Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
115 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Patient preparation for an esophagram includes:
a. NPO 4 - 6 hours before the procedure b. NPO 30 mins to 1 hour before the procedure c. NPO 4 - 6 hours and no smoking or gum chewing before the procedure d. None of the above since UGI series is not scheduled to follow |
D
|
|
|
What structure enables the kidneys to be visualized on plain abdominal radiographs?
a. Adipose capsule b. Renal pyramids c. Major & minor calyces d. High volume of blood in the kidneys |
A
|
|
|
What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?
a. Haustra b. Valvulae conniventes c. Suspensory ligaments d. Taenia coli |
D
|
|
|
The patient must be NPO a minimum of _____ hours before the small bowel series.
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 24 |
C
|
|
|
What is the older term for the hepatopancreatic sphincter?
a. Duodenal papilla b. Sphincter of Vater c. Duodenal sphincter d. Sphincter of Odde |
D
|
|
|
Which part of the large intestine has the widest diameter?
a. Descending colon b. Transverse colon c. Cecum d. Ascending colon |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy?
a. Time b. Distance c. Intensity d. Shielding |
B
|
|
|
Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barrium?
a. Ilium b. Jejunum c. Cecum d. Duodenum |
B
|
|
|
What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media?
a. Radiopaque b. Radiolucent c. Isodense d. Negative contrast media |
A
|
|
|
Which part of the small intestine has the largest diameter?
a. Cecum b. Duodenum c. Ileum d. Jejunum |
B
|
|
|
Which part of the small intestine makes up three fifths of its entirety?
a. Duodenum b. Ileum c. Ilium d. Jejunum |
B
|
|
|
Which part of the large intestine is located highest, or most superior, in the abdomen?
a. Transverse b. Ascending colon c. Left colic flexure d. Right colic flexure |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following structures is not considered part of the colon?
a. Transverse colon b. Right and Left colic flexures c. Rectum d. All of the above are part of the colon |
C
|
|
|
Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending
colon? a. Sigmoid colon b. Right colic flexure c. Cecum d. Left colic flexure |
A
|
|
|
Which part of the colon has the greatest amount of potential movement?
a. Transverse colon b. Ascending colon c. Sigmoid colon d. Descending colon |
A
|
|
|
The sigmoid and rectum are considered infraperitoneal structures.
a. True b. False |
B
|
|
|
Which part(s) of the colon will most likely be filled with air with the patient in the prone position?
a. Ascending, descending colons and rectum b. Rectum only c. Right & Left colic flexure & sigmoid d. Transverse and sigmoid colon |
A
|
|
|
Which part ofthe GI tract synthesizes and absorbs vitamins B and K?
a. Duodenum b. Large intestine c. Ileum d. Jejunum |
B
|
|
|
Any inflammation of the intestine is called?
a. Ileus b. Enteritis c. Adynamic or paralytic ileus d. Gastritis |
B
|
|
|
Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease of the GI tract?
a. Malabsorption syndrome b. Giardiasis c. Regional enteritis (Crohn's disease) d. Cholera |
C
|
|
|
Obstruction of the small intestine is calledd?
a. Ileus b. Neoplasm c. Enteritis d. Ileum |
A
|
|
|
The circular staircase, or herringbone pattern, is a common radiographic sign for a mechanical ileus.
a. True b. False |
A
|
|
|
Meckel's diverticulum is best diagnosed with a nuclear imaging scan.
a. True b. False |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions may produce the "cobblestone" or "string" sign?
a. Giardiasis b. Regional enteritis c. Ileus d. Whipple's disease |
B
|
|
|
When is a small bowel series deemed to be complete?
a. Once the contrast media passes the duodenojejunal flexure b. Once the contrast media reaches the rectum c. Two hours after the ingestion of barium d. Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve |
D
|
|
|
The term describing a double-contrast small bowel procedure is:
a. Diagnostic intubation b. Enteroclysis c. Two-stage small bowel procedure d. None of the above |
B
|
|
|
The enteroclysis procedure is indicated for patients with regional enteritis.
a. True b. False |
A
|
|
|
For an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is one 16-oz cup for a small bowel only series.
a. True b. False |
A
|
|
|
The tip of the catheter is advanced to the __ during an enteroclysis.
a. Ileocecal sphincter b. Duodenojejunal flexure c. C-loop of the duodenum d. Pyloric sphincter |
B
|
|
|
A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed:
a. Intussusception b. Enteritis c. Diverticulum d. Volvulus |
D
|
|
|
A telescoping or invagination of one part of the intestine into another is termed:
a. Diverticulosis b. Volvulus c. colitis d. Intussusception |
D
|
|
|
The "stove pipe" radiographic sign is often seen with:
a. Neoplasm b. Volvulus c. Long-term ulcerative colitis d. Intussusception |
C
|
|
|
The "tapered" or "corkscrew" radiographic sign is often seen with:
a. Intussusception b. Volvulus c. Neoplasm d. Diverticulosis |
B
|
|
|
Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with carcinoma of the colon?
a. "Sail" sign b. Thickened mucosa c. "Napkin ring" or "apple core" sign d. Diverticula |
C
|
|
|
At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?
a. During shallow breaths b. Suspended expiration c. Suspended inspiration d. During deep breaths |
B
|
|
|
In what position is the patient placed for the enema tip insertion?
a. Prone b. Modified lithotomy c. Lithotomy d. Sims' |
D
|
|
|
During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:
a. Toward the coccyx b. Directly posterior c. Directly superior d. Toward the umbilicus |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following pathologic conditions is best demonstrated with evacuative proctography?
a. Intussusception b. Diverticulosis c. Volvulus d. Rectal prolapse |
D
|
|
|
Which part of the large intestine must be demonstrated during evacuative proctography?
a. Haustra b. Rectal ligamen c. Anorectal angle d. Sigmoid colon |
C
|
|
|
The ideal kVp range for a double-contrast barium enema is:
a. 100 to 125 kVp b. 130 to 140 kVp c. 70 to 80 kVp d. 90 to 100 kVp |
D
|
|
|
Evacuative proctography is most commonly performed on geriatric patients.
a. True b. False |
B
|
|
|
The opening leading into the intestine for the patient with a colostomy is termed the
"stoma." a. True b. False |
A
|
|
|
The height of the enema bag should not exceed 36 in (91 cm) above the radiographic table.
a. True b. False |
B
|
|
|
CR and image receptor centering for a 1-hour small bowel radiograph should be:
a. 2 in above level of crest b. At level of ASIS c. 1 in below level of crest d. At level of iliac crest |
D
|
|
|
Which projection/position is most commonly performed during an evacuative
proctogram? a. AP Axial b. Lateral c. RPO and LPO d. AP erect |
B
|
|
|
Why is the PA rather than the AP recommended for a small bowel series?
a. Places small intestine closer to film b. Better separation of loops of small intestine c. Less gonadal dose for female patients d. More comfortable for patient |
B
|
|
|
Which of the following positions best demonstrates the left colic flexure?
a. Left lateral b. LPO c. LAO d. Left lateral decubitus |
C
|
|
|
During a double-contrast BE procedure the radiologist suspects a polyp in the descending colon. Which position would best demonstrate this?
a. Left lateral decubitus b. Right lateral decubitus c. 45o erect PA projection d. Supine for AP projection |
B
|
|
|
A radiograph of an AP barium enema projection reveals poor visualization of the sigmoid due to excessive superimposition of the sigmoid colon and rectum. How can this area be better visualized on the repeat exposure?
a. Angle the CR 30o to 40o cephalad with AP projection b. Increase kVp c. Take PA projection with a 30o to 40o cephalad CR angle d. Take PA projection with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position |
A
|
|
|
A patient comes to radiology for a barium enema. He has a possible fistula extending from the rectum to the urinary bladder. Which of the following projections/positions would best demonstrate the fistula?
a. AP erect b. Lateral rectum c. LPO and RPO d. LPO axial projection |
B
|
|
|
During a single-contrast barium enema, the radiologist detects a possible defect within the right colic flexure. Which of the following projections/positions will best
demonstrate this region of the colon? a. AP Axial b. LAO c. LPO d. RPO |
C
|
|
|
A patient comes to radiology with a history of rectocele. Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate this condition?
a. Evacuative protogram b. Single-contrast barium enema c. Enteroclysis d. Double-contrast barium enema |
A
|
|
|
An infant is brought to the ER with a possible intussusception. Which of the following procedures may actually correct this condition?
a. Defecography b. Barium or air enema c. Small bowel series d. Small bowel enema |
B
|
|
|
Which of the following barium enema projections/positions provides the greatest amount of gonadal dose to both male and female patients?
a. AP/PA b. AP axial c. Left lateral decubitus d. Lateral rectum |
D
|
|
|
How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection?
a. 20o to 25o b. 45o c. 10o to 15o d. 30o to 40o |
D
|
|
|
While attempting to insert an enema tip into the rectum, the technologist experiences resistance. What should be the next step taken by the technologist?
a. Re-try the insertion using more lubrication b. Have the radiologist insert it using fluoroscopic guidance c. Cancel the procedure d. Ask the patient to try to insert it himself |
B
|
|
|
Why is it important for the technologist to review the patient's chart and inform the
radiologist before beginning the BE exam if a biopsy was performed as part of a prior sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy procedure? a. The radiologist would want to confer with the referring physician to see whether the biopsy revealed a malignancy. b. The biopsy of the colon may weaken that portion of the colon, which could lead to a perforation during the BE exam. c. A sigmoidoscopy or colonoscope would make the barium enema exam unnecessary. d. None of the above; the radiologist does not need to know this information prior to the BE exam. |
B
|
|
|
The liver is located primarily in the _____ of the abdomen.
a. LLQ b. LUQ c. RLQ d. RUQ |
D
|
|
|
The liver is divided into _____ major and minor lobes.
a. two b. four c. three d. six |
B
|
|
|
Which aspect of the gallbladder is located most posterior within the abdomen?
a. neck b. fundus c. apex d. body |
A
|
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the membranous folds located within the cystic duct?
a. prevents distention or collapse of the cystic duct b. produces cholecystokinin c. prevents gallstones from entering the gallbladder d. provides blood supply to the gallbladder |
A
|
|
|
What is an older term for the pancreatic duct?
a. Duct of Wirsung b. Duct of Langerhans c. Hepatopancreatic duct d. Ampulla of Vater |
A
|
|
|
Radiographic examination of the biliary ducts only is termed:
a. cholelithiasis b. cholangiography c. cholecystography d. cholecystocholangiography |
B
|
|
|
The act of swallowing is termed:
a. deglutition b. digestion c. aphasia d. mastication |
A
|
|
|
The esophagus is located _____ to the larynx.
a. proximal b. anterior c. posterior d. inferior |
C
|
|
|
Which structures create a normal indentation seen along the lateral border of the esophagus?
a. aortic arch & pulmonary veins b. aortic arch & left primary bronchus c. aortic arch & pulmonary artery d. aortic arch & superior vena cava |
B
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a main subdivision of the stomach?
a. body b. cardium c. fundus d. pylorus |
B
|
|
|
Which term describers the outer, lateral border of the stomach?
a. incisura angularis b. lesser curvature c. gastric border d. greater curvature |
D
|
|
|
What is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach?
a. gastric canal b. valvulae conniventes c. haustra d. rugae |
D
|
|
|
Toward which aspect(s) of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in a prone position?
a. cardiac b. body & pylorus c. fundus d. fundus & body |
B
|
|
|
Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum?
a. cardiac b. pylorus c. body d. fundus |
B
|
|
|
Which specific part of the pancreas is adjacent to the C-loop of the duodenum?
a. tail b. body c. neck d. head |
D
|
|
|
Which division of the duodenum contains the duodenal bulb or cap?
a. second (descending) b. third (horizontal) c. first (superior) d. fourth (ascending) |
C
|
|
|
Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:
a. lipids b. chyme c. bile d. biologic catalysts |
B
|
|
|
A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) _____ patient.
a. hyposthenic b. sthenic c. asthenic d. hypersthenic |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true about barium sulfate?
a. it should be discarded if not used within an hour after mixing b. it is soluble in water c. it rarely produces an allergic reaction d. the patient may become ill if it is not prepared with sterile water |
C
|
|
|
Which of the following clinical indications would mandate the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast agent?
a. patient with a possible perforated bowel b. patient with esophageal reflux c. patient with esophageal reflux d. patient with a possible peptic ulcer |
A
|
|
|
Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least _____mm lead equialency.
a. 0.5 b. 0.25 c. 1 d. 0.75 |
A
|
|
|
Gastritis is defined as inflammation of the:
a. large intestine b. small intestine c. pancreas d. stomach |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions is an example of GERD?
a. esophageal varices b. esophageal reflux c. bezoar d. gastric carcinoma |
B
|
|
|
What is a potential risk associated with the use of water-soluble contrast agents, especially for geriatric patients?
a. bowel obstruction b. cardiac arrest c. shock d. dehydration |
D
|
|
|
Most esophagrams begin with the patient:
a. recumbent-prone b. in a left lateral decubitus position c. erect d. recumbent-supine |
C
|
|
|
Why would a patient undergo Valsalva maneuver during an esophagram?
a. to demonstrate possible esophagitis b. to demonstrate possible esophageal varices c. to demonstrate possible esophageal reflux d. to demonstrate a possible bezoar |
C
|
|
|
Centering of the CR for an esophagram should be to the vertebral level of:
a. T5 or T6 b. the sternal angle c. T3 or T4 d. T7 |
A
|
|
|
How much obliquity is required for the RAO position for the esophagus?
a. 10-15 degrees b. 45-60 degrees c. 35-40 degrees d. 20-30 degrees |
C
|
|
|
The RAO position of the esophagus is preferred over the LAO because it:
a. is easier for the patient to hold the cup of barium in his left hand b. reduces thyroid exposure to the patient c. increases the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart d. is a more comfortable position for the patient |
C
|
|
|
What type of breathing instructions should be given to the patient during an esophagram using a thin barium mixture?
a. shallow breathing and continued swallowing during exposure b. suspended inspiration after the last swallow c. make exposure immediately after last bolus is swallowed (patient will not be breathing immediately after swallow) d. suspended respiration while continuing to swallow |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following esophagram projections and/or positions will project the majority of the esophagus over the spine?
a. AP b. Left lateral c. RAO d. LAO |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following upper GI projections and/or positions will best fill the body and pylorus with barium?
a. LPO b. PA c. AP d. Right lateral |
B
|
|
|
At what level should the CR and image receptor be centered for the RAO or PA upper GI projection and/or position on a sthenic-body type of patient?
a. lower costal margin b. L3-4 c. L2 d. iliac crest |
C
|
|
|
SITUATION: A patient comes to the radiology department with possible diverticulosis . Which of the following studies is most diagnostic for detecting this condition?
a. Single-contrast barium enema b. Double-contrast barium enema c. Evacuative proctogram d. Small bowel series |
B
|
|
|
SITUATION: A patient comes to radiology for a double-contrast barium enema. The patient cannot lie on her side during the study. Which of the following projections could replace the lateral rectum projection?
a. AP axial b. LPO axial projection c. ventral decubitus d. dorsal decubitus |
C
|
|
|
SITUATION: During a single-contrast barium enema, the radiologist detects a possible defect within the right colic flexure. Which of the following projections/positions best demonstrates this region of the colon?
a. RPO b. LAO c. AP axial d. LPO |
D
|
|
|
How much rotation of the body is required for the LAO position during a barium enema?
a. 10-15 degrees b. 20-25 degrees c. 35-45 degrees d. 0 degrees |
C
|
|
|
The RAO position best demonstrates the _____ colic flexure with the CR and image receptor centered to the level of _____.
a. Right; iliac crest b. Left; iliac crest c. right; 1-2 inches above the iliac crest d. left; 1-2 inches above the iliac crest |
A
|
|
|
The LAO position best demonstrates the _____ colic flexure with the CR and image receptor centered to the level of _____.
a. Right; iliac crest b. Left; iliac crest c. right; 1-2 inches above the iliac crest d. left; 1-2 inches above the iliac crest |
D
|
|
|
Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the rectum?
a. Level of the iliac crest at the midsagittal plane b. Level of the ASIS at the midcoronal plane c. Level of the ASIS at the the midsagittal d. Level of the iliac crest at the midcoronal place |
B
|
|
|
What does the Chassard-Lapine demonstrate?
a. Rectum, retro sigmoid junction, sigmoid b. Cecum c. Ileocecal valve d. Transverse colon |
A
|
|
|
The CR and image receptor should be centered about _____ higher for the 15 or 30 minute small bowel image than for the later images.
a. 2 inches b. 4 inches c. 6 inches d. none of the above |
A
|
|
|
What is another term for the AP axial projection?
a. Sim's position b. Butterfly position c. Chassard-Lapine d. Smith position |
B
|
|
|
During a small bowel series when is the 2nd cup of barium administered?
a. 15 minutes after the first b. 30 minutes after the first c. Together with the first d. A second cup is not needed |
C
|
|
|
If continuing the examination beyond the 2 hour time frame becomes necessary, at what time interval are radiographs taken?
a. 30 minutes b. 1 hour c. 2 hours d. 3 hours |
B
(30 minutes for the first 2 hours) |
|
|
What type of contrast medium should be administered for a patient with possible volvulus?
a. Barium & air b. Carbon dioxide c. barium sulfate d. iodinated water-soluble |
D
|
|
|
How long does it usually take the barium to reach the large bowel in the healthy adult?
a. 1 b. 2-3 c. 4 d. 6 |
B
|
|
|
Which part(s) of the colon will most likely be filled with air with the patient in the prone position?
a. Ascending colon, descending colon, & rectum b. Transverse & sigmoid colon c. Rectum only d. Right & left colic flexure & sigmoid colon |
A
|
|
|
Normal BUN levels in adults should not exceed:
a. 1.5 b. 5 c. 10 d. 25 |
D
|
|
|
The number of x-ray photons that strike the digital detector can be classified as:
a. noise b. kV c. signal d. density |
C
|
|
|
What is the final step taken before making the exposure during a positioning routine?
a. Image receptor centering b. Placing anatomic markers on cassette c. Ensuring correct gonadal shield placement d. Collimation adjustments |
C
|
|
|
The normal creatinine level for an adult is:
a. 0.1 to 0.5 b. 0.6 to 1.5 c. 3 to 4.5 d. 6 to 7.5 |
B
|
|
|
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a history of gastric ulcer. Which of the following procedures would be most diagnostic of this lesion?
a. Double-contrast UG series b. Single-contrast UG series c. Oral, water-soluble UG series d. Carbon dioxide UG series |
A
|
|
|
Urine will travel from the major calyces to the:
a. renal pelvis b. ureter c. minor calyces d. renal pyramids |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following functions are performed by the gallbladder?
a. Storage of bile b. Concentration of bile c. Contraction and release of bile d. All of the above |
D
|
|
|
Situation: A radiograph taken during an upper GI series demonstrates poor visibility of the gastric mucosa. The following factors were used: 80 kV, 30 mAs, 1/40-second exposure with high speed receptors. Barium sulfate was used during the procedure. Which of the following factors needs to be modified during the repeat exposure:
a. Use of detail-speed screens b. Shortened exposure time c. Use of a water-soluble contrast d. Increased kV |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following procedures is considered a functional study?
a. Barium enema b. Enteroclysis c. Air-contrast barium enema d. Small bowel series |
D
|
|
|
What type of solution is formed when barium is mixed with water?
a. Water-soluble solution b. Isotonic solution c. Hypotonic solution d. Colloidal suspension |
D
|
