Final For Micro Comprehensive Of All Chapters

Front 1

Which of the following is an example of microbes that include acellular agents that cause diseases, such as measles and influenza?

a. Bacterial Pathogens, such as E. Coli

b. Parasitic Pathogens, such as nematodes

c. decomposers that break down wastes

d. viral pathogens that infect cells and destroy them.

Back 1

d. viral pathogens that infect cells and destroy them

Front 2

The names of the two domains of prokaryotes are______________and ______________.

Back 2

Archaea;bacteria

Front 3

The 2 types of optical microscopes that you would typically use in a microbiology lab are____________, and bright field.

Back 3

Dark field

Front 4

Bacteria reproduce by_________.

Back 4

binary fission

Front 5

____________________ contributed to the field of microbiology by using simple microscopes for viewing microscopes that he called "anamacules".

Back 5

Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek

Front 6

What is the primary reason for the Bubonic plague's expansion into early European populations?

Back 6

International trade and travel increased allowing foreigners to transmit infections.

Front 7

T or F:

An unknown bacterial species has just gone through the Gram Stain procedure. If all of the bacteria stained pink after the application of Safranin, one would conclude that the bacteria are Gram Positive

Back 7

False- they would be gram negative not positive.

Front 8

T or F:

Light having a longer wavelength, such as red light, will provide better resolution of bacteria than will light of a shorter wavelength, such as a blue light, when used as a light source for a compound optical microscope.

Back 8

False- Light have a shorter wavelength.

than will light of a longer wavelength.

Front 9

T or F: Flagella, cilia, and pseudopodia are used as extracellular structures by many bacteria that protect them from phagocytosis.

Back 9

False-

Flagella are used as extracellular motile structures by many bacteria. Cilia is not used by bacteria.

Front 10

T or F:

The theory of spontaneous generation states that living organisms ranging from unicellular microorganisms to multicellular animals can arise from pre-existing cells.

Back 10

False- arise from Non-living cells

Front 11

T or F: when light of a certain wavelength interacts with an object or organism in a medium, the resulting light emitted fluoresces in such a way as to produce light of a different wavelength that appears to glow.

Back 11

True

Front 12

T or F: Contrast is the ability to see parts of an image, such as two objects close together, as clear, discrete points using an optical system

Back 12

False- Resolution is the ability

Front 13

____________is the ability to distinguish between two objects.

Back 13

Resolution

Front 14

____________is when light waves bend around the edge of an object, such as the edge of a bacterial cell.

Back 14

Diffraction

Front 15

______________is the bending of light waves as they pass from one medium to another.

Back 15

Refraction

Front 16

____________________is the use of stains and dyes to distinguish cells from their background.

Back 16

Contrast

Front 17

________________________is the illumination of the background of a microscopic sample

Back 17

Bright field microscopy

Front 18

Briefly describe the similarities and differences between the experiments of Francesco Redi and those of Louis Pasteur.

Back 18

Francesco Redi's experiment which was only one jar had no oxygen(air). whereas Louis pasteur experiment allowed air to reach the broth

Similarities- Both stopped any microorganims from getting to them. Pasteurs experiment disproved spontaneous generation

Front 19

Give on example each for how the terms "stain" and "dye" should be used in the context of microscopic techniques used and described in this class.

Back 19

Gram Stain= 3

Dyes are used to color microorganims. Certain ones will show up as pink or purple depending on the microorganism

Front 20

What is meant when a pathogen, such as a bacterial strain, is said to be virulent? And: give an example of a virulence factor.

Back 20

Virulence Factors List: CapsulesFimbriaeOuter Membrane ProteinsTechoic AcidsProtein AM-Protein

Front 21

Microbiology Topic that has been in the news recently. You may use one that we have discussed in class or that you have heard about elsehwere. Please provide your reasoning for determining the topic to be of relevance to microbiology.

Back 21

Vaccines-

They are relevant to microbiology because microbiology is used to discover and create vaccines. Through microbiology we can discover what causes diseases, and also how we can fix t hem. Jenners small pox vaccine and Pasteurs rabies vaccines are just some examples of vaccines that were invented through microbiology.

Front 22

E.Coli is present in a liquid sample at a concentration of between 10^4 and 10^6 bacteria per mL. To determine the precise number of living bacteria in the sample, it would be best to__________________.

Back 22

Plate out an appropriate dilution of the sample on nutrient agar.

Front 23

Unlike a silent mutation a frameshift mutation can cause:

Back 23

1. early termination of translation

2. an altered polypeptide

3. a polypeptide with too many amino acids

4. a polypeptide with too few amino acids

Front 24

________________ aerobes only grown if oxygen is present.

Back 24

Obligate

Front 25

Sheep blood agar is best defined as_______________ and ______________.

Back 25

enriched and differential

Front 26

________________is the causative agent of numerous skin infections of the skin and other parts of the body and is a Gram+ bacterium, spherical-shaped in chains, and is beta hemolytic.

Back 26

Streptococcus Pyogenes

Front 27

When water pressure builds up inside of a cell due to solutes in the cell causing water to flow into the cell, this pressure is called _____________ ___________.

Back 27

Osmotic pressure

Front 28

If one knows the exact quantities of each ingredient in a bacterial growth medium, the medium would be classified as______________.

Back 28

Defined

Front 29

Bacteria growing only at the bottom of a thyoglycolate broth would be classified as_________________.

Back 29

obligate anaerobes

Front 30

Which of the following does not describe the DNA of cellular organisms?

a. double stranded helix

b. Contains A,C,T,G

c. is single stranded

d. contains hydrogen bonds

Back 30

is single stranded

Front 31

The central dogma of a molecular biology states that genetic information flows in what direction?

Back 31

from DNA to RNA to Protein

Front 32

In retroviruses ________polymerase uses a DNA template to make multiple copies of DNA that integrates into the ________________of host cells.

Back 32

RNA, Chromosomes

Front 33

Nutrient agar is an example of a ___________solid medium.

Back 33

Complex

Front 34

DNA replication occurs bi- directionally producing leading strands and lagging strands in a ________________________ manner that results in two daughter DNA molecules.

Back 34

semi- conservative

Front 35

__________ is part of transcription. This type of RNA serves as the re-written" message incoded in the DNA.

Back 35

mRNA

Front 36

What are the two types of codons that signal for the initiation and termination of translation?

Back 36

Stop Codon, Start Codon

Front 37

The first amino acid of translation is always which amino acid?

Back 37

Methionine(MET)

Front 38

What is the difference between an obligate anaerobe and a facultative anaerobe?

Back 38

1. an obligate anaerobe will die in the presence of oxygen.

2. A facultative can live with or without oxygen.

Front 39

Explain why mesophiles can be a significant problem in the medical industry, especially with regard to pathogenic bacteria.

Back 39

Because they thrive at a temperature of 15 to 45 degrees celsius. 37 degrees Celsius is body temp

Front 40

When lactose is present, the lac operon is always "on" so that lactose can be broken down. Describe a condition where this statement is not necessarily always true.

Back 40

if glucose is present

Front 41

Give the properly presented genus name and specific epithet for the gram positive obligately anaerobic, endospore forming bacterium responsible for gas gangrene. Given that this is also a rod-shaped bacterium, give the technical name for its cellular morphology.

Back 41

Clostridium Perfringens; bacillus

Front 42

What is the name given to the region of the tryp operon that weakens the ability of the RNA polymerase to transcribe the genes necessary for making tryptophan?

Back 42

Lac operon

Front 43

What kind of mutation does a UV light cause

Back 43

Thymine Dimer

Front 44

The Ames test is a way to detect the mutagenic properties of a chemical. If more bacteria mutate from his- to his+, what does this tell you about the mutagenic properties of the chemical?

Back 44

suggests the mutagen causes mutations

Front 45

Explain why frameshift mutations can be very detrimental to a cell.

Back 45

Because they produce a significant change in the reading of the message.

frameshifts cause a change in all of the amino acids in a genethe effects of frameshift can change almost the entire protein

Front 46

Which of the following is not a bacterial skin disease?

a. rubella

b. Acne

c. Scalded skin syndrome

d. Scarlet fever

e. folliculitis

Back 46

Rubella

Front 47

___________________ is the primary route of infection of chickenpox.

Back 47

respiratory system

Front 48

______________is a normal flora of the lower respiratory tract.

Back 48

There are no normal flora in the lower respiratory tract!

Front 49

Which of the following is not an example of a fungal skin infection?

a. Athlete's foot

b. Ringworm

c. scalded skin syndrome

d. candidiasis

Back 49

Scalded skin syndrome

Front 50

Which of the following a spirochete STD?

a. Gonorrhea

b. Meningitis

c. Chlamydia

d. Syphilis

e. HPV

Back 50

Syphilis

Front 51

Which of the following is an example of natural adaptive immunity?

a. getting chickenpox from another infected individual

b. receiving the chicken pox vaccine

c. receiving antibodies against chicken pox from someone else.

d. passage of antibodies from mother to fetus through the placenta

Back 51

passage of antibodies from mother to fetus through the placenta

Front 52

What are the modes of action by antibodies?

hint* there are 4

Back 52

Agglutination

Complement Activation

Precipitation

Neutrilization

Front 53

E. Coli causes UTI when it ___________________enters the urogenital system.

Back 53

oppurtunistically

Front 54

_____________is an example of a genus of a Gram negative coccus that occurs in pairs and causes neonatal eye infections when transferred from mother to newborn during childbirth

Back 54

Neisseria

Front 55

Inflammation is a from of natural___________immunity.

Back 55

Innate

Front 56

_________are not effective at neutralizing any types of viruses.

Back 56

Antibiotics

Front 57

____________are proteins produced by the immune system in response to microbial invaders and are part of______________immunity

Back 57

Antibodies; adaptive

Front 58

Penicillin is a __________spectrum antibiotic that kills by inhibiting _____________synthesis.

Back 58

Narrow; cell wall

Front 59

Complement is a type of_______________that disrupts the cell membranes of ________________.

Back 59

Protein system; bacteria

Front 60

What is the difference between bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic and why is it important to know which type to use against certain types of bacteria?

Back 60

1. Bacteriocidal kills all bacteria.

2. Bacteriostatic waits until the immune system is weakened and then it starts working. If you use bacteriocidal against Gram negative bacteria in an area where there might be a lot of Gram negative bacteria such as your blood it could be fatal

Front 61

_________________are antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by insertion of wrong amino acids

Back 61

Aminoglycosides

Front 62

____________________is a topical antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis

Back 62

Bacitracin

Front 63

________________is a class of beta-lactam antibiotics that targets bacterial cell walls.

Back 63

Cephalosporins

Front 64

_____________specifically inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria and prevents malaria.

Back 64

Doxycyline

Front 65

___________disrupt bacterial membranes without significant threat to host membranes.

Back 65

Polymycins

Front 66

_________________is a synthetic bacteriocidal inhibitor of bacterial DNA gyrase.

Back 66

Quinilones

Front 67

_____________is used for treating TB by blocking RNA transcription

Back 67

Rifampin

Front 68

_______________is a bacteriostatic antibiotic that inhibits protein sysnthesis; produced by soil fungi

Back 68

Streptomycin

Front 69

______________inhibits protein synthesis; adverse side effect causing discoloration of teeth.

Back 69

Tetracylcline

Front 70

___________________is the "drug of last resort; big guns"; inhibits cell wall synthesis; used against MRSA.

Back 70

Vancomycin

Front 71

Shingles:

1. Properly- presented scientific name of the causative agent.

2. signs and symptoms of the disease:

3. how it is transmitted

4. Prevention and treatment

5. type of pathogen:

Back 71

1. Varicella-Zoster

2. Rash on only a small area, such as your side or face. Shingles occurs after sleeping dormant in your body. It doesn't occur until your immune system is weakened this is why it generally occurs in the elderly

3. aerially

4. There is a shingles vaccine called Zostavax( it is only recommended for those who are 60 and older.)

5. Virus, Viral

Front 72

What are "wait- and- see" and "watch-and-wait" antibiotic prescriptions and why are they important in preventing or reducing antibiotic resistance? Also, list and describe one microbiology- related current news topic.

Back 72

Wait and see is where a doctor prescribes an antibiotic, but the patient can't get the prescription filled for 2 to 3 days. Watch and wait is basically the same thing. The patient needs to keep an eye on their infection to make sure its not worsening. This is important because people are overusing antibiotics which is making people resistant to the antibiotics.

Vaccines are being discussed frequently in the news. They are important in preventing the spread of diseases. A vaccine often gives a lower dose of the strain of the disease such as the chickenpox vaccine.

Front 73

Causes viral food poisoning, especially in infants and young children?

Back 73

Rotaviruses

Front 74

____________describes normal, quiet, unlabored breathing.

Back 74

Eupnoea

Front 75

Forms a pseudomembranous biofilm in the URT and is caused by a bacterium that has undergone lysogenic conversion?

Back 75

Corynebacterium diphtheria

Front 76

The majority of cases of nongonococcal meningitis in infants and children were caused by which of the following prior to a successful, effective vaccine against this organism.

Back 76

Hemophilus influenzae

Front 77

Most cases of parasitic lung infections that travel from the digestive to respiratory system are caused by what type of organism?

Back 77

Helminth

Front 78

Causative agent for influenza, such as H1N1?

Back 78

Rhinoviridae

Front 79

________________ is an endospore-forming bacterium often responsible for food poisoning by intoxication?

Back 79

Clostridium botulinum

Front 80

______________refers to severe diarrhea that often contains large quantities of mucus and sometimes blood.

Back 80

Dysentery

Front 81

Mycobacterium spp. are difficult to treat using antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis because these organisms _________________

Back 81

lack a cell wall

Front 82

___________________is a protein on the surface of influenza viruses that allows the virus to escape from the host cell it replicates in but is not the same as the H antigen of E. Coli O157:H7

Back 82

Neuraminidase

Front 83

Typhus and typhoid fever are ______ the same disease, but they are caused by the _____ species of rickettsias.

Back 83

NOT; same

Front 84

___________ is a GI disease of the small intestine, whereas ________________ is a respiratory disease of the _________

Back 84

Shigellosis;Salmonellosis; URT

Front 85

Whooping cough is a highly contagious infectious disease caused by the bacterium _______________________

Back 85

Bordetella Pertussis

Front 86

_______________ is the most common causative agent of TB.

Back 86

Tuberculosis

Front 87

Mayonnaise is often the cause of many food born illnesses.

Back 87

This is a myth

Front 88

List the normal microbial flora of the lower respiratory tract(LRT), and list two URT oppurtunistic pathogens.

Back 88

There is no normal microbial flora of the LRT.

2. Streptococcus Pneumonia, Haemophilus Influenza

Front 89

In certain respiratory infections in involving fungal organisms, secondary, chronically-inflamed lesions called gummas form in the skin, particulary on face. How does this fungal pathogen spread to the integumentary system?

Back 89

Through endospores

Front 90

When someone calls in sick to work stating that she cannot make it to work because she has food poisoning from something she ate the night before, what facts regarding food poisoning shed doubt as to the validity of this circumstance. Furthermore the person states that she may have contracted a flu virus, causing her condition and that she will be going to the doctor for a z-pack Rx, what are some inherent indications that this person is not well-informed about the nature of her illness?

Back 90

Antibiotics don't work on viral food posioning.

Food poisoning usually occurs in 24 to 48 hrs.

Front 91

Dental Plaque

a. properly-presented scientific name of the causative agent;

b. signs and symptoms of the disease; c. how it is transmitted; d. prevention and treatment; e. type of pathogen(bacterial, archaea, fungal, multicellular parasite, viral or prion.

Back 91

a. Streptococcus mutans

b. Biofilm over teeth

c. Brushing teeth, professionaly removed, fluoride

d. Bacterial

Front 92

What does H and N stand for in H1N1? B. What is a segmented viral genome? C. What is the difference between the pathology of avian flu versus what is often called "swine flu" caused by H1N1?

Back 92

The hemaglutinin has 18 different antigens and Neuraminidase has 11 different antigens. H stands for Hemaglutinin and N stands for Neuraminidase. It has eight segmented RNA genomes. Avian flu is more fatal in that it has killed about 60% of those infected since it surfaced in 1997. The avian flu (H5N1) has more hemaglutinin than the swine flu (H1N1) does.

Front 93

Which of the following is an example of microbes that include a cellular, agents that cause diseases such as Ebola and influenza?

Back 93

Viral pathogens that infect cell and destroy them

Front 94

Which of the following are the names of the two domains of prokaryotes?

Back 94

Archaea and bacteria

Front 95

Bacteria reproduce by which to the following processes?

Back 95

Binary fission

Front 96

Which of the following are two examples of optical microscope that would typically be used in a microbiology lab

Back 96

Dark field and bright field

Front 97

Which of the following people contributed to the field of microbiology by developing methods for isolating pure cultures of bacterial pathogens and correlating causative agents with specific diseases

Back 97

Antoine van Leeuwenhoek

Front 98

Besides the importance to human health why is it important to study microbiology?

Back 98

Microorganisms provide insight into life processes of all life forms

Front 99

Although interesting the botanist what are typically not studied in microbiology

Back 99

Plants

Front 100

A primary reason for bubonic plague expansion into early European populations is that European populations:

Back 100

But the other regions, taking with them the vectors that carried the diseases

Front 101

Which of the following are means of motility for some bacteria

Back 101

Flagella

Front 102

The theory of spontaneous generation states that:

Back 102

Life can arise from nonliving materials without any pre-existing life

Front 103

Louis Pasteur contributed to the field of microbiology by which of the following?

Back 103

Development of a rabies vaccine

Front 104

Contrast is :

Back 104

The use of dyes to stain cells so as to distinguish them from their background

Front 105

Which of the following is a spherical bacterial shape

Back 105

Cocci

Front 106

Which of the following is an arrangement of bacteria that means arranged in chains?

Back 106

Strepto

Front 107

The endosymbiotic theory explains:

Back 107

The origin of eukaryotes

Front 108

Which of the following is rod shaped bacteria

Back 108

Bacilli

Front 109

What is the correct sequence of steps starting with glycolysis

Back 109

Glycolysis formation of acetyl coenzyme A( transition), Krebs cycle, electron transport chain,

Front 110

Which event produces the most ATP

Back 110

Chemiosmosis coupled with electron transport

Front 111

What is anabolism

Back 111

Is the synthesis of large molecules from smaller ones using ATP as an energy source

Front 112

Which of the following is an example of an obligately anaerobic rod-shaped bacterial genus that produces endospores

Back 112

Clostridium

Front 113

Which of the following statement is not true concerning an enzyme?

Back 113

An enzyme is consumed in a chemical reaction

Front 114

Which of the following terms describes an enzyme without its constituent cofactors

Back 114

Apoenzyme

Front 115

Catabolism is the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules called

Back 115

Monomers

Front 116

Penicillin is most affected on active cell wall production in which of the following

Back 116

Gram-positive bacterial cells

Front 117

During binary fission the what divides

Back 117

Bacterial cell

Front 118

During binary fission the DNA must be copied during a process called

Back 118

Replication

Front 119

Which of the following divides by budding

Back 119

Yeast

Front 120

Of the following macromolecules, which two were originally thought to be complex enough to contain the genetic code

Back 120

Proteins and nucleic acids

Front 121

If a cell needs more of the amino acid aspartic acid, the mRNA for an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of aspartic acid would be produced by

Back 121

Transcription

Front 122

In order to obtain a viable count of a bacterial population one would need to do with which of the following

Back 122

Pour plates of various dilutions of the bacterial culture

Front 123

A bacterial cell must double its components before starting to divide. While gearing up for cell division, the bacterial cells in a culture medium demonstrate a period of time referred to as

Back 123

Lag phase

Front 124

Transcription and translation in prokaryotic cells take place where

Back 124

In the cytoplasm

Front 125

In certain microbial agents information in the South can flow from both DNA to RNA and from RNA to DNA flow of information from RNA to DNA is called

Back 125

Reverse transcription

Front 126

Endospore formation occurs in which two medically important genera

Back 126

Bacillus and Clostridium

Front 127

A chemically Complex medium, such as chocolate agar, contains a wide variety of nutrients for supporting the growth of a fastidious organisms. For this reason chocolate agar is classified as which type of medium

Back 127

Enriched

Front 128

Replication of DNA occurs by a process that is ? and that each daughter chromosomes contains a hybrid of the original template DNA and the newly synthesized in

Back 128

Semi conservative

Front 129

Which of the following is not a kingdom?

A. Monera

B. Protista

C.Animalia

D.fungi

E.archaea

Back 129

E. Archaea

Front 130

All of these are eukaryotes except?

A. Monera

B.protista

C. Animalia

D. Fungi

E.plantae

Back 130

Monera

Front 131

select the kingdoms and haeckles

Back 131

Plantae, Protista, animalia

Front 132

Whitakers five Kingdom system includes

Back 132

Aristotle's two kingdoms and haeckles Three Kingdoms

Front 133

All of the following are domains except

A. Bacteria

B.eukarya

C.archaea

D. Protista

Back 133

Protista

Front 134

Who is considered the father of taxonomy

Back 134

Linneaus

Front 135

Binomial nomenclature identifies each living organism based upon

Back 135

Genus and species

Front 136

Which of these properties distinguishes viruses from cells

Back 136

Viruses are much smaller than cells

Front 137

Which of these components is found in all complete viral particles

Back 137

Nucleic acid core, protein capsid, and lipid envelope

Front 138

Which of the following best describes the nucleic acid present in a virion particle

Back 138

Single stranded or double stranded DNA or RNA

Front 139

Which of the following is made of protein subunits and determines the shape of a virus

Back 139

Capsid

Front 140

How are envelopes commonly acquired by virus particles,

Back 140

Budding through the host cell membrane

Front 141

What are viral spikes

Back 141

Glycoprotein projections that help in viral attachment to host cells

Front 142

Which of the following characteristics would classify a virus is a non-living particle

Back 142

Viruses cannot perform metabolic functions on their own