Embryology Exam 2 (Rada)

Front 1

The ______ induces the formation of the nervous system in the back of the embryo

Back 1

Notocord

Front 2

______ ______ will become the nervous system

Back 2

Neural plate

Front 3

The ______ part of the neural plate becomes the brain and brainstem

Back 3

Rostral

Front 4

The ______ ______ are the earliest forming structures of the nervous system and are bulges in the neural plate

Back 4

Primary vesicles

Front 5

Different parts of the vesicle will become different regions of the ______

Back 5

CNS

Front 6

The ______ is also called the rhombencephalon

Back 6

Hindbrain

Front 7

The midbrain is also called the ______

Back 7

Mesencephalon

Front 8

The forebrain is also called the ______

Back 8

Prosencephalon

Front 9

______ and ______ come from the hindbrain

Back 9

Medulla, pons

Front 10

______ and ______ are the midbrain regions but are not well defined

Back 10

Tectum, tegmentum

Front 11

Forebrain becomes the ______ and the ______

Back 11

Diencephalon, telencephalon

Front 12

The ______ ______ separates the medial and lateral area

Back 12

Sulcus limitans

Front 13

The ______ area is generally known as the tegmentum

Back 13

Medial

Front 14

The ______ ______ is a fold of tissue that hangs off the bottom of the inferior colliculus and will eventually become the ______

Back 14

Rhombic lip, cerebellum

Front 15

We have 3 primary vesicles, name them.

Back 15

Forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

Front 16

We have 5 secondary vesicles, name them.

Back 16

Telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon

Front 17

______ becomes cerebral hemisphere

Back 17

Telencephalon

Front 18

Diencehpalon becomes the ______ and ______

Back 18

Thalamus, hypothalamus

Front 19

Midbrain becomes the ______ (trick!)

Back 19

Midbrain

Front 20

______ becomes the pons and cerebellum

Back 20

Metencephalon

Front 21

Myelencephalon becomes the ______

Back 21

Medulla

Front 22

In the brain, the ______ are the spaces in the brain

Back 22

Ventricles

Front 23

The lateral ventricles are in the ______

Back 23

Telencephalon

Front 24

The 3rd ventricle is in the ______

Back 24

Diencephalon

Front 25

The cerebral aqueduct is in the ______

Back 25

Midbrain

Front 26

The metencephalon contains the ______ part of the 4th ventricle

Back 26

Upper

Front 27

The ______ contains the lower part of the 4th ventricle

Back 27

Myelencephalon

Front 28

The embryo folds forward at two primary flexures, the ______ flexure and the ______ flexure

Back 28

Cervical, midbrain

Front 29

The embryo, after flexure, bends back on itself at the ______ flexure which is a secondary flexure

Back 29

Pontine

Front 30

The pontine flexure causes the opening of the ______ ______

Back 30

4th ventricle

Front 31

The ______ is under the pia and lines the ventricles

Back 31

ependyma

Front 32

Wherever pia and ependyma actually meet, you get ______ ______

Back 32

choroid plexus

Front 33

The pia and the ependyma meet in the ______ ventricles, roof of ______ ventricle, and in the ______ ventricle

Back 33

lateral, 3rd, 4th

Front 34

The choroid plexus produces ______

Back 34

CSF

Front 35

The ______ foramen connects the lateral ventricles

Back 35

Interventricular

Front 36

The ______ ______ connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles

Back 36

Cerebral aqueduct

Front 37

CSF flows from lateral ventricles, to ______ ventricles, to ______ ventricles

Back 37

3rd, 4th

Front 38

The cerebral ______ is a common place where CSF can get stopped up

Back 38

Aqueduct

Front 39

CSF goes into the ______ ______ in the bottom (or laterally) of the 4th ventricle

Back 39

Subarachnoid space

Front 40

CSF returns to venous circulation at the ______ of the head

Back 40

Top

Front 41

Drains into arachnoid ______

Back 41

Granulations

Front 42

If you choke off the flow of CSF, you can get ______

Back 42

Hydrocephalus

Front 43

In hydrocephalus, the brain becomes expanded because of increased ______ pressure that cannot release

Back 43

CSF

Front 44

Makes the cortex ______ due to all the pressure

Back 44

Thinner

Front 45

Hydrocephalus usually ______ ______ happen in isolation (does/does not)

Back 45

Does not

Front 46

A common cause of hydrocephalus is ______ where the cilia in the ventricular system to do not beat correctly

Back 46

Genetics

Front 47

Malabsorbtion of CSF is a ______ hydrocephalus

Back 47

Nonobstructive

Front 48

As the spinal cord opens up towards the brain, the ______ plate goes from dorsal to lateral

Back 48

Alar

Front 49

Sensory functions remain in the Alar plate, which is more ______ (position wise)

Back 49

Lateral

Front 50

The motor portions of the cranial nerves lie more ______ to the sulcus limitans (position wise)

Back 50

Medial

Front 51

In the Medulla, motor nuclei for ______ , ______ , ______ and ______ are in the ______ plate

Back 51

9, 10, 11, and 12, basal

Front 52

In the Medulla, the sensory nuclei, ______ , ______ , ______ , are in the ______ plate

Back 52

5, 9, 10, alar

Front 53

In the Medulla, (motor/sensory) ______ are 9 through 12, and (motor/sensory)______ are 5, 9, and 10

Back 53

Motor, sensory

Front 54

Alar and basal plates become the ______ of the 4th ventricle

Back 54

Floor

Front 55

Spinal trigeminal nucleus is important for ______ to the head

Back 55

Pain

Front 56

The major sensory nerve of the head is the ______

Back 56

Trigeminal

Front 57

CN ______ , ______ , and ______ have a minor function in head sensation around the ear

Back 57

7, 9, and 10

Front 58

______ is the Pons, cerebellum, and part of the 4th ventricle

Back 58

Metencephalon

Front 59

______ ______ becomes the cerebellum

Back 59

Rhombic lip

Front 60

The Cerebellum comes from ______ plate

Back 60

Alar

Front 61

CN 5, 6, and 7 come from the ______ plate of the ______

Back 61

Basal, pons

Front 62

______ ______ nuclei and the ______ ______ come from the rhombic lip, which came from the ______ plate of the metencephalon

Back 62

Basalar pontine, inferior olive, alar

Front 63

In ______ -______ ______ deformity, the cerebellum pushes through the foramen magnum due to ______ on the brainstem

Back 63

Arnold-Chiari II, pressure

Front 64

Children seem ______ , then fail to grow properly

Back 64

Normal

Front 65

In a ______ , the subarachnoid space is dilated, creating a bulge

Back 65

Meningeocele

Front 66

In a ______ , there is brain tissue that pushes into a defect

Back 66

Meningeoencephalocele

Front 67

In a ______ , the ventricular system pushes into the defect

Back 67

Meningohydroencephalocele

Front 68

The motor components of the midbrain basal plate are CN ______ and ______

Back 68

3, 4

Front 69

______ ______ cells migrate into the alar plate in the midbrain to create a sensory portion of CN 5

Back 69

Neural crest

Front 70

The strange thing is that they are actually ______ cells, thus the mesencephalic nucleus

Back 70

Pseudounipolar

Front 71

They contain sensory information for the muscles of ______

Back 71

mastication

Front 72

The ______ plate in the midbrain will create the tectum

Back 72

Alar

Front 73

Two motor nuclei of the midbrain are CN ______ and ______

Back 73

3, 4

Front 74

CN 3 is rostral with the ______ colliculus while 4 is caudal with the ______ colliculus

Back 74

supeior, inferior

Front 75

In the diencephalon, the ______ develops into the pineal gland

Back 75

Epithalamus

Front 76

In the diencephalon, the alar plate turns into the ______

Back 76

Thalamus

Front 77

In the diencephalon, the basal plate becomes the ______

Back 77

Hypothalamus

Front 78

The ______ will direct all autonomic functions (oh no… terrible Neuro flashback)

Back 78

Hypothalamus

Front 79

In the diencehpalon, the ______ sulcus is similar in nature to the sulcus limitans in the way it divides sensory and motor areas

Back 79

Hypothalamic

Front 80

The eye and the retina develop from and outgrowth of the ______

Back 80

Diencephalon

Front 81

The lens ______ , on the ectoderm outside, induces the optic ______ to form

Back 81

Placode, vesicle

Front 82

The optic vesicle will fold in to form the optic ______

Back 82

Cup

Front 83

In a ______ retina, the pigmented and neural retina are separated

Back 83

Detached

Front 84

______ pouch grows up and the neurohypophysial bud grows down and they meet to form the ______ gland

Back 84

Rathke’s, pituitary

Front 85

The anterior pituitary is the ______ which came from ______

Back 85

Adenohypophysis, ectoderm

Front 86

In the adult, the back of the pituitary is an extension from the back of the ______

Back 86

Hypothalamus

Front 87

All pituitary hormones come from ______ pituitary, but 2 will empty in the posterior pituitary that came form somewhere else

Back 87

Anterior

Front 88

These two hormones are ______ (ADH) and ______

Back 88

Vasopressin, oxytocin

Front 89

The ______ ______ is where axons go from one side of the brain to the other

Back 89

Lamina terminalis

Front 90

Patients without a corpus callosum have ______ identifiable defects (No or many?)

Back 90

No (except from direct testing)

Front 91

Cortex starts out smooth which is called ______

Back 91

Lossencephalic

Front 92

Sulci and gyri vary ______ and develop with time (Greatly or minimally?)

Back 92

Greatly

Front 93

______ hemorrhage is bleeding in the brain and is usually a complication of premature birth that effects ______ infants each year

Back 93

Intracerebral, 10,000

Front 94

At ______ -______ weeks, the corpus striatum is immature and susceptible to hemorrhage

Back 94

24-32

Front 95

The ______ ______ grows out of the forebrain and projects into the diencephalon

Back 95

Olfactory nerve

Front 96

______ is an underdeveloped brain

Back 96

Microcephali

Front 97

The critical period of cortex development is ______ -______ weeks

Back 97

16-Aug

Front 98

______ is a failure of the telencephalon to form two sides and can cause ______ , where there is one midline eye

Back 98

Holoprosencephaly, cyclopia

Front 99

______ is where there is vast ventricular occupation of the cranium with no discernible telencephalon

Back 99

Hydrencephaly

Front 100

The skull is part of the ______ skeleton

Back 100

Axial

Front 101

There are two parts of the skull, the ______ and then ______

Back 101

Neurocranium, viscerocranium

Front 102

The neurocranium surrounds the ______

Back 102

Brain

Front 103

The Viscerocranium is the bones of the ______ and ______ cavities

Back 103

Face, nasal

Front 104

You do not need cartilage to form bone, it can be formed from ______

Back 104

Periostium

Front 105

Connective tissue of the head comes from 7 ______ and 4 ______ somites

Back 105

Somitomeres, occipital

Front 106

The ______ comes from rostral paraxial mesoderm, cephalic somitomeres

Back 106

Neurocranium

Front 107

Part of it also comes from ______ occipital somites (#)

Back 107

4

Front 108

Cartilaginous neurocranium forms the ______ of the skull while the membranous portion forms the bones of the ______

Back 108

Base, calvaria

Front 109

Membranous portion of ______ forms frontal bone, parietal bone, and squamous portions of the occipital bone

Back 109

Neurocranium

Front 110

Name the 7 types of cartilage that form the base of the skull

Back 110

Parachordal, hypophyseal, trabeculae cranii, ala orbitalis, ala temporalis, otic capsules

Front 111

The cartilaginous neurocranium is located in ______ of the nervous system (front or back?)

Back 111

Front

Front 112

______ ossification forms most of neurocranium

Back 112

Intramembranous

Front 113

Viscerocranium form from ______ ______ cells

Back 113

Neural crest

Front 114

Also called ______ ______

Back 114

Brachiomeric mesenchyme

Front 115

The branchial arches are derived from ______ ______

Back 115

Gill slits

Front 116

The first branchial arch has two prominences, a ______ and ______

Back 116

Maxillary, mandibular

Front 117

The maxillary prominence of the 1st branchial arch give rise to the maxilla, ______ bone, and ______ portion of the temporal lobe

Back 117

Zygomatic, squamous

Front 118

The mandibular prominence of the 1st branchial arch gives rise to the ______

Back 118

Mandible

Front 119

There are minor cartilaginous portions associated with each branchial arch which all calcify by ______ ossification

Back 119

Intrachondral

Front 120

First branchial arch forms ______ and ______

Back 120

Malleus, incus

Front 121

Second branchial arch gives rise to the ______ , the ______ process, the ______ horn of the hyoid and the ______ portion of the hyoid bone

Back 121

Stapes, styloid, lesser, upper

Front 122

The third branchial arch gives rise to the ______ horn of the hyoid and the ______ portion of the hyoid

Back 122

Greater, inferior

Front 123

The 4th and 6th give rise to ______ cartilage and ______ cartilage

Back 123

Thyroid, cricoid

Front 124

The ______ is where the membrane has developed but not yet ossified

Back 124

Bregma

Front 125

Sutures are fibrous joints that allow the baby to do what?

Back 125

Fit through the birth canal

Front 126

If you have premature closure of the fontanelles you can get ______ where the baby doesn’t fit

Back 126

Craniosynostosis

Front 127

______ is the junction of many sutures

Back 127

Fontanelle

Front 128

Ocular extrinsic muscles come from somitomeres ______ , ______ , ______ , and ______

Back 128

1, 2, 3, 5

Front 129

Brachiomeric muscles come from somitomeres ______ , ______ , and ______ as well as occipital somites ______ and ______

Back 129

4, 6, 7, 1, 2

Front 130

Tongue muscles come from occipital somites ______ , ______ and 4______

Back 130

2, 3, 4

Front 131

Wherever a ______ migrates it takes its nerve with it

Back 131

Myotome

Front 132

Head musculature is derived from the ______ mesoderm, the myotome portion

Back 132

Paraxial

Front 133

______ muscles take CN 3, 4, and 6

Back 133

Ocular

Front 134

______ muscles take CN 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11

Back 134

Brachiomeric

Front 135

______ muscles take CN 12

Back 135

Tongue

Front 136

Remember the rule for eye muscles! (LR6, SO4, all others are CN ______ )

Back 136

3

Front 137

Somitomere 1 and 2 are associated with the ______ midbrain and take CN 3

Back 137

Rostral

Front 138

Somitomere 3 is associated with the caudal midbrain and takes CN ______

Back 138

4

Front 139

Somitomere 5 is associated with the rostral pons and takes CN ______

Back 139

6

Front 140

Muscles of 1st branchial arch are muscles of ______ and are derived from somitomere ______

Back 140

Mastication, 4

Front 141

The nerve of the 1st branchial arch is CN ______

Back 141

5

Front 142

The muscles of the 2nd branchial arch for the muscles of ______ ______ , derived from somitomere ______ , and take with it CN ______

Back 142

Facial expression, 6, 7

Front 143

The 3rd branchial arch is from somitomere ______ gets CN 9 and the only muscle it innervates is the ______

Back 143

7, stylopharyngeus

Front 144

The 4th branchial arch is innervated by ______ branch of CN 10 and comes from occipital somites ______ and ______

Back 144

Pharyngeal, 1, 2

Front 145

The 6th branchial arch is innervated by the ______ branch of CN 10 and comes from ______ somites

Back 145

Recurrent, occipital

Front 146

The ______ and ______ are exceptions, innervated by spinal accessory part of CN ______

Back 146

Sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, 11

Front 147

Tongue muscles come from ______ somites 2, 3, and 4, are innervated by ______ nerve (CN 12) and innervate all tongue muscles except ______

Back 147

Occipital, hypoglossal, palatoglossus

Front 148

The branchial apparatus has paired ridges called branchial ______

Back 148

Arches

Front 149

The arches will form as the embryo is folding and as the ______ portion folds ventrally

Back 149

Cranial

Front 150

Branchial arches are retained in fish as ______

Back 150

Gills

Front 151

The ______ ______ cells are what primarily give rise to the head parts

Back 151

Neural crest

Front 152

There are ______ branchial arches that form but arch 5 disappears

Back 152

6

Front 153

Arches ______ , ______ , and ______ , are typically the only ones that are visible

Back 153

1, 2, 3

Front 154

The ______ , which is lined with endoderm, will out-pouch and give rise to diverticulum that will form to oppose the branchial ______ between the arches

Back 154

Pharynx, grooves

Front 155

Internally, there is a branchial ______

Back 155

Pouch

Front 156

The branchial apparatus consists of what 4 structures?

Back 156

Arches, grooves, pouches, and membrane

Front 157

The 1st arch gives rise to the upper and lower jaw portions via the ______ and ______ prominence

Back 157

Maxillary, mandibular

Front 158

There are ______ external grooves separating each arch

Back 158

4

Front 159

The ______ is a cavity that forms from the growing of arch 1

Back 159

Stomodeum

Front 160

The stomodeum is lined with ______

Back 160

Ectoderm

Front 161

On the interior, the oropharyngeal membrane is lined with ______

Back 161

Endoderm

Front 162

The stomodeum gives rise to the ______ 2/3 of the oral cavity

Back 162

Anterior

Front 163

The stomodeum is separated from the forgut by the ______ membrane

Back 163

Oropharyngeal

Front 164

______ arch is the remnant of the oropharyngeal membrane and is thus the junction of the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue

Back 164

Palatoglossal

Front 165

The ______ pouches with evagonate laterally and oppose the branchial grooves and create a membrane

Back 165

Pharyngeal

Front 166

Pharyngeal pouches are lined with ______

Back 166

Endoderm

Front 167

The pharynx is derived from the ______

Back 167

Foregut

Front 168

Within each arch we have mesenchyme derived mostly from ______ ______ cells

Back 168

Neural crest

Front 169

Each arch will have its own nerve innervation from a cranial nerve so typically a single arch is innervated by ______ cranial nerve

Back 169

1

Front 170

Each arch has its own branch of the ______ (think blood)

Back 170

Aorta

Front 171

Branchial groove 1 gives rise to the ______ ______ canal and is located between arch 1 and 2

Back 171

External acoustic

Front 172

Arch ______ overgrows arch 3 and merges with arch ______ so that grooves 2, 3, and 4 are hidden and become a cervical sinus which will typically regress

Back 172

2, 4

Front 173

In the mandibular prominence, ______ cartilage forms the malleus and ______ but the rest of the lower jaw comes via ______ ossification

Back 173

Meckel’s, incus, intramembranous

Front 174

Arch 2 has ______ cartilage which will regress like Meckel’s cartilage, but will form the ______ , styloid process, and ______ ½ of hyoid bone via endochondral bone formation

Back 174

Reichert’s, stapes, upper

Front 175

Arch 3 form the ______ ½ of the hyoid bone by ______ bone formation

Back 175

Lower, endochondral

Front 176

Arches 4, 5, and 6 form the cartilage of the larynx EXCEPT for the ______

Back 176

Epiglottis

Front 177

Arch 1 has CN ______ , branches ______ and ______ .

Back 177

5, V2, V3

Front 178

Arch 2 has CN ______

Back 178

7

Front 179

Arch 3 has CN ______

Back 179

9

Front 180

Arch ______ and ______ has the superior and recurrent laryngeal of CN 10 respectively

Back 180

4, 6

Front 181

Branchial muscles come from ______ mesoderm

Back 181

Somitic

Front 182

The muscles of each arch will be supplied by the ______ nerve of that arch

Back 182

Cranial

Front 183

Arch 1 muscles include all muscles supplied by V3. What are these?

Back 183

Mastication, “the tensors”, anterior belly of digastric, mylohyoid

Front 184

Arch 2 muscles include all muscles supplied by cranial nerve 7. What are these?

Back 184

Facial expression, sylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric, stapedius (that little one on your ear)

Front 185

Arch 3 muscle, ______ , is innervated by CN 9

Back 185

Stylopharyngeus

Front 186

Arch 4 muscles are innervated by ______ laryngeal branch of the vagus (CN 10) and include which muscles?

Back 186

Superior, [cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, 3 constrictors of pharynx, palatoglossus]

Front 187

Branchial arch 6 is innervated by the ______ ______ of CN 10 and includes the intrinsic muscles of the larynx

Back 187

Recurrent laryngeal

Front 188

The ______ pouches are forming internally and are evaginating to meet the branchial grooves and lined with endoderm

Back 188

Pharyngeal

Front 189

Pharyngeal pouch 1 will give rise to the ______ recess and eventually the middle ear. It will also connect to the pharynx via the ______ tube

Back 189

Tubotympanic, eustachian

Front 190

The epithelium of the ______ tonsil as well as the tonsilar ______ is derived from pharyngeal pouch 2

Back 190

Palatine, crypts

Front 191

Pharyngeal pouch 3 has a dorsal and a ventral portion. The dorsal portion gives rise to the ______ ______ glands while the ventral portion gives rise to the ______ gland. They will actually break away and migrate down into the ______ .

Back 191

Inferior parathyroid, thymus, neck

Front 192

Pharyngeal pouch 4 also has a dorsal and ventral portion. The dorsal portion will give rise to the ______ ______ glands while the ventral portion will give rise to the ______ body which eventually gives rise to ______ which regulate calcium metabolism

Back 192

Superior parathyroid, ultimobranchial, C-cells

Front 193

The ______ parathyroid gland migrates further down into the neck than the ______ thyroid even though they start in their branchial arches in the opposite orientation

Back 193

Inferior, superior

Front 194

The thyroid gland _____ derived from the pharyngeal pouches (is / is not?)

Back 194

Is not

Front 195

The thyroid gland is the ______ endocrine organ to develop (first, second, third…?)

Back 195

First

Front 196

The thryoid gland diverticulum forms in the developing ______ which gives rise to the foramen ______ allowing the diverticulum to descend into the neck where the gland can form

Back 196

Tongue, cecum

Front 197

The ______ duct is the opening in the tube that is created from the thyroid diverticulum which should close as an adult

Back 197

Thyroglossal

Front 198

If the thyroid gland doesn’t descend, its called a ______ thyroid and is usually associated with ______ syndrome

Back 198

Lingual, Downs

Front 199

You can diagnose thyroglossal duct ______ because if the patient extends their tongue them moves

Back 199

Cysts

Front 200

The ______ lobe is a midline lobe that can form from extra thyroid tissue that did not completely descend

Back 200

Pyramidal

Front 201

A branchial ______ can form if a branchial arch does not properly close

Back 201

Cyst

Front 202

First arch syndrome is a defect in many of the structures from this arch and is typically thought to be a ______ ______ cell issue where they do not fully migrate

Back 202

Neural crest

Front 203

______ ______ is a lack of parathyroid and thalamus glands and tends to effect the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch and can also be associated with heart defect

Back 203

DiGeorge Syndrome

Front 204

______ glandular tissue is due to abnormal migration of tissues

Back 204

Ectopic

Front 205

______ give rise to the muscles of the branchial arches

Back 205

Somitomeres

Front 206

The face will develop mainly from ______ arches

Back 206

Branchial

Front 207

The frontal prominence (is, is not) a branchial arch

Back 207

Is not

Front 208

The beginning of the oral cavity forms from the ______

Back 208

Stomodeum

Front 209

The stomodeum forms the ______ 2/3 of the oral cavity

Back 209

Anterior

Front 210

The stomodeum gives rise to ______ ______ which will grow into diencephalon to form the anterior lobe of the pituitary

Back 210

Rathke’s pouch

Front 211

The face is formed from five facial ______

Back 211

Primordia

Front 212

Nasal placode form as a thickening on the ______ prominence that then migrate ______ and fuse

Back 212

Frontonasal, medially

Front 213

All places where facial primordial come together are potential places for ______ to develop

Back 213

Clefts

Front 214

The nasal placodes give rise to the nasal ______

Back 214

Pits

Front 215

A groove between maxillary prominence and lateral nasal prominence will give rise to ______ groove (which will become nasolacrimal canal)

Back 215

Nasolacrimal

Front 216

The ______ segment is created from the fusion of the two medial nasal prominences

Back 216

Intermaxillary

Front 217

The intermaxillary segment forms ______ of the lip, flesh part of nasal septum, ______ part of maxilla, etc.

Back 217

Filtrum, premaxillary

Front 218

Intermaxillary segment also forms the ______ palate

Back 218

Primary

Front 219

The primitive ______ is the connection between the nasal and oral cavity

Back 219

Choana

Front 220

Sensory innervation of the face comes from CN ______

Back 220

5

Front 221

Facial muscles all come from branchial arch ______

Back 221

2

Front 222

CN ______ supplies the muscles from branchial arch 2

Back 222

7

Front 223

Nasal cavities form from the nasal ______

Back 223

Pits

Front 224

The secondary palate forms which gives us a distinct ______ and oral cavity

Back 224

Nasal

Front 225

Initially, the ______ membrane separates the nasal pit and the oral cavity

Back 225

Oronasal

Front 226

Internally there are lateral ______ processes (or palatal shelves) which are internal extensions of the maxillary prominences

Back 226

Palatine

Front 227

With growth of embryo, and elongation of the face, the ______ ______ will flip up and fuse with each other, the nasal septum, and the primary palate

Back 227

Palatal shelves

Front 228

The palatal shelves are inward extensions of the ______ prominences

Back 228

Maxillary

Front 229

The teeth develop from ______ prominence, the dental lamina

Back 229

Maxillary

Front 230

Many time, the first evidence of a cleft is that the ______ are severely out of line

Back 230

Teeth

Front 231

______ clefts involve the primary palate and lip, ______ clefts involve the palatal shelves and their fusion with the nasal septum

Back 231

Anterior, posterior

Front 232

Hare lips are normal in some animals but in humans, it is a cleft and is the non-fusion of the medial ______ prominences

Back 232

Nasal

Front 233

Cleft Palates are about 1 in 2500 births and occur more often in ______

Back 233

Females

Front 234

4 things cause a cleft palate, name them.

Back 234

Small palatal shelves, palatal shelves to not elevate, palatal shelves do not fuse, the tongue does not drop between the shelves

Front 235

The tongue is divided into an ______ 2/3 and ______ 1/3 which has separate innervations

Back 235

Anterior, posterior

Front 236

The anterior 2/3 of the tongue comes from the ______ which is ectoderm

Back 236

Stomodeum

Front 237

Initially there are swellings in the floor of the ______ that are called tongue buds

Back 237

Pharynx

Front 238

The median tongue bud is called the ______ ______ and the distal tongue buds are the lateral ______ swellings

Back 238

Tuberculum impar, lingual

Front 239

The tongue buds give rise to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and are innervated by CN ______ (general tough, pain, etc.) and CN ______ (glands and taste)

Back 239

5, 7

Front 240

The posterior 1/3 of the tongue comes from pharynx ______

Back 240

Endoderm

Front 241

The ______ eminence forms the posterior 1/3 of the tongue in branchial arch 3

Back 241

Hypobranchial

Front 242

CN ______ innervates the posterior 1/3 of the tongue for general sensation as well as taste

Back 242

9

Front 243

The root of the tongue also forms from the hypobranchial eminence but is from branchial arch ______ and is associated with CN ______

Back 243

4, 10

Front 244

The foramen ______ is at the fusion of the terminal sulcus and the central sulcus

Back 244

Cecum

Front 245

The foramen cecum is where the ______ duct will form

Back 245

Thyroglossal

Front 246

The Lingual papillae appear around the ______ week

Back 246

8th

Front 247

The ______ and foliate are the first papillae to appear and are associated with posterior 1/3 of tongue, taste by CN ______

Back 247

Circumvallate, 9

Front 248

______ appear on anterior 2/3 and innervated by CN ______ (remember, TASTE, not general sensation!)

Back 248

Fingiforms, 7

Front 249

Fetuses can taste around ______ -______ weeks and can be exposed to tastes in utero

Back 249

26-28

Front 250

The musculature of the tongue comes from ______ somites located below the branchial arches

Back 250

Occipital

Front 251

The tongue ______ come in below the 6th branchial arch and thus carry CN ______ for motor innervation

Back 251

Myoblasts, 12

Front 252

The thyroglossal duct failing to regress is called a congenital lingual cyst and if it is open to foramen ______ , it is called a fistula

Back 252

Cecum

Front 253

It the thyroid never migrates, you get a ______ ______ and is associated with downs syndrome

Back 253

Lingual thyroid

Front 254

In 2-5% of the population, the tongue is significantly ______

Back 254

Fissured

Front 255

A ______ ______ ______ is a hairy tongue where the filiform papillae hypertrophy due to poor oral hygiene

Back 255

Hypertrophic lingual papillae

Front 256

There are three sets of salivary glands, ______ , ______ , and ______ .

Back 256

Submandibular, parotid, sublingual

Front 257

The salivary glands start as ______ buds from primitive oral cavity

Back 257

Epithelial

Front 258

Anterior salivary glands are lined with ______ whereas glands from the posterior part of the oral cavity are lined with ______

Back 258

Ectoderm, endoderm

Front 259

The salivary glands develop through a process called ______ ______ and this process occurs many other places as well. It is characterized by the continual branching of a bud

Back 259

Branching morphogenesis

Front 260

The oral epithelium are the cells that are secretory and the connective tissue around the salivary glands are from ______

Back 260

Mesenchyme

Front 261

Parotid glands form from oral ectoderm and grow towards the ______

Back 261

Ear

Front 262

Submandibular glands develop as paired buds from ______ and grow posteriorly, lateral to the tongue

Back 262

Endoderm

Front 263

Sublingual glands are from ______ are on either side of the tongue as multiple buds on the floor of the mouth

Back 263

Endoderm

Front 264

The dental lamina forms in the ______ ______ of the mandible and maxilla

Back 264

Ectodermal epithelium

Front 265

Teeth ______ form from upper and lower dental lamina (10 on top and 10 on bottom)

Back 265

Buds

Front 266

The tooth bud will invaginate and be filled with ______ ______ cells which form the core of the tooth

Back 266

Neural crest

Front 267

______ develop from neural crest and make dentin

Back 267

Odonoblasts

Front 268

______ come from ectoderm and make enamel

Back 268

Ameloblasts

Front 269

The ameloblasts shed after eruption meaning no more ______ is created after tooth eruption

Back 269

Enamel

Front 270

There are three stages of tooth development, the bud, ______ and ______ stage

Back 270

Cap, bell

Front 271

If there is a cleft, that can interrupt the dental lamina which means teeth can be a good signal for the presence of a ______

Back 271

Cleft

Front 272

Neural crest cells give rise to ______ which deposit cementum that anchors the tooth via the periodontal ligament

Back 272

Cementoblasts

Front 273

All teeth develop prenatally except the ______ molar

Back 273

3rd

Front 274

Enamal hypotlasia is a lack of adequate ______ production due to nutritonal deficiency, tetracycline drugs, or rickets

Back 274

Enamel

Front 275

Rickets is a deficiency of vitamin ______

Back 275

D

Front 276

The larynx has 2 types of cartilage visible from the outside, ______ and ______

Back 276

Thyroid, cricoid

Front 277

The ______ septum must be perfectly aligned to separate the esophagus and trachea properly

Back 277

Tracheoesophogeal

Front 278

______ swellings are where we get the laryngeal cartilage as well as the muscles that control vocal cords

Back 278

Arytenoid

Front 279

Cricothyroid cartilage is from arch ______ , intrinsic muscles of larynx are from arch ______ (recurrent branch of CN 10)

Back 279

4, 6

Front 280

Without proper closure of the tracheoesophogeal septum, you can get esophageal ______ or tracheoesophageal ______

Back 280

Atresia, fistula

Front 281

There are several prenatal symptoms of this:

Back 281

Maternal polyhydramnios (EA), Absence of stomach gas on prenatal ultrasound (EA), Copious, fine white frothy bubbles of mucus in the mouth and nose (EA), Coughing and choking [food in respiratory tract] (TEF), Abdominal distention may occur secondary to collection of air in stomach (TEF)

Front 282

Blood supply to the branchial arches are the ______ arches

Back 282

Aortic

Front 283

______ aortic arch disappears as well as aortic arch ______ and ______

Back 283

5th, 1, 2

Front 284

Aortic arch ______ forms the right and left common carotid (a 3 looks like 2 C’s on top of each other!)

Back 284

3

Front 285

Aortic arch ______ on the right forms the subclavian and on the left it forms the aorta (a 4 has its loop on the left, just like the LEFT side that makes the aortic arch!)

Back 285

4

Front 286

Aortic arch ______ on the right is the right pulmonary artery and the distal portion goes away. For the left, it forms the left ______ artery and the distal part forms the ______ ______ which becomes ligamentus after birth

Back 286

6, pulmonary, ductus arteriosis

Front 287

The ______ ______ nerve loops under the subclavian on the right and under the ligamentum arteriosum on the left (Ligamentum on the Left)

Back 287

Recurrent laryngeal

Front 288

On the right, the recurrent nerve starts below arch 6 but since 6 and 5 go away, the nerve can “float” up under arch ______ on the right (subclavian)

Back 288

4

Front 289

A ______ aortic arch occurs when the right aorta does not go away which can constrict the esophagus and trachea, causing trouble in swallowing and breathing

Back 289

Double

Front 290

If the right 4th aortic arch goes away when it shouldn’t, you get right ______ subclavian artery

Back 290

Retroesophageal

Front 291

______ are narrowings of an artery (in this case, the aorta)

Back 291

Coarctations

Front 292

There are pre- and post-ductal coarctations where the aorta hypertrophies either before or after the ______ ______ . The pre-ductal is worse because it does not allow ______ through the ductus arteriosis

Back 292

Ductus arteriosis, blood

Front 293

A patent ductus arteriosis is where the ductus arteriosis does not close due to low ______ which occurs commonly in premature babies with respiratory distress syndrome

Back 293

Oxygen

Front 294

______ virus is also a common cause of patent ductus arteriosis

Back 294

Rubella

Front 295

The ______ begin as outgrowths of the forebrain

Back 295

Eyes

Front 296

Optic grooves grow out into developing head and then expand into optic ______

Back 296

Vesicles

Front 297

The optic vesicle makes the surface ectoderm develop into the ______

Back 297

Lens

Front 298

Lens ______ will break off and form a little vesicle that becomes the lens

Back 298

Placode

Front 299

Optic ______ begins initial development of all ocular structures

Back 299

Cup

Front 300

Optic cup invaginates dorsally and ventrally and it’s ventral invagination forms the ______ fissure

Back 300

Choroid

Front 301

The choroid fissure allows passage of blood from brain area through the eye and to the lens, but these will eventually ______

Back 301

Degenerate

Front 302

Inner layer of optic cup gives rise to ______

Back 302

Retina

Front 303

Outer later of optic cup is 1 layer, retinal ______ epithelium

Back 303

Pigmented

Front 304

Space of optic cup gets smaller and smaller and in mature eye, there is no space but is a ______ space where ______ can become detached

Back 304

Potential, retina

Front 305

Outermost area of neural retina has the actual ______

Back 305

Photoreceptors

Front 306

Most of inner layer of optic cup is ______ sensitive (posterior 4/5)

Back 306

Light

Front 307

Anterior 1/5 of optic cup is ______ ______ and gives rise to iris and ciliary bodies

Back 307

Pars ceca

Front 308

Sphincter pupillae come from optic ______

Back 308

Vesicle

Front 309

______ ______ cells form cilliary muscles

Back 309

Neural crest

Front 310

Non-pigmented iris is from the ______ layer of optic cup

Back 310

Inner

Front 311

______ fibers are cells just like any other and divide throughout life

Back 311

Lens

Front 312

The choroid is a ______ layer that supports the retina

Back 312

Vascular

Front 313

Just outside the choroid is the ______ which comes from neural crest cells

Back 313

Sclera

Front 314

Surface of ______ is continuous with inner lining of the eyelid

Back 314

Cornea

Front 315

Anterior ______ is a space in the neural crest between cornea and lens

Back 315

Chamber

Front 316

______ membrane must degrade so the pupil can become completely clear

Back 316

Iridopupillary

Front 317

The optic stalk connects the optic cup and brain and will eventually form the optic ______

Back 317

Nerve

Front 318

Choroid fissure closes at around ______ days

Back 318

37

Front 319

______ cells fill optic stalk

Back 319

Ganglion

Front 320

There are many transcription factors in eye development, the most famous of which is ______ because it induces further development of the lens

Back 320

Pax 6

Front 321

If no lens form, no optic ______ invagination

Back 321

Cup

Front 322

______ is where the choroid fissure does not completely close and can continue into the iris

Back 322

Coloboma

Front 323

Persistent iridopupillary membrane is where that membrane does not breakdown and can impair ______

Back 323

Vision

Front 324

Micropthalmia is a ______ eye and ______ is failure of an eye to form

Back 324

Small, anopathalmia

Front 325

The middle ear connects to the outside through the ______ tube

Back 325

Auditory

Front 326

Inner ear is sensory organ of the ear which receives vibrations from bony ______

Back 326

Ossicles

Front 327

2 major parts to inner ear: ______ ______ canals and cochlea

Back 327

Semi circular, cochlea

Front 328

Thickening of surface ectoderm on rhombencephalon form otic ______

Back 328

Placodes

Front 329

Otic placodes invaginate and form otic ______

Back 329

Pits

Front 330

Otic pit breaks off and forms otic ______

Back 330

Vesicle

Front 331

Inner ear comes from ______

Back 331

Ectoderm

Front 332

Dorsal portion is ______ portion that form into semicircular canals while ventral portion is ______ portion that forms into cochlea

Back 332

Uticular, sacular

Front 333

Organ of ______ is the sensory organ for hearing in the middle of choclear duct which coils in the bone

Back 333

Corti

Front 334

CN ______ sends impulses to spiral ganglion from Organ of Corti

Back 334

8

Front 335

______ ______ vibrations cause basilar membrane to move and hit tectoral membrane which bend cilia and send action potentials to spiral ganglion

Back 335

Scala tympani

Front 336

Cells of ______ duct are what form the organ of corti

Back 336

Cochlear

Front 337

Walls of ______ portion fuse and the connection degenerates to form loops

Back 337

Utricular

Front 338

______ ______ detects motion and movement

Back 338

Crus ampullare

Front 339

Inside the crus ampullare are ______ that bend based on how your head is moved

Back 339

Capula

Front 340

______ recess will enclose cells of neural crest in arch 1 and 2 which give rise to bony ossicles in ______ ear (malleus, incus are arch 1, stapes is arch 2)

Back 340

Tubotympanic, middle

Front 341

Tympanic membrane is between arch ______ and groove ______

Back 341

1, 1

Front 342

Tensor tympani inserts on ______ and prevents it from moving too much, innervated by CN ______ and is from arch 1

Back 342

Malleus, 5

Front 343

Stapedius controls ______ muscles and is innervated by CN ______

Back 343

Stapes, 7

Front 344

Auricle develops on either side of the neck and form from 6 auricular ______

Back 344

Hillocks

Front 345

1st arch syndrome is associated with low set ______

Back 345

Ears

Front 346

Embryo folds to form gut tube and become more ______ shaped

Back 346

Cylindrically

Front 347

Connecting stalk gets narrower as embryo folds and will become ______ cord

Back 347

Umbilical

Front 348

Fertilized egg becomes the zygote which forms a cavity and becomes the ______

Back 348

Blastocyst

Front 349

The ______ ______ mass will give rise to the embryo proper

Back 349

Inner cell

Front 350

______ allows for anchoring and burrowing of blastocyst into uterine wall

Back 350

Syncytiotrophoblast

Front 351

Within the inner cell mass, the ______ cavity forms

Back 351

Amnionic

Front 352

Inner cell mass forms ______ cells

Back 352

Amnioblast

Front 353

______ of uterus is where blastocyst is embedded

Back 353

Endometrium

Front 354

______ form in syncytiotropoblast to allow maternal blood to bathe the embryo

Back 354

Lacunae

Front 355

______ ______ forms spaces that coalesce into 1 cavity forming the extraembryonic celoem (aka chorionic cavity)

Back 355

Extraembryonic mesoderm

Front 356

Splanchnic mesoderm surrounds the ______ ______

Back 356

Yolk sac

Front 357

Amnionic fluid is used for 4 things, what are they?

Back 357

Cushion, prevent adhesion, freedom of movement, control body temperature

Front 358

______ membrane consists of extraembryonic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotropblast

Back 358

Chorionic

Front 359

______ , which are extentions of syncytiotrophoblast, begin developing at 13 days

Back 359

Vili

Front 360

Eventually, all ______ chorionic layers will fold into the vili (#)

Back 360

Three

Front 361

Tertiary villus have ______ blood

Back 361

Embryonic

Front 362

Cytotrophoblastic ______ extends to anchor the embryo

Back 362

Shell

Front 363

Chorion ______ is the part of the chorion adjacent to the embryo wile the chorion leavae are on the outside

Back 363

Frondosum

Front 364

______ is a way to test amnionic fluid to look for malformations and cannot be done until late in the pregnancy

Back 364

Amniocentesis

Front 365

Chorionic villus sampling can be done earlier then amniocentesis and has a slightly (higher/lower) risk of miscarry

Back 365

Higher

Front 366

______ ______ gives rise to digestive system as well as blood vessels

Back 366

Yolk sac

Front 367

Germ cells from yolk sac migrate to developing ______

Back 367

Gonads

Front 368

______ is extension of yolk sac that extends into connecting stalk and doesn’t really do anything except form the median umbilical ligament

Back 368

Allantois

Front 369

______ refers to endometrium of pregnancy

Back 369

Decidua

Front 370

Decidua ______ is immediately underlying site of implantation and oppose vilis chorion, decidua ______ is everything outside region of embryo, and decidua ______ is the potion covering the embryo

Back 370

Basalis, parietalis, capsularis

Front 371

As the embryo grows, it grows into the ______ cavity which in turn fills the ______ cavity

Back 371

Chorionic, uterine

Front 372

The amnion fuses with chorion eventually, and will cause decidua ______ to degenerate so the decidua parietalis fuses with the chorion

Back 372

Capsilaris

Front 373

______ -______ membrane is the final membrane formed that ruptures before birth

Back 373

Chorio-amnionic

Front 374

Villous chorion is fetal portion of placenta and decidua ______ is maternal portion of placenta

Back 374

Basalis

Front 375

Intervillus space is where ______ blood is located

Back 375

Maternal

Front 376

Branch villi is where ______ exchange occurs between mother and fetus

Back 376

Blood

Front 377

After ______ weeks, tertiary villus thins

Back 377

20

Front 378

Barrier between maternal and fetal blood is called ______ membrane; also site of ______ exchange for fetus

Back 378

Vasculosyncytial, gas

Front 379

Fetal surface of placenta is covered with smooth ______

Back 379

Amnion

Front 380

Maternal surface of placenta is not covered with amnion but has clumps of ______ instead

Back 380

Vili

Front 381

______ insertion of umbilical cord is where umbilical vessels travel in smooth chorion before inserting into vilis chorion and can make them vulnerable to damage.

Back 381

Velamentous

Front 382

What passes through the placenta via simple diffusion?

Back 382

gas, lipids, water electrolytes

Front 383

What passes through the placenta via facilitated diffusion?

Back 383

carbs

Front 384

What passes through the placenta via active transport?

Back 384

amino acids, water soluble vitamins

Front 385

What passes through the placenta via pinocytes?

Back 385

protein, -IgG

Front 386

Placenta has large endocrine function, mainly by ______ cells

Back 386

Syncytiotrophoblast

Front 387

After 10 weeks, embryo is making enough ______ to bring it to full term

Back 387

Progesterone

Front 388

______ is earliest sign of pregnancy and is a hormone made by syncitiotrophoblast so that the corpus lutium is maintained

Back 388

hCG

Front 389

Parturition has 4 stages, the first of which is cervical dilation as a result of uterine contractions and is the ______ stage, lasting ______ or more hours

Back 389

Longest, 12

Front 390

Stage 2 of parturition is ______

Back 390

Delivery

Front 391

Stage 3 is the delivery of the placenta to prevent ______ loss from the mother and is removed

Back 391

Blood

Front 392

Stage 4 is ______ where the uterine size decreases and maternal blood is sealed off to avoid excess bleeding

Back 392

Recovery

Front 393

______ twins are identical twins, and ______ twins are fraternal twins

Back 393

Monozygotic, dizygotic

Front 394

When twins are born, it is often (quite easy/hard) to tell if they are identical or not

Back 394

Hard

Front 395

______ maternal age causes an increase in dizygotic twins

Back 395

Increased

Front 396

Dizygotic twins are the result of two ______ being fertilized by two different sperm so they are only as identical as a normal brother and sister because the two embryos develop independently

Back 396

Oocytes

Front 397

______ twins implant separately, but if the implant close enough, the placenta can fuse and make it look like ______ twins

Back 397

Dizygotic, monozygotic

Front 398

Monozygotic twins are (more/less) common than dizogotic

Back 398

Less

Front 399

Monozygotic twins occur when a ______ splits so the fetuses are genetically identical and you can have and early or late split

Back 399

Zygote

Front 400

______ splitting in monozygotic twins appear as though they are dizygotic because they are free to implant separately

Back 400

Early

Front 401

______ splitting is more common and happens after blastocyst forms so you only have chorionic cavity but one or two amnionic cavities

Back 401

Late

Front 402

______ space does not contain fetal blood, just maternal blood

Back 402

Intervillous

Front 403

Amnionic cavity is a space between the ______ and the ______ ______ ______

Back 403

Trophoblast, inner cell mass