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121 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Answer: A,E

Explanation:It defines the electrical and physical specifications of the data connection. It defines therelationship between a device and a physical transmission medium (e.g. a copper or fiber opticalcable). This includes the layout of pins, voltages, line impedance, cable specifications, signaltiming, hubs, repeaters, network adapters, host bus adapters (HBA used in storage area networks)and more."
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address(Choose two.)?

A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Answer: B,C
B. Bridge
C. Switch
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching?

A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
Answer: C,D
C. Star
D. Extended star
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Answer: C
C. switch
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: D
D. 4
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Answer: A,C
A. 1
C. 3
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?

A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Answer: E

E. Transport
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model?

A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Answer: B,D,F

B. Bits
D. Segments
F. Frames
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Answer: D,E
D. 5
E. 6
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access
layer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: A,B
layer 1,2
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?

A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.

B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the
information classification level.

C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.

D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol
Answer: D
The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3
Ethernet frame?
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control

Answer B


Ether Type


What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Answer: B,E
Operate at OSI Layer 2
Create multiple collision domains

What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Answer: B,C,E
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
E. Switches have many ports.
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
C. Flood packet on all ports

Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.

What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain

E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between

Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose
four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.

Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
D. client
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16
B. They are not globally routable.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16

Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer filesharing
applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.

What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every
person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.

Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
A. session multiplexing
C. connection-oriented
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery
A. session multiplexing
E. best-effort packet delivery

Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host
addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
A. 255.255.255.240
H. /28
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
D. 10100010001
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
B. 10011101111
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
A. RIP
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
A. EIGRP
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
C. OSPF
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
D. 15
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes
B. 30 seconds
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
C. The entire routing table
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE
802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.

B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off
B. No switchport
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI.
What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10
nexus(config-if)#switchport
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco
Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
D. 4.1
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager
D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
C. System Manager
D. PSS
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose
four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
A. Cisco TrustSec
C. CoPP
D. port security
H. ACLs
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol
F. OSPF
A. UDLD
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol
What are three modular Layer 3 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP
E. OSPF
F. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. PIM
C. HSRP
E. OSPF
What are two default user roles in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. Admin
B. Network Operator
C. Operator
D. Storage Operator
E. Root
F. System Manager
A. Admin
B. Network Operator
On most keyboards, the Up arrow and Down arrow keys move through the command history.
Which two key sequences can be used as alternatives? (Choose two.)
A. Alt-A
B. Alt-F
C. Alt-N
D. Alt-E
E. Alt-P
C. Alt-N
E. Alt-P
What is the function of the Tab key on the Cisco Nexus Operating System command-line
interface?
A. redisplays the current command line
B. deletes all characters from the cursor to the end of the command line
C. clears the terminal screen
D. completes a partially entered command if enough characters are present
E. moves the cursor one word to the right
D. completes a partially entered command if enough characters are present
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the running configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
A. RAM
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
E. NVRAM
Which two commands would you use to erase the Cisco Nexus Operation System configuration
and return the switch to factory defaults? (Choose two.)
A. nexus# write erase boot
B. nexus# erase configuration
C. nexus# erase running-configuration
D. nexus# erase startup-configuration
E. nexus# reboot
F. nexus# reload
G. nexus# shutdown
A. nexus# write erase boot
F. nexus# reload
What is the minimum required command to enter global configuration mode on a Cisco Nexus
switch?
A. nexus# con
B. nexus# configure
C. nexus# configure global
D. nexus# configure terminal
A. nexus# con
Which option would you use to exit the Cisco Nexus Operating System interface configuration
mode and return to the exec prompt?
A. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-C
nexus#
B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Z
nexus#
C. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-E
nexus#
D. nexus(config-if)#exit
nexus#
B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Znexus#
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny unencrypted
Web traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)#ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
N5K-A(config)#access-list 101permit ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny FTP traffic
from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
N5K-A(config)#access-list 101denyip any any
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny hosts on the
172.16.1.0/21 network from accessing HTTP proxy servers listening on port 8080?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.7.255 any eq 8080
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any 172.16.1.0 255.255.248.0 eq 8080
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp172.16.1.0 0.0.15.255 eq 8080
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 172.16.1.0/21 eq 8080
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# denyudp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.7.255 any eq 8080
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to only permit
unencrypted Web traffic from the 172.16.1.0/25 network to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp host 172.16.1.0/25 any eq 80
B. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.128 any eq 80
C. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp 172.16.1.0/25 any eq 80
D. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp 172.16.1.0/25 0.0.0.128 eq 80
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp any 172.16.1.0 255.255.248.0 eq 80
C. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp 172.16.1.0/25 any eq 80
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
D. router
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
A. bus
Which network topology is most closely associated with FDDI?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Answer: E
When deploying 10BASE-2 Ethernet, which type of connector is used?
A. AUI
B. UTP
C. STP
D. BNC
E. RJ-11
F. RJ-45
G. ST
H. DC
D. BNC
When deploying 10BASE-2 Ethernet, what is the maximum cable length?
A. 100 meters
B. 100 feet
C. 150 meters
D. 150 feet
E. 185 meters
F. 185 feet
E. 185 meters
How many IP address ranges are specified in RFC 1918?
A. 1 in Class A, 2 in Class B, and 4 in Class C
B. 2 in Class A, 4 in Class B, and 8 in Class C
C. 4 in Class A, 8 in Class B, and 16 in Class C
D. 1 in Class A, 16 in Class B, and 256 in Class C
D. 1 in Class A, 16 in Class B, and 256 in Class C

What is required to allow devices that are using RFC 1918 addresses to communicate over the
Internet?
A. A private to public VLAN must be defined on the Internet border device.
B. The Internet firewall must permit RFC 1918 addresses.
C. VLAN translation is required on the Internet border device.
D. Network address translation is required on the Internet border device.
D. Network address translation is required on the Internet border device.
What is the addressing format of IPv6?
A. 48-bit dotted decimal
B. 48-bit colon-delimited hexadecimal
C. 64-bit dotted decimal
D. 64-bit colon-delimited hexadecimal
E. 128-bit dotted decimal
F. 128-bit colon-delimited hexadecimal
F. 128-bit colon-delimited hexadecimal
Which statement describes the function of the OSI transport layer?
A. It segments data from the system of the sending host and reassembles the data into a data
stream on the system of the receiving host.
B. It provides the connectivity and path selection between two host systems that may be located
on geographically separated networks.
C. It defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is
controlled.
D. It establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between two communicating hosts.
A. It segments data from the system of the sending host and reassembles the data into a datastream on the system of the receiving host.
Which transport protocol requires a three-way handshake to establish a new connection?
A. ARP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. TCP
D. TCP
What is the subnet mask for the network 172.16.0.0/21?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.248.240
F. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.248.0
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
A. AC.0D.63.E1
What is the decimal value of the hexadecimal number 0x718?
A. 718
B. 1816
C. 2907
D. 3511
B. 1816
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with Token Ring Media Access Control?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session
D. data link
Which device is a multiport bridge?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Gateway
D. Concentrator

B. Switch

Which action will a router take if it does not know the destination MAC address of a host?
A. Flood the packet out of every port.
B. Drop the packet.
C. Send an ARP request.
D. Send a proxy ARP request.
E. Send an ICMP unreachable message back to the source

C. Send out an ARP request

On which device would a VLAN be configured?
A. Router
B. Repeater
C. Hub
D. Switch
E. Gateway

D. Switch

You are designing a network that provides FCoE, FabricPath, OTV, and Layer 3 functionalities.
Which device can perform these functionalities?
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
D. Cisco ASR 1001 Router

Answer: B

A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to
provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender

Answer: A,C

Which network device is used to identify and protect against unauthorized traffic and controlaccess to legitimate business-critical data?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Stateless firewall
C. Router
D. Gateway
E. Switch

Answer: A

Which two Cisco data center switches provide support for Virtual Extensible LAN and In-ServiceSoftware Upgrade and patching without any interruption in operation? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 9396PX Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 9508 Switch
D. Cisco Nexus 6004 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 3064x Switch

Answer: A,C

Which layer of the OSI model ensures that information sent from one system can be read byanother system?
A. application layer
B. presentation layer
C. session layer
D. transport layer
E. network layer
F. data link layer
G. physical layer

Answer: B

Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI
layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP

Answer: B,C

Which Cisco data center switch can support a 4-RU physical space requirement and also support FEX, Layer 2 and Layer 3, converged FCoE, and up to ninety-six 40-Gigabit Ethernet ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 1010 Switch
D. Cisco Nexus 7004 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 Switch

Answer: E

Which device can provide FCoE connectivity?
A. Cisco 2901 Integrated Services Router
B. Cisco Nexus 2224TP Fabric Extender
C. Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
D. Cisco ASA 5510 Firewall

Answer: C

What are three characteristics of the Ethernet access method CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
A. It allows many stations access to the same wire.
B. It provides segmentation of a LAN.
C. It allows a transmitting station to detect activity on the wire.
D. It allows for detection of collisions on the wire.
E. It provides broadcast capability on the wire.

Answer: A,C,D

Which two MAC addresses are valid? (Choose two.)
A. 00:10:74:C9:CD:C0
B. 0010.CC71.4BF9.AE0E.AE0E
C. 00:10:F9:F9:CC:70:8D:80
D. 0010.E686.3ED4
E. 0010.68F7

Answer: A,D

What are three important factors when configuring VTP on the Cisco Nexus switching platform?
(Choose three.)
A. VLAN 1 must be disabled on the trunk port in order for VTP to work properly.
B. The VDC administrator or network administrator must enable VTP on the device.
C. VTP is enabled on all trunk ports by default.
D. It does not matter which VDC you are working in when you configure VTP on the Cisco Nexus
7000.
E. For a device operating in VTP client mode, the password and domain name must be properly set.
F. In VTP server mode, the device will store VLAN information in bootflash.
G. Per device, VTP configuration is stored in a file named vtp.conf.
H. VTP pruning can be used on Cisco NX-OS devices.

Answer: B,F,G

Which two statements about configuring VLANs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Software updates are disruptive to VLANs.
B. VLANs with the same number are unique to their VDC.
C. VLAN licensing is required for use.
D. To change VLAN information, the administrator must be at the switch (config) # prompt.
E. The command copy running-config startup-config will save changes to the VLAN database.

Answer: B,E

In Cisco NX-OS, which three options are possible spanning tree port types? (Choose three.)
A. bridge
B. network
C. normal
D. root
E. edge
F. fixed

Answer: B,C,E

Which two data center technologies are part of the IEEE 802.3 standard for Ethernet-based
LANs? (Choose two.)
A. 40 Gb/s
B. 10 Gb/s
C. WLAN
D. Smart Grid

Answer: A,B

What will cause a device to wait a random amount of time before trying to transmit again?
A. signal drop or fade
B. signal acknowledgment
C. packet drop
D. signal collision
E. keep alive signal
F. Ethernet silence tone

Answer: D

Which option includes the two devices that can be connected when a Cisco Fabric Extender
Transceiver is used?
A. Server to Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
B. Server to Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch
C. Server to Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
D. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender to Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch

Answer: D

What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m

Answer: C

What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m

Answer: B

If a Nexus switch receives a frame and does not have an entry in its MAC table for the source,
which action will take place?
A. The frame will be dropped.
B. The frame will be flooded.
C. The sender will be notified.
D. The source address will be learned.

Answer: D

Which three IP addresses are examples of an RFC 1918 address? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.3.1/24
B. 209.165.201.5/27
C. 209.165.200.225/27
D. 10.30.20.1/28
E. 192.168.200.50/24

Answer: A,D,E

An administrator wants a host with IP address 192.168.40.3 to communicate to hosts on the
Internet. How can this be achieved?
A. This type of communication cannot be achieved.
B. Network Address Translation must be used.
C. The perimeter firewall must permit RFC 1918 addresses to the Internet.
D. A dedicated VLAN should be provisioned to allow private-to-public translation.

Answer: B

In an IPv6 address, how many bits are used for the interface identifier?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10

Answer: C

How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256

Answer: D

What is the maximum distance that is supported between two devices that are connected via
Cisco Fabric Extender Transceivers?
A. 50 m
B. 75 m
C. 100 m
D. 150 m

Answer: C

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Nexus 7000
chassis for N 1 redundancy using M1-Series line card?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: A

What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000
chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

Answer: B

How many supervisor engines must a Cisco Nexus chassis contain to support the In-Service
Software Update feature?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

Answer: A

Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Which
configuration is used to configure EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp
!
interface Ethernet1/1
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
!
router eigrp 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp
!
router eigrp 1
autonomous-system 1
!
interface Ethernet1/1
ip address 10.1.1.1/24
ip router eigrp 1
no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1
autonomous-system 1
!
interface Ethernet1/1
ip address 10.1.1.1/24
ip router eigrp 1
no shutdown
D. feature eigrp
!
interface Ethernet1/1
ip address 10.1.1.1/24
no shutdown
!
router eigrp 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Answer: B

What is the command sequence to force a Cisco Nexus 6000 switch to boot using the golden
BIOS image?
A. Press Ctrl-Shift-6 within 30 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.
B. Press Ctrl-] within 2 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.
C. Press Ctrl-] within 30 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.
D. Press Ctrl-Shift-6 within 2 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.

Answer: D

The kickstart image is corrupted on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch. Which procedure is used to
download a new kickstart image?
A. Boot the system and press Ctrl-] while the memory test is in progress to interrupt the boot
loader.
B. Boot the system and press the Esc key while the memory test is in progress to interrupt the
boot loader.
C. Boot the system and press the Esc key after the BIOS memory test to interrupt the boot loader.
D. Boot the system and press Ctrl-] after the BIOS memory test to interrupt the boot loader.

Answer: C

Which situation results in a flashing blue status LED on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch I/O module?
A. The switch has just been powered on, and the module is resetting.
B. The module is resetting and both ejector levers are out.
C. The module has been inserted during the initialization process.
D. The module could not power up because of insufficient power.
E. The operator has activated this LED to identify this module in the chassis.

Answer: E

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3
B. Virtual Device Contexts
C. Virtual Port Channel
D. Fibre Channel

Answer: A,B

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Port Channel
B. Fibre Channel
C. FabricPath
D. iSCSI

Answer: B,C

Which two options describe what can happen when devices are in the same broadcast domain?
(Choose two.)
A. They are on the same VLAN and the same switch.
B. They are on different VLANs and the same switch.
C. They are on different VLANs and different switches.
D. They are on the same VLAN and different switches.

Answer: A,D

If a Nexus switch receives a frame and no MAC table entry is found for the destination, what will
take place?
A. The frame will be dropped.
B. The frame will be flooded.
C. The sender will be notified.
D. The destination address will be learned.

Answer: B

Which three addresses are valid forms of an IPv6 Address:
2001:0DB8:0000:FE01:0000:0000:0000:0000? (Choose three.)
A. 2001:0DB8:0000:FE01::
B. 2001:DB8:0:FE01::
C. 2001:0DB8::FE01::
D. 2001:DB8:0:FE01:0:0:0:0

Answer: A,B,D

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4

Answer: A

Which two addresses represent multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. 224.1.47.5
B. 240.100.22.3
C. FF05::1
D. 2001::1

Answer: A,C

At which layer in the OSI stack does the Hypertext Transfer Protocol operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
F. Layer 6
G. Layer 7

Answer: G

What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical

Answer: D

What is the default bridge ID priority for Rapid PVST+?
A. 128
B. 32769
C. 32768
D. 4096

Answer: B

When connecting a switch port to a virtualization host requiring 802.1q VLAN tagging, which
spanning-tree port type should be configured on the switch?
A. normal
B. edge
C. edge trunk
D. PortFast
E. trunk

Answer: C

How many bits are used for a subnet ID in an IPv6 address?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10

Answer: B

Given a subnet address of 10.6.128.0/22, how many IP addresses are usable for this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256

Answer: C

In Cisco NX-OS Software, which command redistributes a route of 0.0.0.0/0 into EIGRP?
A. default-information originate
B. default information originate
C. default information-originate
D. originate default-information
E. originate-default information

Answer: A

On a Cisco router, which configuration register setting bypasses the contents of the NVRAM?
A. 0x102
B. 0x2102
C. 0x2120
D. 0x2124
E. 0x2142

Answer: E