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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
If the defendant obtains only _____________________ as a result of the intentional false statement, |
custody (not title) |
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4 essential elements of crimes are: |
actus reus |
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3 inchoate offenses |
solicitation |
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8 defenses |
Insanity |
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A failure to act can be the basis for criminal liability, provided all of these 3 requirements are satisfied: |
(1) Duty to act (by statute, contractual, by relationship such as parent/child or spouse/spouse, by voluntary assumption of care, or creation of the parol). |
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Name the 11 specific intent crimes. |
Assault & First Degree Pre-Meditated Murder Larceny Embezzlement |
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What are the 2 defenses that are available only for specific intent crimes: |
Voluntary Intoxication |
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What does it mean to act with “Malice" |
Intentional act or reckless disregard of an obvious or known risk. |
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What are 2 malice crimes? |
Murder and Arson |
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What are general intent crimes? |
Battery |
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If one must act with specific intent, they must have had not just the desire to do the ACT but also the desire to . . . |
achieve the specific result. |
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When the crime requires general intent, the D need only be _____________ of the factors constituting the crime; he need not intend a specific result. |
generally aware |
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When the crime is a strict liability crime, when is liability triggered? |
The commission of the criminal act; no mental state is needed. |
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What are the 4 MPC mental states? |
Purpose |
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For MPC, the defendant acts purposely when it is his ____________________________________________ to achieve a particular result. |
conscious desire |
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For MPC knowledge, the defendant acts knowingly when he is _____________ of what he is doing. With respect to a result, the defendant acts knowingly when he is aware that it is ________________________________________ that his conduct will cause that result. |
aware |
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For MPC Recklessness, the defendant acts recklessly when he is aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk, and ____________________________________ that risk. |
is aware but consciously disregards |
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For MPC negligence, the defendant acts negligently when he _______________________________________________________ of a substantial and unjustifiable risk. |
should have been aware |
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A criminal D must be the but-for and proximate cause of the criminal result. |
natural and probable |
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D will not be considered a proximate cause if an |
unforeseeable intervening |
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Concurrence Principle: The defendant must have the required ___________________________ at the same time as he engages in the _____________________________________. |
mental state |
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Battery is the unlawful |
1. force |
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Assault may be proven by an attempted battery (a swing and a miss) or by the intentional creation other than by mere words of a _____________ ______________ in the mind of the victim of ____________ bodily harm. |
reasonable apprehension |
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Murder is the killing of a human being with malice aforethought. What are the 4 types of malice aforethought? |
(1) intent to kill |
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Felony murder includes an unintentional killing that results from commission of a serious or inherently dangerous felony. What are the 4 felonies? |
Burglary |
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What is the agency theory of liability for felony murder? |
Felon is only responsible for the deaths that he causes or his accomplices cause. |
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A depraved heart killing is a subset of murder defined as the unintentional killing that results from D’s _____ ______ conduct, which is shown by an indifference to ____ _____ |
Extremely Reckless. |
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What are the 3 types of manslaughter? |
(1) voluntary manslaughter |
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Voluntary (intentional) killing is where the D acts w/ ____________ ______________. |
adequate provocation |
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Involuntary manslaughter is an unintentional killing resulting from D’s __________ ____________ conduct. |
criminally negligent. |
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Person is privileged to use _________ ________ in self defense if person is threatened with bodily injury or harm. |
reasonable force |
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Person is privileged to use _____ ______ in self defense if person is threatened with imminent serious bodily injury or death. |
deadly force |
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For the insanity defense, what are the 3 requirements for the M’Naughton rule? |
(1) Disease of the mind |
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If a defendant intends to harm one victim, but accidentally harms a different victim instead, the defendant’s intent _______ from the intended victim to the actual victim. |
transfers. |
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In most jurisdictions, it is a defense to felony murder if the death was not ______________. |
Foreseeable. |
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Under a proximate cause theory of felony murder (applicable in MOST states), if one of the co-felons |
third party (e.g., a bystander, a police officer). |
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In some states, the agency theory of felony murder applies, which means the felony murder doctrine applies only if the killing is committed by one of the _______________. |
co-felons. |
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The three 3 elements for voluntary manslaughter are: |
(1) intentionally |
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3 examples of objectively adequate provocation at common law are: |
(a) assault or battery |
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If a D catches his wife in bed with another man and immediately begins plotting the murder of the other man and murders the man a week later, will the husband have committed voluntary manslaughter? |
No - because he had time to cool off between the provocation and the killing. |
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An unintentional killing during the commission of a crime to which felony murder does not apply is called involuntary manslaughter. |
criminal negligence |
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False imprisonment is the: |
unlawful |
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Kidnapping is the unlawful confinement of a person without his/her consent (the elements of false imprisonment) PLUS: either ____________ the victim or _____________ the victim in a secret place. |
Moving the victim |
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Under the common law, statutory rape requires what kind of mental state? |
None! Its a strict liability offense. |
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Under the MPC, what is a defense to statutory rape? |
A reasonable mistake of age. |
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What are the 7 elements of Larceny? |
Trespassory (wrongful or unlawful) |
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Embezzlement is the conversion of personal property of another by a person already in ________ ___________ of that property, with the intent to _________. |
lawful possession (more than mere custody - the person has authority to exercise some discretion over the property) |
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What is the key difference between embezzlement and larceny? |
To constitute embezzlement, a D must have lawful possession of the property that he misappropriates. |
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What does it mean to have “lawful possession?" |
Its more than mere custody - it requires the authority to exercise some discretion over the property. |
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Larceny involves taking _________ of property. |
Larceny: CUSTODY of property. |
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False pretense is obtaining title to personal property of another by an ___________ __________ __________, with the intent to defraud. |
intentional false statement. |
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The “false statement” requirement of the crime of false pretenses requires that the statement be of a ___________ or __________ event, not a ___________ promise. |
Past or present |
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If the defendant obtains only custody (NOT title) as a result of an intentional false statement, the crime is _________ ___ _______, NOT false pretenses. |
Larceny by trick. |
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Robbery is a [7 elements of larceny] from someone else’s person or presence by force or threat of ____________ ____________. |
7 Elements of Larceny: a trespassory taking and carrying away with the personal property of another with the intent to permanently retain the property. |
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When does the commission of forgery occur? |
When the making or altering of a writing so that it is false. The D need not cash the check - the alteration or making triggers the crime. |
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Common law burglary is the _________ and ___________ the dwelling of another ____ ____________ with the intent to commit a _________ inside. |
breaking and entering |
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Can one commit burglary if instead of breaking in, the D gains entry through fraud, threats, or intimidation? |
Yes - this is known as constructive breaking. |
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Burglary requires the _________ intent to steal, rob, rape, assault, etc. |
specific |
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States have modified three of the common law elements of burglary - which 3? |
breaking |
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Common law arson is the ________ burning of a building. |
Malicious. |
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For common law arson, “burning” requires a ________ _________ and scorching is not enough, but charring is. |
material wasting. |
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For arson, is it enough that the carpet or furniture inside a building has been burned? |
No. It must be the building itself that burns, but it could be the walls (not the whole building). |
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When a statute criminalizes the possession of contraband (e.g., drugs, stolen property, child pornography), “possession” means: |
control |
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For possession of contraband, the contraband need not be in the defendant’s actual possession, so long as it is close enough for him to exercise |
dominion and control. |
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The requisite mental state for possession of contraband is ___________ of the possession and of the character of the item possessed. |
Knowledge. |
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Receiving stolen property requires _____ that personal property has been obtained criminally by another with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of his interest in the property. |
Knowledge. |
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An accomplice is one who _________ assists the principal and intends the principal commits the substantive/underlying offense and actually _______, _______ or _____________ the principal _________ or _________ the commission of the crime. |
Intentionally |
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For accomplice liability involving a store clerk or other sale of ordinary goods, is it enough that someone knows that a crime may result from the aid he is providing? |
No. Mere knowledge is not enough. |
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How can an accomplice avoid criminal liability before the crime is committed? |
The accomplice can WITHDRAWAL, though the manner in which this is done depends on how he assisted the principal. |
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A person who helps a principal who has already committed a felony knowing that the crime has been committed and intends to help the principal avoid arrest or conviction is guilty of . . . |
accessory after the fact. |
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When a corporate agent engages in criminal conduct, the |
on behalf of |
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Asking someone to commit a crime, with the intent that the crime be committed is . . . |
solicitation. |
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For solicitation, must the crime be completed? |
No - the asking triggers criminal liability and it does not matter whether the person asked actually agrees or if the crime is actually committed. |
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Conspiracy is the agreement between ____________ to commit a crime plus an _________ ________ in furtherance of the crime. |
two or more people |
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An “overt act” for conspiracy liability can be any act even if merely ___________ performed by __________ of the co-conspirators. |
prepatory |
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The mental state required for conspiracy is the specific intent to enter into an _____________ and to accomplish the __________ of the conspiracy. |
agreement |
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For conspiracy, is criminal liability avoided if the underlying crime objective is not carried out? |
No. |
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Can you have a one-person conspiracy at:
-common law? |
No. CL requires at least 2 people. |
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Vicarious “Pinkerton” Liability means that: |
furtherance |
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Under the common law, attempt is proven by showing the defendant’s conduct was __________ _________ to commission of the crime. |
Common law: Dangerously Close |
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All inchoate offenses require ____________ intent to commit the underlying crime. |
specific |
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Because you cannot attempt unintentional crimes (since you cannot intend to do something unintentional) there are no attempt versions of 3 crimes . . . |
recklessness crimes |
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The only instance a defendant can use withdrawal, renunciation, or abandonment as a defense is for _____________ crimes. |
CONSPIRACY. |
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Solicitation and attempt merge with the completed crime; however __________ does not merge. |
CONSPIRACY. |
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Under the MPC test for insanity (which is used in only a minority of jurisdictions), a defendant must establish that he lacked the substantial capacity to EITHER: |
appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct |
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For a defendant to raise the insanity defense, he must have been insane ______________. |
at the time of the crime. |
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For incompetency defense, defendant must show that at the time of the __________, he cannot EITHER . . . . |
trial (NOT crime). |
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If at the time of the crime, D is less than ________ years old, prosecution is NOT allowed. |
7 |
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If at the time of the crime, D is less than ____________ years old, there is a rebuttable presumption AGAINST prosecution. |
14. |
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If at the time, D is ______ or older, prosecution is allowed. |
14. |
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A _______________ mistake of fact can e a defense to any crime except a crime of strict liability. |
reasonable |
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A ___________________ mistake of fact will be a defense only to specific intent crimes. |
unreasonable. |
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Under the “Initial Aggressor” Rule, a defendant may not use deadly force if he is the initial aggressor – that is, the person who started the fight. But, the initial aggressor can “regain” his right to use deadly force in self-defense if: |
withdraws |
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If a D is mistaken about the need to use unlawful force in self defense, a reasonable mistake will be a _______________. In most jurisdictions, an unreasonable mistake is _____________. |
complete defense |
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(1) Nondeadly force may be used, if reasonably necessary, to prevent any |
breach of the peace |
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The defense of necessity is unavailable if: |
property |
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Duress is a defense to criminal conduct if the defendant was ____________ to commit a crime because of a threat, from another person, of ______________ death or serious bodily injury to himself or a close family member. |
coerced |
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Duress can never be a defense to ___________. |
Homicide. |
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If a defendant believes that the government unfairly tempted him to commit a crime, he may claim entrapment. To prevail on the defense, the defendant must prove that: |
originates |
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Police officers are generally entitled to use whatever force is reasonably required, including deadly force, to apprehend or prevent the escape of a felon who poses a threat of ...... |
serious bodily harm to the officer or others. |