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284 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

required feedback necessary to maintain homeostasis

negative feedback

feedback that moves the system away from a set point

positive feedback

in a homeostatic system this detects changes in the variable being controlled


during the process of sweating, the sweat gland is this part of the homeostatic system


the brain sends signals to a muscle to contract, the brain is this part of the homeostatic system


What is a mechanistic rather than a teleological explanation of a physiological phenomenon?

our stomach produces acid when it fills with food and the stretching activates that in turn stimulate acid production

what structure based on complexity is found between cells and organs?


what statement about negative feedback is NOT correct?

the systems input and output continue to enhance each other driving the system away from the set point

which structure allows electrical activity to spread between cells?

gap junctions

under the aerobic conditions, which of the following events of cellular respiration takes place?

32 ATP are produced for each glucose utilized

select the incorrect association

electron transport chain/mitochondria matrix

Under anaerobic conditions____ATP are made in the cytoplasm and ___ATP are made in the mitochondria


Which statement about the plasma membrane is NOT true?

it is made primarily of a lipid bilayer in which the two surfaces are hydrophobic

Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?

determine the fluidity of the membrane

the plasma membrane:

is more permeable to K+ than to Na+ during the resting state

process by which water moves across the membrane

none of the above (osmosis)

requires ATP utilization

action of Na-K pump

process by which glucose enters the cell

facilitated diffusion

maintains resting membrane potential of nerve and muscle cells

action of Na-K pump

if a typical body cell is placed in hypertonic saline solution, the cell:

will lose water

as related to fick's law, which of the following factors would reduce the rate at which substance X would diffuse across the membrane?

substance X has a large molecular weight

In a resting nerve cell:

the Na-K pump is responsible maintaining the resting membrane potential at -70 mV

under normal conditions the equilibrium potential for potassium:

is more negative than the resting membrane potential

along with sodium, this negatively charged ion is found primarily in the ECF


resting membrane potential close to this ions equilibrium potential


the Na-K pump moves this ion into the cell


During an IPSP this ion leaves the cell


this substance is found in the ICF and has a permeability of 0 at resting states

A- (negatively charged proteins)

which of the following statements concerning graded potentials is NOT correct?

they follow the all or none law

During contiguous conduction of action potentials:

action potential conduction rate is slow

Plasma is considered part of the ECF. T or F?


Tubulin in the major component of microtubules. T or F?


changing the concentrations of K+ in the ecf has no effect on the resting membrane potential. t or f?


lysosomes are small sacs containing powerful oxidative enzymes that detoxify wastes within cells. t or f


receptor-mediated endocytosis is a selective process whereas pinocytosis is non-selective. t or f


membrane carbohydrates serve as self-identitity markers. t or f


all body cells have the ability to alter their resting membrane potential to produce action potentials. t or f


a resting nerve cell is gaining more positive charges than it is losing. t or f


if the membrane potential of a nerve cell moves from -70 to -60 the cell is being inhibited. t or f


during the absolute refractory period, a portion of membrane of a nerve cell is capable of having an action potential but only if the stimulus is unusually strong. t or f


drugs like prozac that block neurotransmitter reuptake increase synaptic efficiency. t or f


in a chemical synapse the post-synaptic cell is responsible for neurotransmitter release. t or f


a man weighing 100 kg has 20 liters of total body water. t or f


somatic efferent information originates in which region?

frontal lobe

somatosensory afferent information form your thumb passes through all of the following structures except:

ventral root of spinal nerve

During a reflex in which the pupil of the eye constricts in response to shining light in the eye. Which of the following is the effector in this reflex arc?

pupil smooth muscle

composed of shallow grooves forming small ridges of neural tissue

cerebral cortex

composed of midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata


process crude perception of pain


gray matter composed of six cell layers

cerebral cortex

damage to this structure could cause disruption of body temperature and hormonal secretion


reticular activating system originates in this structure


Region shows the motor homunculus

primary motor cortex

this structure controls heart rate

none of the above

procedural memories are formed here


motor language patters originate here

brocas area

suppresses unwanted patterns of movement

basal ganglia

emotion, instinctual behavior and motivation are functions of the

limbic system

which statement is associated with paradoxical sleep

EEG similar to that of an alert, awake person

placing lemon juice on the tongue stimulates saliva production. what is the effector of this reflex arc?

salivary glands

high acuity receptors in the skin__

have small receptive fields

which statement is NOT correct about pain processing

substance P is released in the thalamus and parietal lobes

these cells are found in the fovea of the retina:

cones only

what part of the eye is the primary structure that bends light rays as they enter the eye


a grandfather with presbyopia and his granddaughter both wear the same type of corrective lenses. The granddaughter has which condition?


which characteristic is true of rods but NOT cones?

are responsible for low acuity vision

which combination is correct

cochlear hair cell cilia: embedded in tectorial membrane

Pitch (tone) discrimination of sounds is based on:

which portion of the basilar membrane is vibrating

which of the following is not true of the sense of smell?

the olfactory tract carries information from the nasal mucosa to the olfactory bulb

contains hair cells embedded in a gelatinous mass containing otoliths

semicircular canals

acts as a sound amplifier

ear ossicles (bones)

information from this structure is sent to brainstem nuclei for balance

semicircular canals

sounds waves strike this structure first upon entering the ear

tympanic membrane

houses hair cells for hearing


hair cells for hearing rest on top of this structure

basilar membrane

carries both sensory and motor information

spinal nerve

gray matter that contains motor neurons

ventral horn

forms the motor component of a spinal nerve

ventral root

pain information is sent only to the thalamus and parietal lobe. t or f


touch receptors on the skin of the lips would have small receptive fields producing a high acuity sensitivity. t or f


the semicircular canals detect both rotational and linear motion. t or f


the right visual field is processed in the right occipital lobe. t or f


the cornea and sclera are part of the same layer of the eye. t or f


when viewing an image at a distance, the lens is in a relaxed state. t or f


the right optic tract carries information from only the right eye. t or f


taste and smell afferent information is sent to both the cerebral cortex and the limbic system. t or f


makes up the thick filaments


forms cross bridge attachments with myosin


calcium binds directly to this protein


this protein is attached directly to Z lines


this protein has ATPase activity


a drug that blocks the acetylcholine receptor__

causes paralysis

which of the following substances is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum?


which statement concerning alpha-motor neurons is correct?

they stimulate extrafusal fiber contraction

during the contraction of a skeletal muscle that produces shortening, which of the following events occur?

I band becomes shorter (narrower)

which combination is correct?

ATP: cross-bridge detachment

which event immediately precedes cross-bridge formation?

rotation of tropmyosin

which statement concerning how muscles detect length is true?

the sensory organ for length is found within the intrafusal fibers

action potentials in a muscle fiber____?

stimulate calcium release

which of the following is NOT part of the process of summation and tetanus?

stimulating more or less motor units

from standing position you spring as fast as you can for 30-45 seconds. which of the following is NOT a source for ATP during this action?

ATP from aerobic pathways

which of the following is characteristic of smooth muscle but NOT skeletal muscle

muscle arranged in sheets of cells

which of the following is characteristic of single-unit smooth muscle

individual units are electrically linked via gap junctions

the onset of rigor mortis is associated with decrease in ?


white, glycolotic muscle fibers___

use anaerobic pathways for ATP production

the chief cells secrete:


which of the following factors does not slow down stomach emptying

parasympathetic system

which of the following statements concerning cholecystokinin (CCK) is FALSE?

stimulates alkaline buffer secretion by the pancrease

which layer of the GI tract is in direct contact with the food being digested?


chylomicrons ..

are found within intestinal cells

carbohydrate digestion beings here


mucosal lining contains brush-border enzymes that finish the digestive process


location of enterokinase


location where fat digestion begins and ends


receptive relaxation occurs in the ..


location where primary motility during digestion of a meal is mass movements

large intestine

location where bolus of food is converted into chyme


location where chyme is converted into feces

large intestine

action of bile occurs here


chemical responsible for emulsification of fats


chemical that inhibits stomach activity during the intestinal phase


activates protein digestive enzymes in stomach


besides CCK this substance is secreted by the duodenum


large amounts of this in the duodenum stimulate the production of CCK


duodenal hormone that stimulates the secretion of pancreatic alkaline buffers


Considered the adrenergic system

sympathetic only

controls voluntary skeletal muscle activity

neither sympathetic or parasympathetic

preganglionic fibers originate in spinal cord regions T1-L2

sympathetic only

controls cardiac activity by influencing heart rate

both parasympathetic and sympathetic

post-ganglionic cells release acetylcholine

parasympathetic only

system composed of a single neuron that activates the target tissue

neither sympathetic or parasympathetic

vagus nerve is part of this system

parasympathetic only

activation of this system would decrease blood pressure

parasympathetic only

system promotes sweating

sympathetic only

stimulates bladder contractions

parasympathetic only

the right side of the heart:

pumps blood with a lower pressure than the left side

the right AV valve:

is anchored by the chordae tendinae and papillary muscles

which action potential characteristic provides calcium for cardiac muscle contraction?

plateau phase

which valve prevents backflow of blood between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery


cardiac pacemaker cells:

are located in the SA node

which phase of the cardiac muscle cell action potential is dependent on an inward calcium current


the refractory period of the cardiac muscle cell action potential occurs during which action potential phase?


which of the following would not increase cardiac output during exercise?

decrease venous return

which event is associated with ventricular systole?

QRS complex is recorded on the ECG

when the atria contract:

electrical activity is being delayed at the AV node

during ventricular diastole:

the atria are filling with blood

on an ECG reading, you notice that the time between the P wave and QRS complex is abnormally long, you conclude that a problem exists in the :

AV node

what percentage of EDV do the atria pump into the ventricles?


Under normal conditions, which of the following is measured at 5 L of blood/min

cardiac output

vessel that delivers blood into the right atrium


vessel that delivers oxygenated blood to ventricular muscle

coronary artery

the right semilunar valve is located between this structure and the right ventricle

pulmonary trunk

blood pressure during ventricular systole would be measured in this structure at around 120 mm Hg.


blockage of this vessel could lead to a myocardial infarction

coronary arteries

returns blood to the heart from the lungs

pulmonary veins

which factor would cause arteriole constriction

increases sympathetic activity

a single arteriole underwent dilation. which of the following is true of this vessel

blood flow increased

the major factor influencing resistance to blood flow is

vessel diameter

doubling the radius of an arteriole does what to blood resistance in that arteriole

decreases it by factor of 16

these vessels assist systemic blood during diastole due to the elastic recoil of their walls

large arteries

which statement is correct if arterial blood pressure is recorded at 120/80

pulse pressure is 40 mm Hg

select the correct statement about veins

they contain about 60% of blood volume

sympathetic control of arteriolar radius is

important in regulating blood pressure

bulk flow into and out of a capillary bed is dependent on___and ___working in____ directions

hydrostatic pressure/osmotic pressure/opposite

which of the following would likely cause edema

blockage of the lympathtic system

the valves found in veins in the legs

close to prevent the backflow of blood down the leg

smaller water soluble substances move out of a capillary bed via:

diffusion through pores

which factor is monitored and regulated to control overall systemic blood pressure

mean arterial pressure


send signals regarding blood pressure into the medulla of the brainstem

which type of hypertensive drug targets heart function

beta blockers and calcium channel blockers

dilation of an arteriole ____resistance in the same arteriole


increasing sympathetic activity to the heart ___cardiac output


decreasing sympathetic tone to arterioles ___mean arterial pressure


decreased firing rate of baroreceptors below normal____cardiac output


in a healthy person, significant exercise ___blood flow to the brain

has no effect on

increasing the radius of an arteriole ___blood viscosity

has no effect on

increasing EDV____stroke volume


mitral valve stenosis___ventricular filling


which of the following is NOT one of the major steps of hemostasis


the ____pathway of the clotting cascade is initiated by factors from outside of the blood


____convert fibrinogen to fibrin during clot formation


which characteristic is not true of red blood cells

new cells are formed constantly in the plasma

which of the following is characteristic of monocytes?

acts as a macrophage to remove foreign particles or debris

the drug that interferes with the livers production of clotting factors is:


EPO stimulates cells in which structure?

bone marrow

a patients arterial blood sample had a pH of 7.5, with respect to acid-base status, the patient is in a condition of


acids are commonly defined as

proton donors

pH is the

negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration

the most important extracellular buffer is


in a condition of metabolic acidosis there is an increased production of hydrogen ions which immediately causes a decrease in extracellular bicarbonate concentration. the most likely regulatory response to this acidosis and fall in bicarbonate concentration is

a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by an increase in ventilation

a patient has been taking a drug which has decreased his ventilation. an arterial blood sample had the following clinical values: pH 7.3, pCO2=45 mmHg, [HCO3-]=30 mmol/l, what is the patients acid-base condition

respiratory acidosis

which of the following binds hydrogen ions secreted by the renal tubule and appears as the most common titratable acid in the urine

monohydrogen phosphate

sustained hyperventilation would eliminate more carbon dioxide, causing a decrease in pCO2, and bicarbonate in the extracellular fluids. this condition would represent a case of

respiratory alkalosis

which of the following acid base regulatory systems is the slowest to respond to a sudden change in pH and exert pH regulatory effects?

the renal system

buffers are

weak acids which only partially dissociate in water at physiological pH's

Loss of a significant amount of base from the body would most likely have which of the following effects on the bodys pH status

produce an acidosis

the normal primary role of the kidney in acid-base balance in the body is to

reabsorb (conserve) filtered bicarbonate

a decrease in pH and an increase in temperature will enhance oxygen release from hemoglobin. t or f


the majority of all of the CO2 that is transported in the blood is found in which form

has been converted to bicarbonate ion

which pressure in mm Hg would be representative of intrapulmonary pressure during the period of time between inspiration and expiration when air is not flowing


the bohr effect:

is the opposite of the haldane effect

a pneumothorax of the lungs occurs when:

intrapleural pressure is greater than intra-alveolar pressure

what is the primary method by which oxygen is transported in the blood

bound to hemoglobin

an enhanced bohr effect will shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right and downward. t or f


a person has a tidal volume of 200 ml/breath, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute and an anatomical dead space volume of 150 ml. alveolar ventilation rate is

1,000 ml/minute

peripheral respiratory chemoreceptors are sensitive to changes in pH of the brain. t or f


normally the percentage of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in venous blood is approximately


during expiration :

intrapulmonary pressure increases above atmospheric pressure

the oxygen released from hemoglobin moves into the plasma before moving into tissue. t or f


which of the following statements concerning alveoli is INCORRECT

contain surfactant to increases lung elastance


decreases alveolar surface tension

this portion of the brain is thought to contain the respiratory pacemaker cells:

Pre-botzinger complex

the lungs are normally in an inflated state because the____pressure is less than the___pressure

intra-alveolar, intra-pleural

the major driving force that moves oxygen out of the blood and into tissue is:

the difference in PO2 between arterial blood and tissue

approximately what percent of oxygen transported in the body is physically dissolved?

1.5 %

which of the following is NOT true of central respiratory chemoreceptors

they are sensitive to small reductions in arterial PO2

peripheral chemoreceptors are

activated when the arterial PO2 falls below 60 mmHg

peripheral chemoreceptors are

activated when the arterial PO2 falls below 60 mmHg

resting tidal volume

is about 500 ml of air

a person with emphysema expends about 3% of their total energy expenditure for breathing. t or f


the space between the visceral and parietal pleural membranes :

has a pressure that is normally always less than the pressure inside the lungs

where in the respiratory tree is air flow laminar ?


when the lungs are at low volumes:

compliance is high

in obstructive lung diseases expiration is affected more than inspiration . t or f


slow deep breathing is a more effective at increasing alveolar ventilation than rapid shallow breathing . t or f


which factor shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right and downward

low pH

the peripheral chemoreceptors for breathing are sensitive to decreases in arterial oxygen falling below 60 mmHg. t or f


under resting conditions expiration requires more body energy than inspiration. t or f


carbon monoxide poisoning causes the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left. t or f


the central chemoreceptors are important in the bodys response to metabolic acidosis . t or f


the haldane effect describes the ability of deoxygenated blood to carry more CO2 than oxygenated blood. t or f


the decrease in oxygen content of the air at high altitudes is a reflection of the decrease in percentage of oxygen in the air (falls below 21%). t or f


total lung capacity is the point where the recoil forces of the lungs and chest wall are at equilibrium with one another. t or f


under normal conditions if pressure inside the lungs is measured at 758 mm Hg the pressure in the intrapleural space would be measured at 762 mm Hg. t or f


which of the following is true of a negative feedback mechanism of control

the feedback cycle stops when a set point condition is achieved

this term is used to describe an endocrine disorder which is caused by a gland that cannot secrete enough hormone to meet the needs of homeostasis

primary hyposecretion

the lack of receptors, such that a hormone cannot have an effect on a target tissue, would be known as:

abnormal target-cell responsiveness

choose the best description that matches the term antagonism

when one hormone counteracts the effects of a second hormone

which of the following hormones secretion rate would be increased via humoral stimulus


which portion of the pituitary gland secretes the hormone vasopressin


these cell types are the target for growth hormone releasing hormone


this structure is important in delivering the hypothalamic releasing hormones to the anterior pituitary.

hypothalamic-hypoohyseal system

which of the following hormones acts at both the uterus and the breast to stimulate contractile activity in target tissues


a net increase in protein synthesis is an action of growth hormone. t or f


which of the following is true of growth hormone

skeletal muscles are directed to use fatty acids, not glucose

identify the term used to describe the change in a cell, such as a muscle fiber, whereby more protein synthesis results in an increase in size


which of these statements is correct concerning growth hormone secretion

it displays a diurnal rhythmq

which of the following conditions would occur as a result of an increase in growth hormone secretion which begins post puberty


correctly match the clinical observation to the growth hormone imbalance

rapid growth in height with out distorion of body proportions=gigantism

identify the signal which is thought to be responsible for growth plate closure and termination of bone growth in length

sex hormones

which of the following is an anticipated result of ingestion of a meal high in protein

growth hormone secretion will stimulate protein synthesis

which bone cell type is stimulated by growth hormone via IGF-1 to form bone


the gland that is identified as having two lobes connected by an isthmus and located just inferior to the larynx is the

thyroid gland

which of the following is a complete list of ingredients for the production of thyroid hormone

iodide, tyrosine, thyroglobulin, and thyroperoxidase

the majority of all____is converted to____in the peripheral tissues (liver, kidney, etc)

thyroxine (T4), tri-iodothronine (T3)

the effect of elevated metabolism resulting in elevated heat production by the thyroid is known as the

calorigenic effect

which of the following statements is true concerning thyroid hormone control

thyroid hormone secretion is controlled via negative feedback

due to metabolic and growth promoting influence, hypothyroidism from birth results in


intermediary metabolism

refers to the chemical reactions involving energy rich organic compounds

which of the following statements is true

skeletal muscles can store glucose, but do not release it back to the body

the process of fatty acids being converted to glucose is known as


the functional metabolic state whereby glucose is plentiful and very little fat and amino acids are used for fuel is the

absorptive state

the primary site of amino acid storage is the


which of the following hormones is secreted by pancreatic b-cells


which glucose transporter is sensitive to insulin


what is the major control of insulin secretion

elevated blood glucose concentration

which of the following is accurate concerning glucagons actions at the liver

promotes glycogenolysis

a person whose insulin receptors are no longer receptive to insulin, is clinically obese, but whose blood glucose concentration can be controlled with diet is most likely

A type 2 diabetic

the primary mineralocorticoid is


which cortical hormone is secreted by the middle layer of the adrenal cortex



promotes an elevation in blood glucose concentrations

the condition whereby hypersecretion of cortisol results in excess glucose deposited as fat in the upper back and face is most likely

cushings syndrome

the adrenocortical insufficiency that results in hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hyperpigmentation is

addisons disease

the hormones of the adrenal gland whose secretion are controlled via the sympathetic branch of the autosomal nervous system are

epinephrine and norepinephrine

which of the following statements is true regarding the adrenergic response to stress

epinephrine promotes glycogen breakdown in skeletal muscle cells and dilation of vessels that feed them

the metabolic effects of catecholamines include

elevated blood glucose levels

the bodys state of intense readiness and mobilization of biochemical resources in response to stress is known as

the general adaptation syndrome

which portion of the calcium distribution in the body is biologically active and subject to regulation

unbound, free calcium

the most important hormone controlling calcium is

parathyroid hormone

fast calcium efflux into plasma (form small labile pool of dissolved calcium in bone) is characterized by

movement of calcium ions without PO43-

in addition to the actions of PTH on bone, PTH also targets the kidney to promote

reabsorption of calcium

which of the following statements is true regarding calcitonin

it is only important in conditions of extreme hypercalcemia


inhibits osteoblasts and stimulates osteoclast activity

which pre pubertal disorder arises if there is normal pTH function but deficiency of vitamin D