• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/100

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

If the defendant obtains only _____________________ as a result of the intentional false statement,
the crime is “larceny by trick,” not false pretenses.

custody (not title)

Hint: look for victim’s consent being given.

4 essential elements of crimes are:

actus reus
mens rea
causation
concurrence (requisite mental state at time act committed)

3 inchoate offenses

solicitation
conspiracy
attempt

8 defenses

Insanity
Voluntary Intoxication (only avail. for specific intent crimes)
Infancy
Mistake of Fact (only avail. for specific intent crimes)
Self Defense
Necessity
Duress
Entrapment

A failure to act can be the basis for criminal liability, provided all of these 3 requirements are satisfied:

(1) Duty to act (by statute, contractual, by relationship such as parent/child or spouse/spouse, by voluntary assumption of care, or creation of the parol).
(2) Knowledge of the facts giving rise to the duty (ie., you know kid is drowning).
(3) Ability to help (ex., mom can’t swim to save son from drowning).

Name the 11 specific intent crimes.

Hint, 2 are crimes against the person, 6 are property crimes, 3 are inchoate crimes.

Assault & First Degree Pre-Meditated Murder


Larceny


Embezzlement
False Pretenses
Robbery
Forgery
Burglary
Solicitation & Conspiracy & Attempt

What are the 2 defenses that are available only for specific intent crimes:

Voluntary Intoxication
Unreasonable mistake of fact.

What does it mean to act with “Malice"

Intentional act or reckless disregard of an obvious or known risk.

What are 2 malice crimes?

Murder and Arson

What are general intent crimes?

Hint: There are 4, and they are all against the person.

Battery
Forcible Rape
False Imprisonment
Kidnapping

If one must act with specific intent, they must have had not just the desire to do the ACT but also the desire to . . .

achieve the specific result.

When the crime requires general intent, the D need only be _____________ of the factors constituting the crime; he need not intend a specific result.

generally aware

When the crime is a strict liability crime, when is liability triggered?

The commission of the criminal act; no mental state is needed.

What are the 4 MPC mental states?

Purpose
Knowledge
Recklessness
Negligence

For MPC, the defendant acts purposely when it is his ____________________________________________ to achieve a particular result.

conscious desire

For MPC knowledge, the defendant acts knowingly when he is _____________ of what he is doing. With respect to a result, the defendant acts knowingly when he is aware that it is ________________________________________ that his conduct will cause that result.

aware

practically certain (even though not absolutely certain)

For MPC Recklessness, the defendant acts recklessly when he is aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk, and ____________________________________ that risk.

is aware but consciously disregards

For MPC negligence, the defendant acts negligently when he _______________________________________________________ of a substantial and unjustifiable risk.

should have been aware

A criminal D must be the but-for and proximate cause of the criminal result.

A defendant is a proximate cause if the bad result is a _____________ and ____________________________ consequence of the defendant’s conduct.

natural and probable

D will not be considered a proximate cause if an
_______________ ________________________ event causes the bad result.

unforeseeable intervening

Concurrence Principle: The defendant must have the required ___________________________ at the same time as he engages in the _____________________________________.

mental state

culpable act

Battery is the unlawful
1. application of ____________________ to another,
2. resulting in either
a) ___________________________________ or
b) an _________________________________.

1. force

2. a) physical injury or b) offensive touching.

Assault may be proven by an attempted battery (a swing and a miss) or by the intentional creation other than by mere words of a _____________ ______________ in the mind of the victim of ____________ bodily harm.

It requires ___________ intent.

reasonable apprehension

imminent

specific

Murder is the killing of a human being with malice aforethought. What are the 4 types of malice aforethought?

(1) intent to kill
(2) intent to inflict serious bodily injury but victim ultimately dies
(3) intent to commit a dangerous felony (BARRK) and an unintentional killing results
(4) depraved heart (unintentional killing that results from D’s reckless conduct).

Felony murder includes an unintentional killing that results from commission of a serious or inherently dangerous felony. What are the 4 felonies?

Hint: BARRK

Burglary
Arson
Robbery
Rape
Kidnapping

What is the agency theory of liability for felony murder?

Felon is only responsible for the deaths that he causes or his accomplices cause.

Felon is NOT responsible for the deaths caused by the victim or police.

A depraved heart killing is a subset of murder defined as the unintentional killing that results from D’s _____ ______ conduct, which is shown by an indifference to ____ _____

Extremely Reckless.

Human life.

What are the 3 types of manslaughter?

(1) voluntary manslaughter

(2) involuntary manslaughter

(3) misdemeanor manslaughter (commission of misdemeanor assault or battery)

Voluntary (intentional) killing is where the D acts w/ ____________ ______________.

adequate provocation

Involuntary manslaughter is an unintentional killing resulting from D’s __________ ____________ conduct.

criminally negligent.
This is distinguished from depraved heart murder (a subset of murder) where the murder results from D’s reckless conduct.

Person is privileged to use _________ ________ in self defense if person is threatened with bodily injury or harm.

reasonable force

Person is privileged to use _____ ______ in self defense if person is threatened with imminent serious bodily injury or death.

deadly force

*This is an MBE favorite!

For the insanity defense, what are the 3 requirements for the M’Naughton rule?

Note - the 3rd requirement can be satisfied by two options.

(1) Disease of the mind
(2) Caused a defect of reason
(3) Which left the D at the time of his actions lacking the ability to either:
     (a) Know the wrongfulness of his actions; OR
     (b) Understand the nature and quality of his actions.

If a defendant intends to harm one victim, but accidentally harms a different victim instead, the defendant’s intent _______ from the intended victim to the actual victim.

transfers.

*MBE Favorite, most commonly tested for murder, but also applies to other crimes like battery and arson.

In most jurisdictions, it is a defense to felony murder if the death was not ______________.

Foreseeable.

Under a proximate cause theory of felony murder (applicable in MOST states), if one of the co-felons
proximately causes the victim’s death, all of the other co-felons will be guilty of felony murder, even if the actual killing is committed by a _____________________________.

third party (e.g., a bystander, a police officer).

In some states, the agency theory of felony murder applies, which means the felony murder doctrine applies only if the killing is committed by one of the _______________.

co-felons.

The three 3 elements for voluntary manslaughter are:
(1) A killing committed ______________________________
(2) in the _________________________________________
(3) upon ______________________________________________.

(1) intentionally
(2) heat of passion
(3) adequate provocation.

3 examples of objectively adequate provocation at common law are:
(a) serious____________________or____________________
(b) presently witnessed_______________________

(a) assault or battery
(b) adultery

If a D catches his wife in bed with another man and immediately begins plotting the murder of the other man and murders the man a week later, will the husband have committed voluntary manslaughter?

No - because he had time to cool off between the provocation and the killing.

An unintentional killing during the commission of a crime to which felony murder does not apply is called involuntary manslaughter.

Under the common law, the D must have acted with _________ ________.

Under MPC (the modern trend), the D must have acted __________________.

criminal negligence

recklessly.

CL standard is higher level than MPC.

False imprisonment is the:

(1) The _______________________________
(2) _________________________ of a person
(3) without his or her___________________.

unlawful
confinement
consent

Kidnapping is the unlawful confinement of a person without his/her consent (the elements of false imprisonment) PLUS: either ____________ the victim or _____________ the victim in a secret place.

Moving the victim
or
secluding the victim.

Under the common law, statutory rape requires what kind of mental state?

None! Its a strict liability offense.

Under the MPC, what is a defense to statutory rape?

A reasonable mistake of age.

What are the 7 elements of Larceny?

Hint: Thieves Took Carmen’s Purse and Isaac’s Portfolio

Trespassory (wrongful or unlawful)
Taking and
Carrying Away
Personal Property
of Another [who had lawful custody] with the
Intent to
Permanently retain the property.

Embezzlement is the conversion of personal property of another by a person already in ________ ___________ of that property, with the intent to _________.

lawful possession (more than mere custody - the person has authority to exercise some discretion over the property)

defraud

What is the key difference between embezzlement and larceny?

To constitute embezzlement, a D must have lawful possession of the property that he misappropriates.

What does it mean to have “lawful possession?"

Its more than mere custody - it requires the authority to exercise some discretion over the property.

Larceny involves taking _________ of property.
Embezzlement involves misappropriating property in one’s ________ ___________.
False pretenses is obtaining _________ of property.

Larceny: CUSTODY of property.
Embezzlement: LAWFUL POSSESSION of property.
False pretenses: TITLE or OWNERSHIP

False pretense is obtaining title to personal property of another by an ___________ __________ __________, with the intent to defraud.

intentional false statement.

The “false statement” requirement of the crime of false pretenses requires that the statement be of a ___________ or __________ event, not a ___________ promise.

Past or present

future

If the defendant obtains only custody (NOT title) as a result of an intentional false statement, the crime is _________ ___ _______, NOT false pretenses.

Larceny by trick.

Robbery is a [7 elements of larceny] from someone else’s person or presence by force or threat of ____________ ____________.

7 Elements of Larceny: a trespassory taking and carrying away with the personal property of another with the intent to permanently retain the property.

IMMEDIATE INJURY

When does the commission of forgery occur?

When the making or altering of a writing so that it is false. The D need not cash the check - the alteration or making triggers the crime.

Common law burglary is the _________ and ___________ the dwelling of another ____ ____________ with the intent to commit a _________ inside.

breaking and entering

at night

felony

Can one commit burglary if instead of breaking in, the D gains entry through fraud, threats, or intimidation?

Yes - this is known as constructive breaking.

Burglary requires the _________ intent to steal, rob, rape, assault, etc.

specific

States have modified three of the common law elements of burglary - which 3?

breaking
dwelling
nighttime

Common law arson is the ________ burning of a building.

Malicious.

For common law arson, “burning” requires a ________ _________ and scorching is not enough, but charring is.

material wasting.

For arson, is it enough that the carpet or furniture inside a building has been burned?

No. It must be the building itself that burns, but it could be the walls (not the whole building).

When a statute criminalizes the possession of contraband (e.g., drugs, stolen property, child pornography), “possession” means:
____________________ for a period of time long enough to have an opportunity
to terminate ________________________________.

control

possession.

For possession of contraband, the contraband need not be in the defendant’s actual possession, so long as it is close enough for him to exercise
_________________________ and ________________________ over it.

dominion and control.

The requisite mental state for possession of contraband is ___________ of the possession and of the character of the item possessed.

Knowledge.

Receiving stolen property requires _____ that personal property has been obtained criminally by another with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of his interest in the property.

Knowledge.

An accomplice is one who _________ assists the principal and intends the principal commits the substantive/underlying offense and actually _______, _______ or _____________ the principal _________ or _________ the commission of the crime.

Intentionally

aids, counsels, or encourages

before or during

For accomplice liability involving a store clerk or other sale of ordinary goods, is it enough that someone knows that a crime may result from the aid he is providing?

No. Mere knowledge is not enough.

How can an accomplice avoid criminal liability before the crime is committed?

The accomplice can WITHDRAWAL, though the manner in which this is done depends on how he assisted the principal.
(ie., if encouraged, then he must repudiate the encouragement before crime is committed; if aided then he must neutralize the assistance or prevent the crime from happening such as calling the police).

A person who helps a principal who has already committed a felony knowing that the crime has been committed and intends to help the principal avoid arrest or conviction is guilty of . . .

accessory after the fact.

When a corporate agent engages in criminal conduct, the
corporation and the agent may be held criminally liable, provided the agent is acting:
a) _______________________________________ the corporation; and
b) ________________________________________ of his or her office.

on behalf of

within the scope

Asking someone to commit a crime, with the intent that the crime be committed is . . .

solicitation.

For solicitation, must the crime be completed?

No - the asking triggers criminal liability and it does not matter whether the person asked actually agrees or if the crime is actually committed.

Conspiracy is the agreement between ____________ to commit a crime plus an _________ ________ in furtherance of the crime.

two or more people

overt act

An “overt act” for conspiracy liability can be any act even if merely ___________ performed by __________ of the co-conspirators.

prepatory

any

The mental state required for conspiracy is the specific intent to enter into an _____________ and to accomplish the __________ of the conspiracy.

agreement

objectives

For conspiracy, is criminal liability avoided if the underlying crime objective is not carried out?

No.

agreement + overt act = crime of conspiracy committed.

Can you have a one-person conspiracy at:


 


-common law?

-under MPC?

No. CL requires at least 2 people.

Under MPC a D may be guilty even if the other parties are acquitted or were just pretending to agree.

Vicarious “Pinkerton” Liability means that:
In addition to conspiracy, a defendant will be liable for other crimes committed by his co-conspirators, so long as those crimes:
(1) were committed in __________________________ of the conspiracy’s objective, and
(2) were __________________________________.

furtherance

foreseeable

Under the common law, attempt is proven by showing the defendant’s conduct was __________ _________ to commission of the crime.

Under the MPC (the majority rule), the defendant must engage in conduct that constitutes a __________ _____ towards the commission of the crime, provided that the conduct __________ ___________ the actor’s criminal purpose.

Common law: Dangerously Close

MPC: Substantial Step; strongly corroborates.

All inchoate offenses require ____________ intent to commit the underlying crime.

specific

Because you cannot attempt unintentional crimes (since you cannot intend to do something unintentional) there are no attempt versions of 3 crimes . . .

recklessness crimes
negligence crimes
felony murder.

The only instance a defendant can use withdrawal, renunciation, or abandonment as a defense is for _____________ crimes.

CONSPIRACY.

(however, D will still be guilty of conspiracy and of all foreseeable crimes committed by his co-conspirators prior to his withdrawal).

Solicitation and attempt merge with the completed crime; however __________ does not merge.

CONSPIRACY.

(this is a bar exam favorite!)

Under the MPC test for insanity (which is used in only a minority of jurisdictions), a defendant must establish that he lacked the substantial capacity to EITHER:

appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct

OR

conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.

For a defendant to raise the insanity defense, he must have been insane ______________.

at the time of the crime.

For incompetency defense, defendant must show that at the time of the __________, he cannot EITHER . . . .


If he D is successful, the trial is ______________.

trial (NOT crime).

understand the nature of the proceedings against him
OR
assist his lawyer in the preparation of his defense.

Postponed until D regains competency.

If at the time of the crime, D is less than ________ years old, prosecution is NOT allowed.

7

If at the time of the crime, D is less than ____________ years old, there is a rebuttable presumption AGAINST prosecution.

14.

If at the time, D is ______ or older, prosecution is allowed.

14.

A _______________ mistake of fact can e a defense to any crime except a crime of strict liability.

reasonable

A ___________________ mistake of fact will be a defense only to specific intent crimes.

unreasonable.

Under the “Initial Aggressor” Rule, a defendant may not use deadly force if he is the initial aggressor – that is, the person who started the fight. But, the initial aggressor can “regain” his right to use deadly force in self-defense if:
(a) He _____________________ from the fight and communicates that withdrawal to the other person; OR
(b) the victim suddenly __________________________ a non deadly fight into a deadly one.

withdraws

escalates

If a D is mistaken about the need to use unlawful force in self defense, a reasonable mistake will be a _______________. In most jurisdictions, an unreasonable mistake is _____________.

complete defense

not a defense at all.

(1) Nondeadly force may be used, if reasonably necessary, to prevent any
serious ____________________________________.

(2) Deadly force may only be used to prevent a felony risking _________________________________.

breach of the peace

human life

The defense of necessity is unavailable if:
(1) D causes the death of another person to protect ___________________;or

(2) D is ________________ in creating a situation that creates a choice of evils.

property

at fault

Duress is a defense to criminal conduct if the defendant was ____________ to commit a crime because of a threat, from another person, of ______________ death or serious bodily injury to himself or a close family member.

coerced

imminent

Duress can never be a defense to ___________.

Homicide.

If a defendant believes that the government unfairly tempted him to commit a crime, he may claim entrapment. To prevail on the defense, the defendant must prove that:
a) the criminal design ________________________ with the government, and
b) he/she was not __________________________ to commit the crime.

originates

predisposed

Police officers are generally entitled to use whatever force is reasonably required, including deadly force, to apprehend or prevent the escape of a felon who poses a threat of ......

serious bodily harm to the officer or others.