Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
180 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Q.A system comprises of a collection of the following |
Answer- Products - -Process |
|
Q.Integration is a combination of a variety of components such as? |
Answer- (a) People (b) Procedures (c) Technology |
|
Q. Electrical integration refers to?
|
ANS- Where all systems receive power and are interconnected |
|
A logical method of problem solving in which a comprehensive solution is developed relative to a problem having several dimensions is known as? |
ANS- System approach |
|
An approach that follows three general steps, assessment of vulnerability, implementation of counter measures and valuation of effectiveness is known as? |
ANS- Systems approach |
|
Q.Coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk is known as? |
ANS- Risk Management |
|
Q.An uncertain situation in which a number of possible outcomes might occur, one or more of which is undesirable is known as? |
ANS- Risk |
|
Q. A necessary part of risk management and a process of defining big the risk is known as? |
ANS- Risk Assessment |
|
The following are some of the questions risk analysts attempt to answer. |
ANS- a)What can go wrong? (b) What is the likelihood that it would go wrong? (c) What are the consequences? |
|
To manage risk the following questions are necessary. |
ANS- a) What can be done? (b) What options are available? (c) What are their associated tradeoffs interms of costs, benefits and risks? (d) What are the impacts of current decisions (i.e. policy) on future options? |
|
The following are some of the ways of reducing risks |
ANS- (a) Preventing an attack by detecting it before it is underway (b) Protecting against an attack (c) Reducing (mitigation) consequences |
|
The following are classes of adversary. |
ANS - (a) Insiders (b) Outsiders (c) Outsiders in collusion with the outsiders |
|
Both insiders and outsiders adversary use the following tactics |
ANS - (a) Deceit (b) Force (c) Stealth (d) Combination of all the above |
|
Adversaries may be motivated by one of the following? |
ANS- (a) Ideological reasons (b) Financial reasons (c) Personal reasons |
|
Q.A threat spectrum consisting of a small group of two or five unarmed people, whose intent is to deface low-value Company Assets or employee vehicles on site are generally referred to as? |
ANS- Vandals |
|
Desire to attack a person at the site, such as a manager or spouse or cause damage to equipment at site is normally carried by? |
ANS- Disgruntled employee |
|
These may be one or five people whose goal is theft or valuable property from the site, their goal is to gain financially by selling the stolen items so they will carry hand or power tools to enter the site or access the asset and they will carefully plan their attack. They may carry small weapons but are unlikely to use them. They may have insider assistance and will break of the attack if detected. These are referred to as? |
ANS- Criminals |
|
This threat consists of medium sized to large group of people (20 and up) whose goal is to bring attention to a practice of targeted site. Their motivation is ideological; they may be environmentalists, animal rights groups, anti or pro-abortion demonstrators, or shareholders. They are non-violent but may resist eviction from site and will ignore verbal commands to leave. This group is known as? |
ANS- Extremists |
|
Which one of the following is an example of assets whose losses is critical to the company and have unacceptably high consequence of loss? (a) Employee (b) Proprietary formula (c) Research and development results (d) All the above |
ANS- (d) All the above |
|
The control of persons, vehicles, and materials through the implementation of security measures for a protected area. |
ANS- access control |
|
Combination of sensors, controls, and annunciators (devices that announce an alarm via sound, light, or other means) arranged to detect and report an intrusion or other emergency |
ANS- alarm system: |
|
Any tangible or intangible value (people, property, information) to the organization |
ANS- asset |
|
A natural or man-made obstacle to the movement/direction of persons, animals,vehicles, or materials. |
ANS- barrier |
|
A surveillance system in which a signal is transmitted to monitors/recording, and control equipment. Includes closed-circuit television (CCTV) and network- based video systems |
ANS- video surveillance |
|
The average rate of flow of people or vehicles through an access point |
ANS- throughput |
|
An electronically encoded device (i.e., a card, key-fob, etc.) that contains information capable of being read by electronic devices placed within or at the entry and exit points of a protected facility. |
ANS- token |
|
An action or event that could result in a loss; an indication that such an action or event might take place. |
ANS- threat |
|
To follow closely. In access control, the attempt by more than one individual to enter a controlled area by immediately following an individual with proper access. Also called piggybacking |
ANS- tailgating |
|
Observation of a location, activity, or person. |
ANS- surveillance |
|
The distance between the asset and the threat, typically regarding an explosive threat |
ANS- stand-off distance/set-back |
|
Implementation of enhancement measures to make a site more difficult to penetrate. |
ANS- site hardening |
|
An exploitable security weakness. |
ANS- security vulnerability |
|
A thorough physical examination of a facility and its systems and procedures, conducted to assess the current level of security, locate deficiencies, and gauge the degree of protection needed. |
ANS- security survey |
|
An individual, in uniform or plain clothes, employed to protect assets. |
ANS- security officer |
|
A practice or device designed to protect people and prevent damage to, loss of, or unauthorized access to equipment, facilities, material, and information |
ANS- security measure |
|
An occurrence or action likely to impact assets. |
ANS- security incident |
|
An employee or contractor with management-level responsibility for the security program of an organization or facility. |
ANS- security manager |
|
The act of discovering an attempt (successful or unsuccessful) to breach a secured perimeter (such as scaling a fence, opening a locked window, or entering an area without authorization). |
ANS: detection |
|
Frustration of an adversary’s attempt to engage in behavior that would constitute a security incident (see security incident) |
ANS: denial |
|
An approach to reducing crime or security incidents through the strategic design of the built environment, typically employing organizational, mechanical, and natural methods to control access, enhance natural surveillance and territoriality, and support legitimate activity. |
ANS: crime prevention through environmental design (CPTED) |
|
Degree of illumination; also, equipment, used indoors and outdoors, for increasing illumination (usually measured in lux or foot-candle units |
ANS: lighting |
|
A system that uses a sensor(s) to detect an impending or actual security breach and to initiate an alarm or notification of the event |
ANS: intrusion detection system |
|
A piece of equipment used to prevent undesired opening, typically of an aperture (gate, window, building door, vault door, etc.), while still allowing opening by authorized users. |
ANS: lock |
|
Safeguarding of a boundary or limit |
ANS: perimeter protection |
|
That part of security concerned with physical measures designed to safeguard people; to prevent unauthorized access to equipment, facilities, material, and documents; and to safeguard them against a security incident (see security incident). |
ANS: physical security |
|
A general statement of a principle according to which an organization performs business functions. |
ANS: policy |
|
The nongovernmental, private-sector practice of protecting people, property, and information; conducting investigations; and otherwise safeguarding an organization’s assets. These functions may be performed for an organization by an internal department (usually called proprietary security) or by an external, hired firm (usually called contract security). |
ANS: private security |
|
An individual, in uniform or plain clothes, employed by an organization to protect assets (see assets). Also known as a “guard”. |
ANS: private security officer |
|
Detailed implementation instructions for carrying out security policies; often presented as forms or as lists of steps to be taken prior to or during a security incident (see security incident). |
ANS: procedure |
|
Occurs when the failure of a primary structural element results in the failure of adjoining structural elements, which in turn causes further structural failure. The resulting damage progresses to other parts of the structure, resulting in a partial or total collapse of the building |
ANS: progressive collapse |
|
Valuable information, owned by a company or entrusted to it, which has not been disclosed publicly; specifically, information that is not readily accessible to others, that was created or collected by the owner at considerable cost, and that the owner seeks to keep confidential. |
ANS: proprietary information |
|
Typically, a department within a company that provides security services for that company. |
ANS: proprietary security organization |
|
The strategy of forming layers of protection for an asset (see assets). |
ANS: protection-in-depth |
|
The likelihood of loss resulting from a threat, security incident, or event. |
ANS: risk |
|
The process of assessing security-related risks from internal and external threats to an entity, its assets, or personnel. |
ANS: risk assessment |
|
A business discipline consisting of three major functions: loss prevention, loss control, and loss indemnification. |
ANS: risk management |
|
An occurrence or action likely to impact assets. |
ANS:security incident |
|
security manager: An employee or contractor with management-level responsibility for the security program of an organization or facility. |
ANS: security manager |
|
The value of an objective, fair and competent preemployment background screening is: |
ANS: Determine facts not otherwise verifiable |
|
In the graphic flow chart depicting the general risk assessment in page 7 of the Guideline, what does the term ‘reassessment’ represent? |
ANS: Process improvement |
|
Scatter plot is a tool / method to establish an overall risk ranking of an organization as defined in the Guideline. What else does the tool hope to achieve in the risk assessment process? |
ANS: Estimating probability |
|
Which of the following methods are recommended for the secure disposal of Consumer information stored in electronic media? |
ANS: Irretrievable destruction |
|
Keeping both sides of a barrier clear of vehicles, refuse piles, weedy patches, heavy under growth or anything else to allow for unobstructed view is referred to as? |
ANS: Clear zone |
|
One of the basic CPTED strategies is to design multiple layers of security measures so that highly protected assets are behind multiple barriers. This strategy is referred to as? |
ANS: Compartmentalization |
|
Proprietary information is: |
ANS: Anything that an enterprise considers relevant to its status or operations and does not want it publicly disclosed |
|
The ASIS International Guidelines Commission recommended steps to follow when conducting General Security Risk Assessment in organizations. The first step is the understanding the organization and identifying the people and assets at risk. Which is the last step in the process? |
ANS: Perform cost benefit analysis |
|
Information that has the government grant of a right, privilege or authority to exclude others from making, using, selling, marketing or offering for sale for a specified period of 20 years from date of filing is referred to as: |
ANS: Patent |
|
The class of person under a duty to safeguard proprietary information is referred to as: |
ANS: Fiduciary |
|
The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated upon analysis of the following two factors. |
ANS: Criticality and vulnerability |
|
Barriers are used to discourage three types of penetration |
ANS: By accident, by force and by stealth |
|
The process whereby communications are intercepted or recorded is known as |
ANS: Technical surveillance |
|
The act of obscuring the meaning of a piece of information by altering or encoding it in such a way that it can only be decoded, read and understood by people for whom the information is intended is called |
ANS: Encryption |
|
Checking on electronic bugs, hidden mics and other eavesdropping equipment in a facility is one of the objectives of |
ANS: Electronic countermeasures |
|
That information that an organization relies upon to accomplish its mission and support business decisions is called |
ANS: Sensitive |
|
Identity verification, personal history verification and credentialing are examples of |
ANS: Key elements in pre-employment background screening |
|
An individual may bring a claim of violation of personal information |
ANS: (a) 2 years after discovering the violation (b)5 years after the date the violation occurred |
|
Negligent hiring, negligent supervision and negligent retention are examples of |
ANS: Negligent theories |
|
Crimes which are non-criminal and consequential are examples of: |
ANS: Torts |
|
A fence or wall can do the following: |
ANS: (a)Give notice of the legal boundary of the premises. (b)Help channel entry through a secured area by deterring entry elsewhere along the boundary. (c)Provide a zone for installing intrusion detection equipment and video surveillance system. (d)Deter casual intruders from penetrating a secured area. (e)Force an intruder to demonstrate his or her intent to enter the property. |
|
The interview is usually the first opportunity for an employer to meet face to face with applicants. A well-planned and executed interview can accomplish some goals; |
ANS: (a)Convey critical information to the applicant in order to discourage inappropriate applicants and to encourage honesty. (b)Allow for the transfer of missing information from the applicant to the employer (c)The interview provides the employer a chance to assess the skills, qualifications, and credentials of the applicant in person. |
|
What critical items should every application form contain? |
ANS: (a)Application forms may include the question, ‘‘have you ever been convicted of a crime? If yes, please explain.’’ (b)Application forms should include a statement that untruthfulness or material omissions are grounds to terminate the hiring process or employment, no matter when discovered (c)The application form should allow the applicant to indicate whether the current employer may be contacted for a reference. |
|
Why should Employers be cautious on using social media tools for background checks during screening? |
ANS: (a)There can be an issue of whether the online information was in fact posted by the applicant (b)An employer can potentially face allegations of unlawful discrimination if the online research reveals information that may not be used directly or indirectly to limit a person’s employment opportunities (c)Social networking sites, blogs, chat rooms, and other Internet information may contain information that a person did not intend for an employer to view. |
|
Who Is Typically Involved in the Pre-employment Background Screening Process |
ANS: (a)Security division (b)Legal division (c)Human resource division |
|
The first line of defense in the recruitment and selection of quality and risk-free applicants for the organization is: |
ANS: Human resource division |
|
A general statement of the way the organization implements a policy |
ANS: Procedure |
|
A general statement of a principle according to which an organization performs business functions |
ANS: Policy |
|
The failure to properly screen job applicants, particularly for sensitive positions involving a high degree of interaction with the public is known as |
ANS: Negligent hiring |
|
An employer’s indirect liability for the wrongful acts of an employee committed within the course and scope of employment is known as; |
ANS: Respondent supervisor |
|
There are many reasons for conducting a pre-employment screening. Providing a safe work environment and protecting the public is one such good consideration. What does it involve? |
ANS: (a)Protecting organization’s assets (people, property, and information). (b)Fostering peace of mind. (c)Reducing risk of legal liabilities, including failure to perform due diligence, negligent hiring, and equitable treatment of applicant pool. |
|
A legal right or interest that a creditor has in another’s property, lasting usually until a debt or duty that it secures is satisfied. |
ANS: Lien |
|
An inquiry into the history and behaviors of an individual under consideration for employment, credit, access to sensitive assets (such as national defense information), and other reasons. |
ANS: Background screening |
|
What term is defined as “a denial of employment or any other decision for employment purposes that adversely affects any current or prospective employee.” |
ANS: Adverse Action |
|
To measure total loss impact accurately, this also must be included. The following formula can be used: |
ANS: (a)I = P×r×t ÷365 Where: I = income earned P = principal amount (in dollars) available for investment r = annual per cent rate of return t = time (in days) during which P is available for investment |
|
“If other personnel or equipment are idle or underutilized because of the absence of an asset lost through a security incident, the cost of the downtime also is attributable to the loss event”. Which of the following is described above? |
ANS: Related/Consequent cost |
|
The quantitative approach of security risk assessment involves consideration of the following; |
ANS: a)Loss event profile (b)Probability factors (c)Loss event probability or frequency |
|
Organization internal documents, prior complaints from employees, customers, guests, visitors, prior civil claims for inadequate security, local police crime statistics and presence of a crime magnet are All information sources for; |
ANS: Determining loss risk event |
|
Which is the correct step-by-step process of conducting a general security risk assessment of an organization; |
ANS: i)Identify assets, ii)Specify loss events, iii)Frequency of events, iv)Impacts of events, v)Options to mitigate, vi)Feasibility of options, vii)Cost benefit analysis, viii)Decision |
|
The process of assessing security-related risks from internal and external threats to an entity, its assets, or personnel is known as: |
ANS: Risk Assessment |
|
An occurrence that actually produces a financial loss or negative impact on assets and which may include security incidents, crimes, war, natural hazards, or disasters is termed as: |
ANS: Loss event |
|
The impact of a loss event typically calculated as the net cost of that event and who’s impact can range from fatal, resulting in a total recapitalization, abandonment, or long-term discontinuance of the enterprise, to relatively unimportant is termed as: |
ANS: Criticality |
|
A process in planning, related to the decision to commit funds or asset and which is a systematic attempt to measure or analyze the value of all the benefits that accrue from a particular expenditure is: |
ANS: Cost /benefit analysis |
|
These light sources are often used at sports stadiums because they imitate daylight; for the same reason, they work well with video surveillance system by providing accurate color rendition. |
ANS: Metal halide |
|
The following lamp is the least efficient, the most expensive to operate, and has a short life span: |
ANS: Incandescent |
|
Video surveillance can be valuable component of a facility security program. Which of the following is not a primary use of video surveillance? (a)Detect activities that call for security response (b)Assist with incident assessment (c)Deterrence of intruders into the premises (d)Collect images of a n incident for later review |
ANS: (c)Deterrence of intruders into the premises |
|
What factor helps protect premises against attacks such as forced entry, ballistic attack, or bomb blast and natural disasters such as earthquakes, hurricanes, or tornadoes: |
ANS: Structural integrity |
|
Department of Defense (DOD) K8 bollards are designed to |
ANS: A 15,000 pound vehicle traveling at 40 mph. |
|
What type of lighting that is turned on automatically at random intervals and when security personnel suspect suspicious activity? |
ANS: Standby |
|
A good design feature for a chain link fence to enhance security is the height. The higher the barrier, the more difficult and time-consuming it is to breach. What is the recommended for a high security requirement; |
ANS: 18-20 ft. (5.4-6.0 meter) fence |
|
The following physical controls are normal at this layer: window and door bars, locks, barriers, signs, intrusion detection systems, and protective lighting. Which layer is this? |
ANS Middle layer |
|
When protecting an asset what are the ideal layers of security put in place in a security design. |
ANS: Outer, Middle & Inner protection |
|
Crime prevention through environmental design strategies are classified as follows; |
ANS: -Mechanical measures, -Organizational -Natural or Architectural Measures. |
|
Which of the following is not a category of general security lighting equipment? (a)Floodlight (b)Search light (c)Continuous lighting (d)High mast lighting |
ANS: (c)Continuous lighting |
|
The control of persons, vehicles, and materials through the implementation of security measures for a protected area is also known as; |
ANS: Access controls |
|
To choose the right physical security measures and apply them appropriately, it is important to first; |
ANS: (a)Conduct a risk analysis (b)Do a risk assessment (c)Do a security survey |
|
Pre-employment background screening is conducted to |
ANS: a)Help in making the best hiring decision b)Providing a safe work environment and protection of the public |
|
The scope of the pre-employment background screen typically addresses the following key elements: |
ANS: a)Identify verification b)Personal history verification c)Credentialing |
|
In general security risk assessment options to mitigate risks are developed through the following |
ANS: a)Physical security processes b)Procedural security processes c)Logical security processes |
|
Cost benefit analysis consist of |
ANS: a)Identification of consequences of expenditure b)Assignment of monetary value to all costs and benefits resulting from the expenditure c)Discounting expected future costs and revenues accruing from the expenditure |
|
Information asset security protection policy statement is based on the premise that |
ANS: a)Information is one of the most important resources b)All information needs to be appropriately evaluated according to its sensitivity c)Protection measures to ensure confidentiality, integrity, availability and accountability |
|
Physical security measures in an organization are typically managed and employed in accordance with: |
ANS: Policies and procedures |
|
Implementation of enhancement measures to make a site more difficult to penetrate is: |
ANS: Site hardening |
|
The strategy of forming layers of security for an asset which is also called compartmentation is: |
ANS: Protection in depth |
|
The process of assessing security-related risks from internal and external threats to an entity, its assets, or personnel is referred to as |
ANS: Risk assessment |
|
As part of the employment process, employers should review the chronological order of employment history, education, military history, and volunteer service to determine if gaps or inconsistencies exist. This process involving verifying the experience and qualifications that are presented by the applicant is known as: |
ANS: Credentialing |
|
A case involving one party suing another party for an injury in civil court for actions other than breach of contract and which involve both intentional conduct and unintentional conduct is a: |
ANS: Tort case |
|
An important beginning step in the preemployment background screening process and which is considered a best practice is: |
ANS: Employment application |
|
The most compelling reasons for Preemployment Background Screening are making the best hiring decision and providing a safe work environment and protecting the public. Is this statement tru or false? |
ANS: True |
|
An employer’s indirect liability for the wrongful acts of an employee committed within the course and scope of employment is |
ANS: Respondent superior |
|
A serious crime typically punishable by imprisonment for more than one year or by death is a: |
ANS: Felony |
|
An inquiry into the history and behaviors of an individual under consideration for employment, credit, access to sensitive assets (such as national defense information), and other reasons is |
ANS: Background Screening |
|
A classification of sensitivity protection used for proprietary information that could allow a competitor to take action which could seriously damage our competitive position in the marketplace, or the disclosure of which could cause significant damage to the organization’s financial or competitive position is referred to as |
ANS: Highly restricted |
|
A weakness or organizational practice that may facilitate or allow a threat to be implemented or increase the magnitude of the impact of a loss event is: |
ANS: Vulnerability |
|
The technical term for all forms and types of financial, business, scientific, technical, economic, or engineering information, including patterns, plans, compilations, program devices is |
ANS: Trade secret |
|
Which of the following is best described as the information that has the government grant of a right, privilege, or authority to exclude other from making, using, marketing, selling, offering for sale, importing an invention for a specified period granted to the inventor if the device is useful or nonobvious? |
ANS: Patent |
|
Intrusion Detection Systems are integral factors in a security program’s effort to provide protection. The systematic process entails the following four stages: |
ANS: Deter, Detect, Delay, Respond |
|
These lamps are one of the newest lighting sources and have the potential of furnishing a cost effective alternative that lasts longer: |
ANS: Light-emitting diodes |
|
A general security lighting system that typically projects a narrow, horizontal beam which illuminates a large area and may be used to illuminate potential intruders while leaving security personnel concealed is called: |
ANS: Fresnel |
|
The access control systems that uses technology to control the entire access process, potentially eliminating the need for personnel to authenticate manual access is referred to as: |
ANS: Automated access control systems |
|
In physical entry and access control, an adversary may use several types of attacks to defeat an access control point: What is the type of attack where the adversary forges a credential, guesses a personal identification number, or obtains another person’s credential |
ANS: Technical attack |
|
Structural design that prevents the loss of a primary structural member from causing the further failure of primary structural members beyond the local damage zone is accomplished through: |
ANS: Prevention of progressive collapse |
|
Glass composed of two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to a middle layer or layers of plastic sheeting material and which may crack and break but the pieces of glass tend to adhere to the plastic material is known as: |
ANS: Laminated glass |
|
Barbed wire strands should be tightly stretched and attached firmly to posts spaced at what distance apart |
ANS: 6 ft |
|
If intended to discourage human trespassing, fences constructed entirely of barbed wire should be at what heightl, not counting the top guard: |
ANS: 7ft |
|
Top rail should be placed at intervals not exceeding |
ANS: Two feet |
|
Barbed wire should be installed atop the fence on an outward facing top guard angle of: |
ANS: 45 degrees |
|
The most common perimeter barriers are fencing and walls. A fence or wall defines an area, may stop a casual trespasser, and tells people they are at a protected property line. Fences and walls usually only deter or delay entry, they do not prevent it entirely. Is this true or false: |
ANS: True |
|
At the outermost point at which physical security measures are used against illegitimate and unauthorized activities, the systematic process employed entails: |
ANS: Deter, detect, delay and respond |
|
An approach to reducing crime or security incidents through the strategic design of the built environment, employing organizational, mechanical, and natural methods to control access, enhance natural surveillance and territoriality, and support legitimate activity is referred to as: |
ANS: CPTED |
|
No risk assessment is permanent and, depending upon the extent and speed of changes within the enterprise, reassessments will be required periodically. When should these be done: |
ANS: A minimum of at least once a year |
|
Below are probability ratings that a certain event will or will not occur. Which one is not a probability rating: a. Highly probable b. Virtually Certain c. Moderately probable d. Not Probable |
ANS: d. Not Probable |
|
The final step in conducting a security risk analysis is to determine what the actual costs are of the implementation of a program and weigh those costs against the impact of the loss, financially or otherwise. What is the technical name for this process? |
ANS: . Cost/Benefit analysis |
|
The General Security Risk Assessment is a process that creates a methodology for security professionals by which security risks at a specific location can be identified and communicated, along with appropriate solutions. How many steps are in this process? |
ANS: Seven |
|
A detailed examination including risk assessment, risk evaluation, and risk management alternatives, performed to understand the nature of unwanted, negative consequences to human life, health, property, or the environment is best described as: |
ANS: Risk analysis |
|
The process or analysis relating to, concerning, or based on the amount or number of something, capable of being measured or expressed in numerical terms is known as. |
ANS: Quantitative |
|
The impact of a loss event, typically calculated as the net cost of that event is known as: |
ANS: Criticality |
|
The following are methods of valuing assets. |
ANS: a) Use of dollars (b) Use of consequence criteria (c) Use of policy |
|
Which one of the following assets valuation criteria is often used by government? |
ANS: Valuation by policy |
|
How can loss impact be measured? |
ANS: (a) Effect on employee morale (b) Effect on community relations (c) Dollars |
|
Why would security professionals have difficulty in achieving sufficient credibility or acceptance with enterprise management? |
ANS: Absence of quantitative evaluations of security effort |
|
Security cost justification means? |
ANS: Not spending more than the benefits desired are worth |
|
The cost of direct security losses include the following |
ANS: (a) Loss of money (b) Negotiable instruments (c) Property (d) Information |
|
The components of the cost of permanent deplacement include the following |
ANS: (a) Purchase price or manufacturing cost (b) Freight and shipping charges (c) Make ready or preparation cost to install it or make it functional |
|
Vulnerability assessment team should be led by? |
ANS: Security Specialist |
|
Other than the security specialist, the following should be members of vulnerability assessment team |
ANS: (a) Security systems engineer (b) Response expert (c) Data analyst (d) Operations representatives |
|
The following are the three primary functions of PPS |
ANS: Detection, delay responses |
|
The discovery of covert or overt action by an adversary is known as? |
ANS: Detection |
|
The process which an adversary is slowed down and can be accomplished through such means as personnel, barriers, locks is known as? |
ANS: Delay |
|
Which among the following is a secondary function of PPS? |
ANS: Deterrence |
|
A well-engineered PPS exhibits the following except? |
ANS: (a) Protection –in-depth (b) Minimum consequences of component failure (c) Balanced protection |
|
The effect produced on the adversary by the system that provides protection -in-depth will be? |
ANS: a) To increase uncertainty about the system (b) To require more expensive preparations prior to attacking the system (c) To create additional steps where the adversary may fail to abort the mission |
|
An effective PPS combines people, procedures and equipment into an Intergrated system that protects assets from expected threat. True or false? |
ANS: True |
|
The following are examples of deterrence |
ANS: (a) Security officers in parking lots (b) Adequate lighting at night (c) Signs and barriers such as bars on windows |
|
In PPS, which one of the following is considered as a first line of defense? |
ANS: Deterrence |
|
Proper design and proper use of built environment can lead to a reduction in the opportunity, fear and incidence of predatory stranger – to- stranger type of crime as well as result in an improvement of the quality of life (of where and how we live, work and play). This theory is known as? |
ANS: Cpted Theory |
|
CPTED Theory is a multidisciplinary approach which uses the following |
ANS: (a) Planners (b) Designers (c) Architects (d) Landscapers (e) Law enforcement (f) Security professionals |
|
By planting dense, thorny bushes near the windows or installing window locking devises or alarm system to deter burglars from entering low story windows. This process is known as:- |
ANS: Natural access control |
|
The process of establishing a sense of ownership, responsibility and accountability in property owners, managers or occupants to increase vigilance in identifying trespassers is known as? |
ANS: Natural territorial reinforcement |
|
The following crime prevention operating assumptions apply to Cpted? |
ANS: (a) Potential victims and those responsible for their safety must be assisted to take informed actions to reduce their vulnerability to crime. (b) The actions of potential victims can take to prevent crime are limited by the control they can exert over their environment (c) Emphasis must be given to the environment of the potential victim rather than that of potential criminal |
|
According to the New Zealand Ministry of Justice (2005) crime and anti social behavior are more likely to occur under the following conditions |
ANS: (a) Pedestrian routes are poorly lit and away from traffic (b) Streets, footpaths and alleyways provide access to the rear of the building (c) It is easy for people to become lost or disoriented |
|
The following cpted concept can be used to prevent repeat victimization? |
ANS: (a) Quickly remove signs of victimization (b) Improve physical security (c) Block easy access to targets (d) Protect especially vulnerable targets |