to common stockholders and bondholders.
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False
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11. Leverage results from the use of fixed-cost assets or funds to magnify returns to the firm’s owners
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True
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12. At the operating breakeven point, the sales revenue is equal to the sum of the fixed and variable operating costs.
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True
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13. In general, the greater the firm’s operating leverage, the higher its business risk.
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True
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14. The firm’s capital structure is the mix of short-term and long-term debt and equity maintained by the firm.
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False
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15. All items on the right-hand side of the firm’s balance sheet are called capital.
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False
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16. A shift toward more fixed costs increases business risk, which in turn causes earnings before interest and taxes to increase by less for a given increase in sales
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False
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17. Business risk is the risk to the firm of being unable to cover operating costs
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True
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18. The EBIT-EPS analysis tends to concentrate on maximization of earning rather than maximization of owners’ wealth.
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True
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19. While operating leverage results only in magnification of returns, financial leverage results only in magnification of risk.
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False
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20. Holding all other factors constant, a firm that is subject to a greater level of business risk should employ less operating leverage than an otherwise equivalent firm that is subject to a lesser level of business risk.
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True`
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21. Purchasers of a stock selling ex-dividend do not receive the current dividend
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True
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22. The payment of cash dividends to corporate stockholders is decided by the firm’s chief financial officer.
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False
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23. Because retained earnings are a form of internal financing, the dividend decision can significantly affect the firm’s external financing requirements
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True
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24. A stock split commonly increases the number of shares outstanding and increase the stock’s per share par value
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False
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25. The repurchase of common stock results in a type of reverse dilution, since the earning per share and the market price of stock are increased by reducing the number of shares outstanding.
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True
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26. Dividends provide information about the firm’s current performance by little or no information about the firm’s future performance
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False
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27. The dividend payment date is set by the firm’s board of directors and represents the actual date on which the firm mails the dividend payment to the holders of record
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True
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28. In a firm has overdue liabilities or is legally insolvent or bankrupt, most states prohibit its payment of cash dividends
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True
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29. Reverse stock splits are initiated when a stock is selling at too low a price to appear respectable
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True
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In a 2 for 1 stock split, the number of shares outstanding increases by fifty percent and the stock’s per-share par valued is reduced by fifty percent
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True
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1. The short-term financial management is concerned with management of the firm’s current assets and current liabilities.
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True
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2. Because firms are unable to match cash inflows to outflows with certainty, most of them need current liabilities that more than cover outflows for current assets
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False
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3. Net working capital can be defined as the portion of the firm’s current assets financed with long-term funds
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True
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4. An increase in current assets decreases net working capital, thereby reducing the risk of technical insolvency
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False
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5. The cash conversion cycle of a firm is the amount of time that elapses from the point when the firm makes an outlay to purchase raw material to the point when cash is collected from the sale of the finished good
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True
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6. The aggressive financing strategy is a strategy by which the firm finances its current assets with short-term funds and its fixed assets with long-term funds
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False
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7. The aggressive strategy operates with the minimum net working capital since only the permanent portion of the firm’s current assets is being financed with long-term funds
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False
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8. The operating cycle is the recurring transition of the firm’s working capital form cash to inventories and inventories to receivables and back to cash
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True
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9. The conservative financing strategy is a strategy by which the firm finances all projected funds requirements with long-term funds
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True
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10. As credit standards are relaxed, sales are expected to increase and the investment in accounts receivables is expected to decrease
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False
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11. 2/15 net 45 translates as 2 percent of the balance is due in 15 days, the remaining balance is due in 45 days
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False
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12. Marketable securities must be liquid and safe to be considered as investments for short-term assets
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True
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13. Commercial paper is a short-term fund on deposit at commercial banks having variable yields based on size, maturity, and prevailing money market conditions
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False
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14. Cash management techniques are aimed at minimizing the firm’s financing requirements by taking advantage of certain imperfections in the collection and payment system
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True
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15. The cost of giving up a cash discount is the implied rate of interest paid in order to delay payment of an account payable for an additional number of days
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True
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Self-liquidating loans are intended merely to carry the firm through seasonal peaks in financing needs, mainly buildups of accounts receivable and inventory
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True
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The discount rate is the lowest rate of interest charged by the nation’s leading banks on business loans to their most important and reliable business borrowers
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False
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18. The effective interest rate for a loan is the same as the loan’s state interest rate
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False
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19. Secured short-term financing has specific assets pledged as collateral and appears on the balance sheet as current liabilities.
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True
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20. Fixed assets are the most desirable short-term loan collateral since they normally have a longer life, or duration, than the term of the loan
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False
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21. Spontaneous liabilities such as accounts payable and accruals represent a source of financing that arise from the normal course of business
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True
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For forms that are in financial position to take a cash discount, it is generally a more financially sound decision to take the discount
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True
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23. Lines of credit are not guaranteed loans if the back does not have the funds available to lend
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True
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24. Revolving credit agreements are guaranteed loans that specify the maximum amount that a firm can owe the bank at any point in time
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True
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25. The two major sources of short-term financing are accounts payable and accruals.
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True
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