Final Physiology Exam

Front 1

required feedback necessary to maintain homeostasis

Back 1

negative feedback

Front 2

feedback that moves the system away from a set point

Back 2

positive feedback

Front 3

in a homeostatic system this detects changes in the variable being controlled

Back 3

receptor

Front 4

during the process of sweating, the sweat gland is this part of the homeostatic system

Back 4

effecter

Front 5

the brain sends signals to a muscle to contract, the brain is this part of the homeostatic system

Back 5

controller

Front 6

What is a mechanistic rather than a teleological explanation of a physiological phenomenon?

Back 6

our stomach produces acid when it fills with food and the stretching activates that in turn stimulate acid production

Front 7

what structure based on complexity is found between cells and organs?

Back 7

tissue

Front 8

what statement about negative feedback is NOT correct?

Back 8

the systems input and output continue to enhance each other driving the system away from the set point

Front 9

which structure allows electrical activity to spread between cells?

Back 9

gap junctions

Front 10

under the aerobic conditions, which of the following events of cellular respiration takes place?

Back 10

32 ATP are produced for each glucose utilized

Front 11

select the incorrect association

Back 11

electron transport chain/mitochondria matrix

Front 12

Under anaerobic conditions____ATP are made in the cytoplasm and ___ATP are made in the mitochondria

Back 12

2/0

Front 13

Which statement about the plasma membrane is NOT true?

Back 13

it is made primarily of a lipid bilayer in which the two surfaces are hydrophobic

Front 14

Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?

Back 14

determine the fluidity of the membrane

Front 15

the plasma membrane:

Back 15

is more permeable to K+ than to Na+ during the resting state

Front 16

process by which water moves across the membrane

Back 16

none of the above (osmosis)

Front 17

requires ATP utilization

Back 17

action of Na-K pump

Front 18

process by which glucose enters the cell

Back 18

facilitated diffusion

Front 19

maintains resting membrane potential of nerve and muscle cells

Back 19

action of Na-K pump

Front 20

if a typical body cell is placed in hypertonic saline solution, the cell:

Back 20

will lose water

Front 21

as related to fick's law, which of the following factors would reduce the rate at which substance X would diffuse across the membrane?

Back 21

substance X has a large molecular weight

Front 22

In a resting nerve cell:

Back 22

the Na-K pump is responsible maintaining the resting membrane potential at -70 mV

Front 23

under normal conditions the equilibrium potential for potassium:

Back 23

is more negative than the resting membrane potential

Front 24

along with sodium, this negatively charged ion is found primarily in the ECF

Back 24

chloride

Front 25

resting membrane potential close to this ions equilibrium potential

Back 25

potassium

Front 26

the Na-K pump moves this ion into the cell

Back 26

Potassium

Front 27

During an IPSP this ion leaves the cell

Back 27

Potassium

Front 28

this substance is found in the ICF and has a permeability of 0 at resting states

Back 28

A- (negatively charged proteins)

Front 29

which of the following statements concerning graded potentials is NOT correct?

Back 29

they follow the all or none law

Front 30

During contiguous conduction of action potentials:

Back 30

action potential conduction rate is slow

Front 31

Plasma is considered part of the ECF. T or F?

Back 31

True

Front 32

Tubulin in the major component of microtubules. T or F?

Back 32

true

Front 33

changing the concentrations of K+ in the ecf has no effect on the resting membrane potential. t or f?

Back 33

false

Front 34

lysosomes are small sacs containing powerful oxidative enzymes that detoxify wastes within cells. t or f

Back 34

false

Front 35

receptor-mediated endocytosis is a selective process whereas pinocytosis is non-selective. t or f

Back 35

true

Front 36

membrane carbohydrates serve as self-identitity markers. t or f

Back 36

true

Front 37

all body cells have the ability to alter their resting membrane potential to produce action potentials. t or f

Back 37

false

Front 38

a resting nerve cell is gaining more positive charges than it is losing. t or f

Back 38

false

Front 39

if the membrane potential of a nerve cell moves from -70 to -60 the cell is being inhibited. t or f

Back 39

false

Front 40

during the absolute refractory period, a portion of membrane of a nerve cell is capable of having an action potential but only if the stimulus is unusually strong. t or f

Back 40

false

Front 41

drugs like prozac that block neurotransmitter reuptake increase synaptic efficiency. t or f

Back 41

true

Front 42

in a chemical synapse the post-synaptic cell is responsible for neurotransmitter release. t or f

Back 42

false

Front 43

a man weighing 100 kg has 20 liters of total body water. t or f

Back 43

false

Front 44

somatic efferent information originates in which region?

Back 44

frontal lobe

Front 45

somatosensory afferent information form your thumb passes through all of the following structures except:

Back 45

ventral root of spinal nerve

Front 46

During a reflex in which the pupil of the eye constricts in response to shining light in the eye. Which of the following is the effector in this reflex arc?

Back 46

pupil smooth muscle

Front 47

composed of shallow grooves forming small ridges of neural tissue

Back 47

cerebral cortex

Front 48

composed of midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata

Back 48

brainstem

Front 49

process crude perception of pain

Back 49

thalamus

Front 50

gray matter composed of six cell layers

Back 50

cerebral cortex

Front 51

damage to this structure could cause disruption of body temperature and hormonal secretion

Back 51

hypothalamus

Front 52

reticular activating system originates in this structure

Back 52

brainstem

Front 53

Region shows the motor homunculus

Back 53

primary motor cortex

Front 54

this structure controls heart rate

Back 54

none of the above

Front 55

procedural memories are formed here

Back 55

cerebellum

Front 56

motor language patters originate here

Back 56

brocas area

Front 57

suppresses unwanted patterns of movement

Back 57

basal ganglia

Front 58

emotion, instinctual behavior and motivation are functions of the

Back 58

limbic system

Front 59

which statement is associated with paradoxical sleep

Back 59

EEG similar to that of an alert, awake person

Front 60

placing lemon juice on the tongue stimulates saliva production. what is the effector of this reflex arc?

Back 60

salivary glands

Front 61

high acuity receptors in the skin__

Back 61

have small receptive fields

Front 62

which statement is NOT correct about pain processing

Back 62

substance P is released in the thalamus and parietal lobes

Front 63

these cells are found in the fovea of the retina:

Back 63

cones only

Front 64

what part of the eye is the primary structure that bends light rays as they enter the eye

Back 64

cornea

Front 65

a grandfather with presbyopia and his granddaughter both wear the same type of corrective lenses. The granddaughter has which condition?

Back 65

hyperopia

Front 66

which characteristic is true of rods but NOT cones?

Back 66

are responsible for low acuity vision

Front 67

which combination is correct

Back 67

cochlear hair cell cilia: embedded in tectorial membrane

Front 68

Pitch (tone) discrimination of sounds is based on:

Back 68

which portion of the basilar membrane is vibrating

Front 69

which of the following is not true of the sense of smell?

Back 69

the olfactory tract carries information from the nasal mucosa to the olfactory bulb

Front 70

contains hair cells embedded in a gelatinous mass containing otoliths

Back 70

semicircular canals

Front 71

acts as a sound amplifier

Back 71

ear ossicles (bones)

Front 72

information from this structure is sent to brainstem nuclei for balance

Back 72

semicircular canals

Front 73

sounds waves strike this structure first upon entering the ear

Back 73

tympanic membrane

Front 74

houses hair cells for hearing

Back 74

cochlea

Front 75

hair cells for hearing rest on top of this structure

Back 75

basilar membrane

Front 76

carries both sensory and motor information

Back 76

spinal nerve

Front 77

gray matter that contains motor neurons

Back 77

ventral horn

Front 78

forms the motor component of a spinal nerve

Back 78

ventral root

Front 79

pain information is sent only to the thalamus and parietal lobe. t or f

Back 79

false

Front 80

touch receptors on the skin of the lips would have small receptive fields producing a high acuity sensitivity. t or f

Back 80

true

Front 81

the semicircular canals detect both rotational and linear motion. t or f

Back 81

false

Front 82

the right visual field is processed in the right occipital lobe. t or f

Back 82

false

Front 83

the cornea and sclera are part of the same layer of the eye. t or f

Back 83

true

Front 84

when viewing an image at a distance, the lens is in a relaxed state. t or f

Back 84

true

Front 85

the right optic tract carries information from only the right eye. t or f

Back 85

false

Front 86

taste and smell afferent information is sent to both the cerebral cortex and the limbic system. t or f

Back 86

true

Front 87

makes up the thick filaments

Back 87

myosin

Front 88

forms cross bridge attachments with myosin

Back 88

actin

Front 89

calcium binds directly to this protein

Back 89

troponin

Front 90

this protein is attached directly to Z lines

Back 90

actin

Front 91

this protein has ATPase activity

Back 91

myosin

Front 92

a drug that blocks the acetylcholine receptor__

Back 92

causes paralysis

Front 93

which of the following substances is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

Back 93

calcium

Front 94

which statement concerning alpha-motor neurons is correct?

Back 94

they stimulate extrafusal fiber contraction

Front 95

during the contraction of a skeletal muscle that produces shortening, which of the following events occur?

Back 95

I band becomes shorter (narrower)

Front 96

which combination is correct?

Back 96

ATP: cross-bridge detachment

Front 97

which event immediately precedes cross-bridge formation?

Back 97

rotation of tropmyosin

Front 98

which statement concerning how muscles detect length is true?

Back 98

the sensory organ for length is found within the intrafusal fibers

Front 99

action potentials in a muscle fiber____?

Back 99

stimulate calcium release

Front 100

which of the following is NOT part of the process of summation and tetanus?

Back 100

stimulating more or less motor units

Front 101

from standing position you spring as fast as you can for 30-45 seconds. which of the following is NOT a source for ATP during this action?

Back 101

ATP from aerobic pathways

Front 102

which of the following is characteristic of smooth muscle but NOT skeletal muscle

Back 102

muscle arranged in sheets of cells

Front 103

which of the following is characteristic of single-unit smooth muscle

Back 103

individual units are electrically linked via gap junctions

Front 104

the onset of rigor mortis is associated with decrease in ?

Back 104

ATP

Front 105

white, glycolotic muscle fibers___

Back 105

use anaerobic pathways for ATP production

Front 106

the chief cells secrete:

Back 106

pepsinogen

Front 107

which of the following factors does not slow down stomach emptying

Back 107

parasympathetic system

Front 108

which of the following statements concerning cholecystokinin (CCK) is FALSE?

Back 108

stimulates alkaline buffer secretion by the pancrease

Front 109

which layer of the GI tract is in direct contact with the food being digested?

Back 109

mucosa

Front 110

chylomicrons ..

Back 110

are found within intestinal cells

Front 111

carbohydrate digestion beings here

Back 111

mouth

Front 112

mucosal lining contains brush-border enzymes that finish the digestive process

Back 112

duodenum

Front 113

location of enterokinase

Back 113

duodenum

Front 114

location where fat digestion begins and ends

Back 114

duodenum

Front 115

receptive relaxation occurs in the ..

Back 115

stomach

Front 116

location where primary motility during digestion of a meal is mass movements

Back 116

large intestine

Front 117

location where bolus of food is converted into chyme

Back 117

stomach

Front 118

location where chyme is converted into feces

Back 118

large intestine

Front 119

action of bile occurs here

Back 119

duodenum

Front 120

chemical responsible for emulsification of fats

Back 120

bile

Front 121

chemical that inhibits stomach activity during the intestinal phase

Back 121

CCK

Front 122

activates protein digestive enzymes in stomach

Back 122

HCL

Front 123

besides CCK this substance is secreted by the duodenum

Back 123

secretin

Front 124

large amounts of this in the duodenum stimulate the production of CCK

Back 124

HCL

Front 125

duodenal hormone that stimulates the secretion of pancreatic alkaline buffers

Back 125

Secretin

Front 126

Considered the adrenergic system

Back 126

sympathetic only

Front 127

controls voluntary skeletal muscle activity

Back 127

neither sympathetic or parasympathetic

Front 128

preganglionic fibers originate in spinal cord regions T1-L2

Back 128

sympathetic only

Front 129

controls cardiac activity by influencing heart rate

Back 129

both parasympathetic and sympathetic

Front 130

post-ganglionic cells release acetylcholine

Back 130

parasympathetic only

Front 131

system composed of a single neuron that activates the target tissue

Back 131

neither sympathetic or parasympathetic

Front 132

vagus nerve is part of this system

Back 132

parasympathetic only

Front 133

activation of this system would decrease blood pressure

Back 133

parasympathetic only

Front 134

system promotes sweating

Back 134

sympathetic only

Front 135

stimulates bladder contractions

Back 135

parasympathetic only

Front 136

the right side of the heart:

Back 136

pumps blood with a lower pressure than the left side

Front 137

the right AV valve:

Back 137

is anchored by the chordae tendinae and papillary muscles

Front 138

which action potential characteristic provides calcium for cardiac muscle contraction?

Back 138

plateau phase

Front 139

which valve prevents backflow of blood between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery

Back 139

pulmonary

Front 140

cardiac pacemaker cells:

Back 140

are located in the SA node

Front 141

which phase of the cardiac muscle cell action potential is dependent on an inward calcium current

Back 141

plateau

Front 142

the refractory period of the cardiac muscle cell action potential occurs during which action potential phase?

Back 142

plateau

Front 143

which of the following would not increase cardiac output during exercise?

Back 143

decrease venous return

Front 144

which event is associated with ventricular systole?

Back 144

QRS complex is recorded on the ECG

Front 145

when the atria contract:

Back 145

electrical activity is being delayed at the AV node

Front 146

during ventricular diastole:

Back 146

the atria are filling with blood

Front 147

on an ECG reading, you notice that the time between the P wave and QRS complex is abnormally long, you conclude that a problem exists in the :

Back 147

AV node

Front 148

what percentage of EDV do the atria pump into the ventricles?

Back 148

30%

Front 149

Under normal conditions, which of the following is measured at 5 L of blood/min

Back 149

cardiac output

Front 150

vessel that delivers blood into the right atrium

Back 150

aorta

Front 151

vessel that delivers oxygenated blood to ventricular muscle

Back 151

coronary artery

Front 152

the right semilunar valve is located between this structure and the right ventricle

Back 152

pulmonary trunk

Front 153

blood pressure during ventricular systole would be measured in this structure at around 120 mm Hg.

Back 153

aorta

Front 154

blockage of this vessel could lead to a myocardial infarction

Back 154

coronary arteries

Front 155

returns blood to the heart from the lungs

Back 155

pulmonary veins

Front 156

which factor would cause arteriole constriction

Back 156

increases sympathetic activity

Front 157

a single arteriole underwent dilation. which of the following is true of this vessel

Back 157

blood flow increased

Front 158

the major factor influencing resistance to blood flow is

Back 158

vessel diameter

Front 159

doubling the radius of an arteriole does what to blood resistance in that arteriole

Back 159

decreases it by factor of 16

Front 160

these vessels assist systemic blood during diastole due to the elastic recoil of their walls

Back 160

large arteries

Front 161

which statement is correct if arterial blood pressure is recorded at 120/80

Back 161

pulse pressure is 40 mm Hg

Front 162

select the correct statement about veins

Back 162

they contain about 60% of blood volume

Front 163

sympathetic control of arteriolar radius is

Back 163

important in regulating blood pressure

Front 164

bulk flow into and out of a capillary bed is dependent on___and ___working in____ directions

Back 164

hydrostatic pressure/osmotic pressure/opposite

Front 165

which of the following would likely cause edema

Back 165

blockage of the lympathtic system

Front 166

the valves found in veins in the legs

Back 166

close to prevent the backflow of blood down the leg

Front 167

smaller water soluble substances move out of a capillary bed via:

Back 167

diffusion through pores

Front 168

which factor is monitored and regulated to control overall systemic blood pressure

Back 168

mean arterial pressure

Front 169

baroreceptors:

Back 169

send signals regarding blood pressure into the medulla of the brainstem

Front 170

which type of hypertensive drug targets heart function

Back 170

beta blockers and calcium channel blockers

Front 171

dilation of an arteriole ____resistance in the same arteriole

Back 171

decreases

Front 172

increasing sympathetic activity to the heart ___cardiac output

Back 172

increases

Front 173

decreasing sympathetic tone to arterioles ___mean arterial pressure

Back 173

decreases

Front 174

decreased firing rate of baroreceptors below normal____cardiac output

Back 174

increases

Front 175

in a healthy person, significant exercise ___blood flow to the brain

Back 175

has no effect on

Front 176

increasing the radius of an arteriole ___blood viscosity

Back 176

has no effect on

Front 177

increasing EDV____stroke volume

Back 177

increases

Front 178

mitral valve stenosis___ventricular filling

Back 178

decreases

Front 179

which of the following is NOT one of the major steps of hemostasis

Back 179

erythropoiesis

Front 180

the ____pathway of the clotting cascade is initiated by factors from outside of the blood

Back 180

extrinsic

Front 181

____convert fibrinogen to fibrin during clot formation

Back 181

thrombin

Front 182

which characteristic is not true of red blood cells

Back 182

new cells are formed constantly in the plasma

Front 183

which of the following is characteristic of monocytes?

Back 183

acts as a macrophage to remove foreign particles or debris

Front 184

the drug that interferes with the livers production of clotting factors is:

Back 184

coumadin

Front 185

EPO stimulates cells in which structure?

Back 185

bone marrow

Front 186

a patients arterial blood sample had a pH of 7.5, with respect to acid-base status, the patient is in a condition of

Back 186

alkalosis

Front 187

acids are commonly defined as

Back 187

proton donors

Front 188

pH is the

Back 188

negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration

Front 189

the most important extracellular buffer is

Back 189

bicarbonate

Front 190

in a condition of metabolic acidosis there is an increased production of hydrogen ions which immediately causes a decrease in extracellular bicarbonate concentration. the most likely regulatory response to this acidosis and fall in bicarbonate concentration is

Back 190

a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by an increase in ventilation

Front 191

a patient has been taking a drug which has decreased his ventilation. an arterial blood sample had the following clinical values: pH 7.3, pCO2=45 mmHg, [HCO3-]=30 mmol/l, what is the patients acid-base condition

Back 191

respiratory acidosis

Front 192

which of the following binds hydrogen ions secreted by the renal tubule and appears as the most common titratable acid in the urine

Back 192

monohydrogen phosphate

Front 193

sustained hyperventilation would eliminate more carbon dioxide, causing a decrease in pCO2, and bicarbonate in the extracellular fluids. this condition would represent a case of

Back 193

respiratory alkalosis

Front 194

which of the following acid base regulatory systems is the slowest to respond to a sudden change in pH and exert pH regulatory effects?

Back 194

the renal system

Front 195

buffers are

Back 195

weak acids which only partially dissociate in water at physiological pH's

Front 196

Loss of a significant amount of base from the body would most likely have which of the following effects on the bodys pH status

Back 196

produce an acidosis

Front 197

the normal primary role of the kidney in acid-base balance in the body is to

Back 197

reabsorb (conserve) filtered bicarbonate

Front 198

a decrease in pH and an increase in temperature will enhance oxygen release from hemoglobin. t or f

Back 198

true

Front 199

the majority of all of the CO2 that is transported in the blood is found in which form

Back 199

has been converted to bicarbonate ion

Front 200

which pressure in mm Hg would be representative of intrapulmonary pressure during the period of time between inspiration and expiration when air is not flowing

Back 200

760

Front 201

the bohr effect:

Back 201

is the opposite of the haldane effect

Front 202

a pneumothorax of the lungs occurs when:

Back 202

intrapleural pressure is greater than intra-alveolar pressure

Front 203

what is the primary method by which oxygen is transported in the blood

Back 203

bound to hemoglobin

Front 204

an enhanced bohr effect will shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right and downward. t or f

Back 204

true

Front 205

a person has a tidal volume of 200 ml/breath, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute and an anatomical dead space volume of 150 ml. alveolar ventilation rate is

Back 205

1,000 ml/minute

Front 206

peripheral respiratory chemoreceptors are sensitive to changes in pH of the brain. t or f

Back 206

false

Front 207

normally the percentage of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in venous blood is approximately

Back 207

75%

Front 208

during expiration :

Back 208

intrapulmonary pressure increases above atmospheric pressure

Front 209

the oxygen released from hemoglobin moves into the plasma before moving into tissue. t or f

Back 209

true

Front 210

which of the following statements concerning alveoli is INCORRECT

Back 210

contain surfactant to increases lung elastance

Front 211

surfactant:

Back 211

decreases alveolar surface tension

Front 212

this portion of the brain is thought to contain the respiratory pacemaker cells:

Back 212

Pre-botzinger complex

Front 213

the lungs are normally in an inflated state because the____pressure is less than the___pressure

Back 213

intra-alveolar, intra-pleural

Front 214

the major driving force that moves oxygen out of the blood and into tissue is:

Back 214

the difference in PO2 between arterial blood and tissue

Front 215

approximately what percent of oxygen transported in the body is physically dissolved?

Back 215

1.5 %

Front 216

which of the following is NOT true of central respiratory chemoreceptors

Back 216

they are sensitive to small reductions in arterial PO2

Front 217

peripheral chemoreceptors are

Back 217

activated when the arterial PO2 falls below 60 mmHg

Front 218

peripheral chemoreceptors are

Back 218

activated when the arterial PO2 falls below 60 mmHg

Front 219

resting tidal volume

Back 219

is about 500 ml of air

Front 220

a person with emphysema expends about 3% of their total energy expenditure for breathing. t or f

Back 220

false

Front 221

the space between the visceral and parietal pleural membranes :

Back 221

has a pressure that is normally always less than the pressure inside the lungs

Front 222

where in the respiratory tree is air flow laminar ?

Back 222

bronchioles

Front 223

when the lungs are at low volumes:

Back 223

compliance is high

Front 224

in obstructive lung diseases expiration is affected more than inspiration . t or f

Back 224

true

Front 225

slow deep breathing is a more effective at increasing alveolar ventilation than rapid shallow breathing . t or f

Back 225

true

Front 226

which factor shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right and downward

Back 226

low pH

Front 227

the peripheral chemoreceptors for breathing are sensitive to decreases in arterial oxygen falling below 60 mmHg. t or f

Back 227

true

Front 228

under resting conditions expiration requires more body energy than inspiration. t or f

Back 228

false

Front 229

carbon monoxide poisoning causes the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left. t or f

Back 229

true

Front 230

the central chemoreceptors are important in the bodys response to metabolic acidosis . t or f

Back 230

false

Front 231

the haldane effect describes the ability of deoxygenated blood to carry more CO2 than oxygenated blood. t or f

Back 231

true

Front 232

the decrease in oxygen content of the air at high altitudes is a reflection of the decrease in percentage of oxygen in the air (falls below 21%). t or f

Back 232

false

Front 233

total lung capacity is the point where the recoil forces of the lungs and chest wall are at equilibrium with one another. t or f

Back 233

false

Front 234

under normal conditions if pressure inside the lungs is measured at 758 mm Hg the pressure in the intrapleural space would be measured at 762 mm Hg. t or f

Back 234

false

Front 235

which of the following is true of a negative feedback mechanism of control

Back 235

the feedback cycle stops when a set point condition is achieved

Front 236

this term is used to describe an endocrine disorder which is caused by a gland that cannot secrete enough hormone to meet the needs of homeostasis

Back 236

primary hyposecretion

Front 237

the lack of receptors, such that a hormone cannot have an effect on a target tissue, would be known as:

Back 237

abnormal target-cell responsiveness

Front 238

choose the best description that matches the term antagonism

Back 238

when one hormone counteracts the effects of a second hormone

Front 239

which of the following hormones secretion rate would be increased via humoral stimulus

Back 239

insulin

Front 240

which portion of the pituitary gland secretes the hormone vasopressin

Back 240

posterior

Front 241

these cell types are the target for growth hormone releasing hormone

Back 241

somatotropes

Front 242

this structure is important in delivering the hypothalamic releasing hormones to the anterior pituitary.

Back 242

hypothalamic-hypoohyseal system

Front 243

which of the following hormones acts at both the uterus and the breast to stimulate contractile activity in target tissues

Back 243

oxytocin

Front 244

a net increase in protein synthesis is an action of growth hormone. t or f

Back 244

true

Front 245

which of the following is true of growth hormone

Back 245

skeletal muscles are directed to use fatty acids, not glucose

Front 246

identify the term used to describe the change in a cell, such as a muscle fiber, whereby more protein synthesis results in an increase in size

Back 246

hypertrophy

Front 247

which of these statements is correct concerning growth hormone secretion

Back 247

it displays a diurnal rhythmq

Front 248

which of the following conditions would occur as a result of an increase in growth hormone secretion which begins post puberty

Back 248

acromegaly

Front 249

correctly match the clinical observation to the growth hormone imbalance

Back 249

rapid growth in height with out distorion of body proportions=gigantism

Front 250

identify the signal which is thought to be responsible for growth plate closure and termination of bone growth in length

Back 250

sex hormones

Front 251

which of the following is an anticipated result of ingestion of a meal high in protein

Back 251

growth hormone secretion will stimulate protein synthesis

Front 252

which bone cell type is stimulated by growth hormone via IGF-1 to form bone

Back 252

osteoblasts

Front 253

the gland that is identified as having two lobes connected by an isthmus and located just inferior to the larynx is the

Back 253

thyroid gland

Front 254

which of the following is a complete list of ingredients for the production of thyroid hormone

Back 254

iodide, tyrosine, thyroglobulin, and thyroperoxidase

Front 255

the majority of all____is converted to____in the peripheral tissues (liver, kidney, etc)

Back 255

thyroxine (T4), tri-iodothronine (T3)

Front 256

the effect of elevated metabolism resulting in elevated heat production by the thyroid is known as the

Back 256

calorigenic effect

Front 257

which of the following statements is true concerning thyroid hormone control

Back 257

thyroid hormone secretion is controlled via negative feedback

Front 258

due to metabolic and growth promoting influence, hypothyroidism from birth results in

Back 258

cretinism

Front 259

intermediary metabolism

Back 259

refers to the chemical reactions involving energy rich organic compounds

Front 260

which of the following statements is true

Back 260

skeletal muscles can store glucose, but do not release it back to the body

Front 261

the process of fatty acids being converted to glucose is known as

Back 261

gluconeogenesis

Front 262

the functional metabolic state whereby glucose is plentiful and very little fat and amino acids are used for fuel is the

Back 262

absorptive state

Front 263

the primary site of amino acid storage is the

Back 263

muscles

Front 264

which of the following hormones is secreted by pancreatic b-cells

Back 264

insulin

Front 265

which glucose transporter is sensitive to insulin

Back 265

GLUT-4

Front 266

what is the major control of insulin secretion

Back 266

elevated blood glucose concentration

Front 267

which of the following is accurate concerning glucagons actions at the liver

Back 267

promotes glycogenolysis

Front 268

a person whose insulin receptors are no longer receptive to insulin, is clinically obese, but whose blood glucose concentration can be controlled with diet is most likely

Back 268

A type 2 diabetic

Front 269

the primary mineralocorticoid is

Back 269

aldosterone

Front 270

which cortical hormone is secreted by the middle layer of the adrenal cortex

Back 270

cortisol

Front 271

cortisol

Back 271

promotes an elevation in blood glucose concentrations

Front 272

the condition whereby hypersecretion of cortisol results in excess glucose deposited as fat in the upper back and face is most likely

Back 272

cushings syndrome

Front 273

the adrenocortical insufficiency that results in hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hyperpigmentation is

Back 273

addisons disease

Front 274

the hormones of the adrenal gland whose secretion are controlled via the sympathetic branch of the autosomal nervous system are

Back 274

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Front 275

which of the following statements is true regarding the adrenergic response to stress

Back 275

epinephrine promotes glycogen breakdown in skeletal muscle cells and dilation of vessels that feed them

Front 276

the metabolic effects of catecholamines include

Back 276

elevated blood glucose levels

Front 277

the bodys state of intense readiness and mobilization of biochemical resources in response to stress is known as

Back 277

the general adaptation syndrome

Front 278

which portion of the calcium distribution in the body is biologically active and subject to regulation

Back 278

unbound, free calcium

Front 279

the most important hormone controlling calcium is

Back 279

parathyroid hormone

Front 280

fast calcium efflux into plasma (form small labile pool of dissolved calcium in bone) is characterized by

Back 280

movement of calcium ions without PO43-

Front 281

in addition to the actions of PTH on bone, PTH also targets the kidney to promote

Back 281

reabsorption of calcium

Front 282

which of the following statements is true regarding calcitonin

Back 282

it is only important in conditions of extreme hypercalcemia

Front 283

PTH

Back 283

inhibits osteoblasts and stimulates osteoclast activity

Front 284

which pre pubertal disorder arises if there is normal pTH function but deficiency of vitamin D

Back 284

rickets