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256 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?


A. DNS


B. DHCPv6


C. DHCP


D. autoconfiguration

B. DHCPv6


D. autoconfiguration

What are two requirements for an HSRP group (Choose two.)?


A. exactly one active router


B. one or more standby routers


C. one or more backup virtual routers


D. exactly one standby active router


E. exactly one backup virtual router

A. exactly one active router


B. one or more standby routers

After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?


A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0


B. Router#show run


C. Router#show interface loopback 0


D. Router#show ip interface brief

A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?


A. Switch(config)#vlan 20


Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y


Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20




B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y


Switch(config-if)#vlan 20Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20




C. Switch(config)#vlan 20


Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20


Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20




D. Switch(config)#vlan 20


Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20


Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20




E. Switch(config)#vlan 20


Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20


Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

A. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image?(Choose Three)




A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin


B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin


C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin


D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin


E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin


F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin

A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin


B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin


C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true (Choose two.)?




A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.


B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.


C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.


D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.


E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.


B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?




A. a switch with priority 20480


B. a switch with priority 8192


C. a switch with priority 4096


D. a switch with priority 12288

A. a switch with priority 20480

Which two statements about late collisions are true (Choose two.)?




A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.


B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.


C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.


D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.


E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.


B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?




A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1


B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1


C. router(config-router)#default-information originate


D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always

A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence (Choose two.)?


A. blocking


B. listening


C. learning


D. forwarding


E. discarding

A. blocking


B. listening

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?


A. 1


B. 2


C. 4


D. 8

C. 4

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?


A. ipv6 local


B. ipv6 host


C. ipv6 unicast-routing


D. ipv6 neighbor

C. ipv6 unicast-routing

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?


A. 10.0.0.0 /21


B. 10.0.0.0 /22


C. 10.0.0.0 /23


D. 10.0.0.0 /24

B. 10.0.0.0 /22

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?


A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk


switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1


B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk


switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1


C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access


switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1


D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access


switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access


switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?


A. the OSPF route


B. the EIGRP route


C. the RIPv2 route


D. all three routes


E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

B. the EIGRP route

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct config?Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?


A. incompatible IP address


B. insufficient bandwidth


C. incorrect subnet mask


D. incompatible encapsulation


E. link reliability too low


F. IPCP closed

D. incompatible encapsulation

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?


A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0


Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252


Main(config-if)# no shut


B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0


Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252


Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp


Main(config-if)# no shut


C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0


Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252


Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay


Main(config-if)# authentication chap


Main(config-if)# no shut


D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0


Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252


Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf


Main(config-if)# no shut

B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0


Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252


Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp


Main(config-if)# no shut

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?


A. HDLC


B. PPP


C. X.25


D. Frame Relay

B. PPP

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three)


A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.


B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.


C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.


D. Ensure the switch has power.


E. Reboot all of the devices.


F. Reseat all cables.

B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.


D. Ensure the switch has power.


F. Reseat all cables.



The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?


A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.


B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.


C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.


D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.


E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.


F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?


A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.


B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.


C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.


D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.

What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?


Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security


Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky




A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.


B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.


C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.


D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.


E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.


2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security


2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky


2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1




The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch (Choose two.)?




A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.


B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.


C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.


D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1


E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1.


F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.

B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.


D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?


A. enable cdp


B. cdp enable


C. cdp run


D. run cdp

C. cdp run

A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?


A. It checks the configuration register


B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.


C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.


D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

A. It checks the configuration register

What are three advantages of VLANs?(Choose Three)


A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.


B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.


C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.


D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.


E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.


F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.


E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.


F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.





Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true?(Choose Three)


A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.


B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.


C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.


D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.


E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.


F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.


C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.


E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface (Choose two.)?


A. show interface trunk


B. show interface interface


C. show ip interface brief


D. show interface vlan


E. show interface switchport

A. show interface trunk


E. show interface switchport

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged (Choose two.)?


A. discarding


B. listening


C. learning


D. forwarding


E. disabled

A. discarding


D. forwarding

Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed Switch B and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to Switch A


C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254


SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1


SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0


SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254


SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1


SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0


SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs?(Choose Three)


A. They increase the size of collision domains.


B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.


C. They can enhance network security.


D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.


E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.


F. They simplify switch administration.

B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.


C. They can enhance network security.


E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs?(Choose Three)


A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.


B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.


C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.


D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.


E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.


F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.


G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.


C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.


D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches?(Choose Three)


A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.


B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.


C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.


D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.


E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.


F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.


D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.


E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process (Choose two.)?


A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.


B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.


C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.


D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.


E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.


D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?(Choose Three)


A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.


B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.


C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.


D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.


E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.


F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.


D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.


E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.



Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?


A. no carrier


B. late collisions


C. giants


D. CRC errors


E. deferred


F. runts

B. late collisions

Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?


A. PQ


B. CBWFQ


C. round robin


D. RSVP

D. RSVP

When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU?


A. It continues operating normally.


B. It goes into a down/down state.


C. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN.


D. It goes into an errdisable state.

D. It goes into an errdisable state.

What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol?(Choose Three)


A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.


B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.


C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.


D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.


E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.


F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.

B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.


C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.


F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.

Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation?


A. router#show platform


B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0


C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0


D. router#show ip interface brief

B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0

Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true (Choose two.)?


A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.


B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.


C. It is bandwidth-intensive.


D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.


E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.

D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.


E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.

What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses (Choose two.)?


A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.


B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.


C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.


D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.


E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.


C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.

Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true (Choose two.)?


A. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.


B. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints.


C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.


D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.


E. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface.


F. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds.

C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.


D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.

Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true (Choose two.)?


A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.


B. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.


C. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.


D. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.


E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.

A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.


E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.

If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?


A. 0-4


B. 0-5


C. 0-2


D. 0-6

A. 0-4

What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?


A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201


B. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1


C. N/A


D. N/A

A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201

What is true about Ethernet (Choose two.)?


A. 802.2 Protocol


B. 802.3 Protocol


C. 10BaseT half duplex


D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs


E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs

B. 802.3 Protocol


D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs

Question 3. What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures?


A. Packet loss


B. Congestion


C. Hop-by-hop “something”


D. End-to-end response time

D. End-to-end response time

How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20?(Choose Three)


A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q


B. switchport mode trunk


C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20


D. switchport trunk native vlan 20


E. -ANOTHER OPTION

A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q


B. switchport mode trunk


C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?


A. Tos Field


B. DSCP


C. IP Precedence


D. Cos


E. -ANOTHER OPTION

A. ToS field

What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?


A. CSMA/CA


B. -ANOTHER OPTION


C. -ANOTHER OPTION


D. CSMA/CD

D. CSMA/CD

Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?


A. Trunk Ports


B. Access Ports


C. Dynamic Auto


D. Dynamic Desirable

C. Dynamic Auto

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?


A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.


B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.


C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.


D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.

What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address?(Choose Three)


A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.


B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.


C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site


D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP


E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.


C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site


D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?


A. speed


B. DTP negotiation settings


C. trunk encapsulation


D. duplex

B. DTP negotiation settings

Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true?(Choose two.)


A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.


B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.


C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.


D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.


E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.


B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true (Choose two.)?


A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.


B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels


C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.


D. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to themaximum defined.


E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN

C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.


D. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to themaximum defined.

Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?


A. fragment-free switching


B. store-and-forward switching


C. cut-through switching


D. ASIC switching

C. cut-through switching

Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?A. show ip interface brief


B. show vlan


C. show interfaces


D. show interface switchport

D. show interface switchport

Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?


A. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20


B. Switch#show vlan id 20


C. Switch#show ip interface brief


D. Switch#show interface vlan 20

B. Switch#show vlan id 20

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host fails, but pings to the other two hosts aresuccessful. What is the issue?




A. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.


B. Host and the switch need to be in the same subnet.


C. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.


D. The switch interface connected to the router is down.


E. Host needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

C. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A (Choose two.)?


A. Link A 172.16.3.0/30


B. Link A 172.16.3.112/30


C. Network A 172.16.3.48/26


D. Network A 172.16.3.128/25


E. Link A 172.16.3.40/30


F. Network A 172.16.3.192/26

A. Link A 172.16.3.0/30


D. Network A 172.16.3.128/25

Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?


A. Layer 2 bridge


B. Layer 2 switch


C. Layer 3 switch


D. router

C. Layer 3 switch

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?




A. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors


B. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces


C. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency


D. Router# show ip eigrp topology

A. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true?(Choose Three)


A. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.


B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.


C. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.


D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.


E. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.


F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.

B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.


D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.


F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.





Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?


A. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12


B. show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12


C. show ip dhcp server statistics


D. show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12

A. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?




A. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1


B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1


Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk


C. Switch1(config)# line con0


Switch1(config-line)# password cisco


Switch1(config-line)# login


D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1


Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0


E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1


Switch1(config-if)# duplex full


Switch1(confiq-if)# speed 100

A. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1

What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?


A. 172.16.1.0/26


B. 172.16.1.0/25


C. 172.16.1.0/24


D. the default route

A. 172.16.1.0/26

Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?


A. virtual-template interface


B. DHCP


C. dialer interface


D. AAA authentication

A. virtual-template interface

Which three statements about RSTP are true?(Choose Three)


A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.


B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.


C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.


D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.


E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.


F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.


D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch (Choose two.)?




A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12


B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12


C. SW1#show running-config


D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12


E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

C. SW1#show running-config


D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.


B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.


C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.


D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.


E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.


F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.


D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.

Which three statements about static routing are true?(Choose Three)


A. It uses consistent route determination.


B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.


C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.


D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.


E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.


F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.

A. It uses consistent route determination.


B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.


C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.

Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?


A. prempt


B. priority


C. other options


D. other options

A. prempt

Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses (Choose two.)?


A. It is the counterpart of IPv4 private addresses


B. It uses FC00::/7 as prefix


C. wrong


D. wrong

A. It is the counterpart of IPv4 private addresses


B. It uses FC00::/7 as prefix

interface fa0/0ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224router bgp XXXneighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x




You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.


A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224


B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224


C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31=


D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224

A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224

What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?


A. SA


B. DA


C. FCS


D. other

A. SA

What is new in HSRPv2?


A. prempt


B. a greater number in hsrp group field


C. other


D. other

B. a greater number in hsrp group field

Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?


A. transport type all


B. transport output all


C. transport preferred all


D. transport input all

D. transport input all

What command can you enter in config mode to create DHCP pool?


A. ip dhcp pool DHCP_pool


B. ip dhcp exclude -add


C. ip dhcp conflict logging


D. service dhcp

A. ip dhcp pool DHCP_pool

What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two)


A. static reservation


B. DHCP reservation


C. prevent DHCP rouge server


D. prevent untrusted host and servers to connect

C. prevent DHCP rouge server


D. prevent untrusted host and servers to connect

Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric?


A. unequal cost load balancing


B. path selection


C. equal cost load balancing


D. path count

A. unequal cost load balancing

Which two statements about syslog logging are true?


A. Syslog logging is disabled by default


B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device


C. Messages can be erased when device reboots


D. Messages are stored external to the device


E. The size of the log file is dependent on the resources of the device.

A. Syslog logging is disabled by default


D. Messages are stored external to the device



How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?


A. Configure VLAN


B. Confiture NTP


C. Configure each VLAN


D. Configure VTP

D. Configure VTP

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links(Choose three) ??


A. reduced cost.


B. better throughput.


C. broadband incompatibility.


D. increased security.


E. scalability.


F. reduced latency.

A. reduced cost.


D. increased security.


E. scalability.



which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?


A. access.


B. protect.


C. restrict.


D. shutdown.

C. restrict.

which 2 optns are requirements for configuring ripv2 for ipv4 (choose 2 )?


A. enabling RIP authentication.


B. connecting RIP to a WAN Interface.


C. enabling auto route sumamrization.


D. allowing unicast updates for RIP.


E. enabling RIP on the router.

C. enabling auto route sumamrization.


E. enabling RIP on the router.

which statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true?


A. It is configured on the interface .


B. It is globally configured .


C. If is configured using a network statement .


D. It is vendor agnostic.


E. It supports a shutdown feature.

A. It is configured on the interface .


E. It supports a shutdown feature.

which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignment?


A. sh ip dhcp database


B. sh ip dhcp pool


C. sh ip dhcp import


D. sh ip dhcp server statistics

B. sh ip dhcp pool

which three technical services support cloud computing?


A. network-monitored power sources


B. layer 3 network routing


C. ip localization


D. redundant connections


E. VPN connectivity


F. extended SAN services

D. redundant connections


E. VPN connectivity


F. extended SAN services

which two steps must you perform to enbale router- on- stick on a switch?


A. connect the router to a trunk port


B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN


C. config full duplex


D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net


E. assign the access port to the vlan

A. connect the router to a trunk port


B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)


A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.


B. RSTP defines new port roles.


C. RSTP defines no new port states.


D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.


E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

B. RSTP defines new port roles.


E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.



Requirement to configure DHCP binding?(Choose two)?


A. DHCP pool


B. ip address


C. Hardware address


D. other option

B. ip address


C. Hardware address

Which two statements about firewalls are true?A. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system.


B. They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data.


C. Each wireless access point requires its own firewall.


D. They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the internet.E. They can prevent attacks from the internet only.

A. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system.


B. They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data.

Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true ?( Choose two)?


A. They can be configured as trunk ports.


B. Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface.


C. 802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface.


D. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.


E. They can be configured as host ports.

D. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.


E. They can be configured as host ports.

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP?


A. on the switch trunk interface.


B. on the router closest to the client.


C. on the router closest to the server.


D. on every router along the path.

B. on the router closest to the client.

Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?


A. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default


B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1


C. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201


D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1

C. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201

Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three)


A. Spoofing attacks


B. Vlan Hopping


C. botnet attacks


D. DDOS attacks


E. ARP Attacks


F. Brute force attacks

A. Spoofing attacks


B. Vlan Hopping


E. ARP Attacks

After you apply the given configuration to R1, you notice that it failed to enable OSPF Which action can you take to correct the problem?


A. Configure a loopback interface on R1


B. Enable IPv6 unicast routing on R1.


C. Configure an IPv4 address on interface FO/0.


D. Configure an autonomous system number on OSPF.

C. Configure an IPv4 address on interface FO/0.

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.


B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.


C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.


D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.


E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.


D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.


E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?


A. Switch3, port fa0/1


B. Switch3, port fa0/12


C. Switch4, port fa0/11


D. Switch4, port fa0/2


E. Switch3, port Gi0/1


F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

C. Switch4, port fa0/11

The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems (Choose two.)?


A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1


B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254


C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2


D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2


E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224


F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240

B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254


D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2

Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between the two devices in a network?


A. ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM


B. I WAN application


C. ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM


D. APIC-EM automation scheduler

A. ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM

Which two statements about floating static routes are true?(Choose two)


A. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address


B. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing


C. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance


D. They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down


E. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server

C. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance


D. They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down

Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?


A. Restrict


B. Shutdown


C. Access


D. Protect

A. Restrict

What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?


A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.


B. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.


C. It can disable the overload command.


D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.

A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.

which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?


A. no additional config is required


B. standby 1 track ethernet


C. standby 1 preempt


D. standby 1 priority 250

A. no additional config is required

Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)?


A. Session


B. transport


C. presentation


D. application


E. data-link


F. network

A. Session


C. presentation


D. application



Which function does traffic shaping perform?


A. It buffers and queues excess packets.


B. It buffers traffic without queuing it.


C. It queues traffic without buffering it.


D. It drops packets to control the output rate.

A. It buffers and queues excess packets.

Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on devices? (Choose two)


A. Show ntp associations.


B. Show clock details.


C. Show clock.


D. Show time.


E. Show ntp status.

A. Show ntp associations.


E. Show ntp status.



When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to which state?


A. Blocking


B. Forwarding


C. Learning


D. Listening

B. Forwarding

What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line (Choose two.)?


A. Low cost


B. Full-mesh capability


C. Flexibillity of design


D. Simply configuration

C. Flexibillity of design


D. Simply configuration

Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?


A. Create an action plan


B. Implement an action plan


C. Gather facts


D. others

A. Create an action plan

Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?


A. on the default vlan


B. on the management vlan


C. on the native vlan


D. on any vlan except the default vlan

A. on the default vlan

In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?


A. the QoS byte


B. the CoS byte


C. the ToS byte


D. the DSCP byte

D. the DSCP byte

Which two protocol can detect native vlan mismatch errors (Choose two.)?


A. CDP


B. VTP


C. DTP


D. STP


E. PAGP

A. CDP


B. VTP

Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?


A. successors


B. advertised changes


C. goodbye messages


D. expiration of the hold timer

C. goodbye messages

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol (Choose two.)?


A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.


B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.


C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.


D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.


E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.


E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

What interconnection cable can you use when you use a MDI connection?


A. cut-through


B. straight-through


C. crossover


D. rollover

C. crossover

In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security administrator must be able to correlate system security alert logs directly with the employee who triggers the alert. Which of the following should the security administrator implement in order to meet this requirement?


A. Access control lists on file servers


B. Elimination of shared accounts


C. Group-based privileges for accounts


D. Periodic user account access reviews

D. Periodic user account access reviews

When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device?


A. In the global config


B. Under serial interface


C. Under the routing protocol


D. Under the multilink interface



D. Under the multilink interface

Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list?


A. removing an entry


B. opening the access-list in notepad


C. adding an entry


D. resequencing

D. resequencing

Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration (Choose two.)?


A. autonomous system number


B. version number


C. router ID


D. subnet mask


E. IP address

A. autonomous system number


E. IP address

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose Three)?


A. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master router.


B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.


C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication


D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.


E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.


F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

A. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master router.


B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.


F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.



Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology ( choose 2)?


A. it reduces management overhead.


B. switches can be located anywhere regardless of there physical location.


C. it requires only 1 IP add per VLAN.


D. it requires only 3 IP add per VLAN.


E. it supports HSRP VRRP GLBP.


F. it support redundant configuration files.

A. it reduces management overhead.


C. it requires only 1 IP add per VLAN.



How to trouble DNS issue ( choose two)?


A. Ping a public website IP address.


B. Ping the DNS Server.


C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.


D. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.


E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured.

B. Ping the DNS Server.


C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.

Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules?


A. The ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM.


B. The ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM.


C. The Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler.


D. The Cisco IWAN application

B. The ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM.

Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?


A. Show ip DHCP database.


B. Show ip DHCP pool.


C. Show ip DHCP binding.


D. Show ip DHCP server statistic.

C. Show ip DHCP binding.

Which statement about SNMPv2 is true?


A. Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.


B. it requires passwords to be encrypyed.


C. Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enable without default values.


D. It requires passwords at least eight characters en length.

C. Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enable without default values.

How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? (choose two)?


A. uses process number.


B. neighbor configured directly.


C. configured driectly on interface.


D. configured globally interface.


E. have shutdown feature.

C. configured driectly on interface.


E. have shutdown feature.

Which mode are in PAgP?(Choose two)


A. Auto.


B. Desirable.


C. Active.


D. Passive.


E. On.

A. Auto.


B. Desirable.

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)


A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.


B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.


C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.


D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.


E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.


F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.


G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.


G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)


A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.


B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.


C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.


D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.


E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.


F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.


D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.

What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?


A. HMAC-MD5


B. HMAC-SHA


C. CBC-DES


D. community strings

D. community strings

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)


A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.


B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.


C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.


D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.


E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.


D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)


A. It requires the use of ARP.


B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.


C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.


D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.


D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?


A. Message Integrity


B. Compression


C. Authentication


D. Encryption


E. Error Detection

A. Message Integrity


C. Authentication


D. Encryption



In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?


A. AVF


B. AVG


C. Active Router


D. Standby Router

B. AVG

A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?


A. point-to-point


B. broadcast multi-access


C. nonbroadcast multi-access


D. nonbroadcast multipoint


E. broadcast point-to-multipoint

C. nonbroadcast multi-access



Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP? (Choose three.)


A. can be used over analog circuits


B. maps Layer 2 to Layer 3 address


C. encapsulates several routed protocols


D. supports IP only


E. provides error correction

A. can be used over analog circuits


C. encapsulates several routed protocols


E. provides error correction

Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship?


A. OSPF and mumber of hops and reliability


B. EIGRP and link cost


C. IS-IS and delay and reliability


D. RIPv2 and number of hops

D. RIPv2 and number of hops

A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)


A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.


B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.


C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.


D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.


E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.

A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.


B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.


D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.

What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)


A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices


B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device


C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches


D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails


E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device


F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails


E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)


A. decreasing the number of collision domains


B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses


C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions


D. increasing the size of broadcast domains


E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses


C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)


A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.


B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.


C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.


D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.


E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.


F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.


D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.


E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN

Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traffic according to the IEEE 802.1w standard? (Choose two.)


A. alternate


B. backup


C. designated


D. disabled


E. root

C. designated


E. root



Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)


A. It uses broadcast for its routing updates


B. It supports authentication


C. It is a classless routing protocol


D. It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1


E. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1


F. It does not send the subnet mask un updates

B. It supports authentication


C. It is a classless routing protocol


E. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1



Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)


A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.


B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.


C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.


D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.


E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.


C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.


E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLANtrunking? (Choose three.)


A. one physical interface for each subinterface


B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface


C. a management domain for each subinterface


D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags


E. one subinterface per VLAN


F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface


D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags


E. one subinterface per VLAN

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)


A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.


B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.


C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.


D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.


E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.


C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.

Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?


A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.


B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.


C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.


D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?


A. public IP address


B. loopback interface


C. router ID


D. process ID

C. router ID

Meaning of AAA authentication? (chose 3)


A. authentication


B. authorization


C. accounting


D. accountability


E. authenticity

A. authentication


B. authorization


C. accounting

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?




This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.


This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.


This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.


This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged.The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?


session


transport


network


data link


physical

data link

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)




to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2


to allow communication with devices on a different network


to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet


to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first


to allow communication between different devices on the same network


to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2


to allow communication between different devices on the same network



What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?




It creates a VLAN 999 interface.


It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.


It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.


It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remoteaccess from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands isrequired to accomplish this task?

SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254


SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1


SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

There are two broadcast domains in the network.There are seven collision domains in the network.

There are two broadcast domains in the network.


There are seven collision domains in the network.

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hostsconnected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB.Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?


Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.


A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.


Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.


Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.

What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?


source MAC address


source IP address


source switch port


destination IP address


destination port address


destination MAC address

destination MAC address

What is one benefit of PVST+?


PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.


PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.


PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.


PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage

PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with theswitch from host A . However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to theswitch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?




Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.


The switch interface connected to the router is down.


Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.


The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.


The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.

Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)




transparent


auto


on


desirable


blocking


forwarding

auto


on


desirable

he network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. Whatare two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)


no broadcast


change of source address in the IPv6 headerchange of destination address in the IPv6 header


Telnet access does not require a passwordautoconfiguration


NAT

no broadcast


autoconfiguration

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to anIPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)




enable dual-stack routingconfigure IPv6 directlyconfigure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands


use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets


statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addressesuse DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

enable dual-stack routing configure IPv6


use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets



Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)




one-to-many communication model


one-to-nearest communication model


any-to-many communication model


a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group


the same address for multiple devices in the group


delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

one-to-nearest communication model


the same address for multiple devices in the group


delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?


FF02::1


FF02::2


FF02::3


FF02::4

FF02::2

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)




It supports VLSM.


It is used to route between autonomous systems.


It confines network instability to one area of the network.


It increases routing overhead on the network.


It allows extensive control of routing updates.


It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

It supports VLSM.


It confines network instability to one area of the network.


It allows extensive control of routing updates.

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing tableof a Cisco OSPF router?


2


4


16


unlimited

16

Which command shows your active Telnet connections?




show cdp neigbors


show session


show users


show vty logins

show session

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?




a backup route, stored in the routing table


a primary route, stored in the routing table


a backup route, stored in the topology table


a primary route, stored in the topology table

a backup route, stored in the topology table

Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)




Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.


Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.


Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.


Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.


Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.


Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.


Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)




Administratively shut down the interface.Physically secure the interface.


Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.


Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.


Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.


Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

A Level 5 password is not set.


An ACL is blocking Telnet access.


The vty password is missing.


The console password is missing.

The vty password is missing.

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan3 command in interface configuration mode?


The command is rejected.


The port turns amber.


The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.


The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.

Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.


Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.


The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.


For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal networkfunction would resume.

For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? learning


listening


discarding


forwarding

discarding

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?




A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.


A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.


A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.


If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator mustresolve the conflict.


If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurableby the administrator.


If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the

If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.

What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?




to map a known IP address to a MAC address


to map a known DLCI to a MAC address


to map a known MAC address to an IP address


to map a known DLCI to an IP address


to map a known IP address to a SPID


to map a known SPID to a MAC address

to map a known DLCI to an IP address

Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)




SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.


SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.


SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.


SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.


SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.


SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.


SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.


SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.

Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?




inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch


inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 2 switch


intra-VLAN routing using router on a stick


intra-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch

inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)




Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.


IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.


IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.


IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.


IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.


IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.


IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.

Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device?

inside local


inside global

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

inside global

Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?


show ip nat statistics


debug ip nat


show ip debug nat


clear ip nat statistics

show ip nat statistics

Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)




duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN


multiple errors on switchport interfacescongestion on the switch inband path


a failing NIC in an end device


an overloaded shared segment

duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN


congestion on the switch inband path



What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?




Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.


Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.


Only RADIUS uses TCP.Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.

Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.

Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?


It prioritizes routing protocol traffic.


It remarks traffic that is below the CIR


It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.


It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.

It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.

Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?




Ports are untrusted by default.


VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.


Packets are classified internally with an environment.


Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.

Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.

Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?


A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.


B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.


C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower thanexpected.


D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.


E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.

E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.

Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?A. ring


B. full mesh


C. hub-and-spoke


D. partial mesh

C. hub-and-spoke

Which statement about switch access ports is true?




They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.


A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.


They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support


By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.

They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.

Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?




It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage.


It simplifies adding and removing hosts.


It supports better performance of high-needs applications.


It provides higher port density with better resource usage.

It provides higher port density with better resource usage.

What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?


Configure server traps.


Configure the server group.


Configure the server host.


Configure the remote engine ID.

Configure the server group.

Which three options are the HSRP states for a router? (Choose three.)


initialize


learn


secondary


listen


speak


primary

learn


listen


speak



Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?




when the network must route UDP traffic


when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts


when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts


when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses requireoutside access

when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts

Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?


Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default


Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default


Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.


The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons

Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default

Which three statements about DTP are true? (Choose three.)




It is enabled by default.


It is a universal protocol.


It is a proprietary protocol.


It is disabled by default.


It is a Layer 3-based protocol.


It is a Layer 2-based protocol.

It is enabled by default.


It is a proprietary protocol.


It is a Layer 2-based protocol.

Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APIC-EM controller? (Choose two.)




It automates network actions between different device types.


It provides robust asset management.It tracks license usage and Cisco IOS versions.


It automates network actions between legacy equipment.


It makes network functions programmable.

It automates network actions between different device types.


It makes network functions programmable.

all eigrp routers - FF02::A


all link-local nodes on a segment - FF02::1


all ospfv3 routers - ff02::5


all pim routers - ff02::D


all site-local routers - ff05::2


ospfv3 designated routers - ff02::6

front

When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configurationchecks you must perform?




Verify that the router interface IP address IP address is correct.


Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.


Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.Verify that a default route is configured.


Verify that the route appears in the Routing table

Verify that the router interface IP address IP address is correct.


Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.


Verify that the route appears in the Routing table

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?




VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255 virtual MAC addresses


tracking


preemption

VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255

Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?




interface ip address verification.


MAC address table verification


neighbor discovery verification


Routing table entry verification

neighbor discovery verification

On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?




interface port


access port


switch port


trunk port

trunk port

Which statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true?




the configuration uses secondary ip add


the config uses process number


the nei of each device are directly configured


it is configured directly on the interface

it is configured directly on the interface

Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (ChooseThree)




to speed up convergence


to reduce routing overhead


to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.


to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.


to confine network instability to single areas of the network.


to reduce the complexity of router configuration.

to speed up convergence


to reduce routing overhead


to confine network instability to single areas of the network.

Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)




All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name


All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.


All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name


The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain


All switches must use the same VTP version.

All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name


The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain

Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)




to enable intra-enterprise communication


to implement NATto connect applications


to conserve global address space


to manage routing overhead

to enable intra-enterprise communication


to manage routing overhead

Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?




The designated port


The backup port


The alternate port


The root port

The root port

In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?




when a network device fails to forward packetswhen you require ROMMON access


when management applications need concurrent access to the device


when you require administrator access from multiple locations


when the control plane fails to respond

when a network device fails to forward packets when you require ROMMON access

Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (Choose two)




MAC address


soure IP address


destination IP address


Protocols


Port numbers

MAC address


Port numbers

Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the default native VLAN to be unused?


CAM table overflow


switch spoofing


VLAN hopping


MAC spoofing

VLAN hopping

Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true?(choose two)




The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed.


It is used for an ISATAP tunnel


The embedded IPv4 address is an RFC 1918 address


The MAC address 20:02:b0:10:be:ef is embedded into the IPv6 address


It is used for a 6to4 tunnel

The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed.


It is used for a 6to4 tunnel

Enable passive interface


Enable RIPv2


Enable manual summarization


Enable autosummarization.

Enable RIPv2

Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?




show snmp group


show snmp pending


snmp-server contact


show snmp engineID

show snmp group

Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?




It is always performed automatically


Each VLAN must have its own root bridge


Each VLAN must use the same root bridge


Each root bridge must reside on the same root switch

Each VLAN must have its own root bridge

While troubleshooting a DCHP client that is behaving erratically, you discover that the client hasbeen assigned the same IP address as a printer that is a staticIP address.Which option is the best way to resolve the problem?




Configure a static route to the client.


Assign the client the same IP address as the router.


Move the client to another IP subnet


Move the printer to another IP subnet.


Reserve the printer IP address.

Reserve the printer IP address.

Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?




When a router have multiple subnets on a single physical link.


When a router have single subnet on multiple physical links.


When a router have multiple interface on single physical links.


When a router have single interface on multiple physical links.

When a router have multiple subnets on a single physical link.

Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?


MD5


PSK


AH


ESP

ESP

Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates?




static


RIPng


OSPFv3


IS-IS for IPv6

RIPng

Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choosethree)




ntp peer


ntp max-associations


ntp authenticate


ntp trusted-key


ntp authentication-key


ntp refclock

ntp authenticate


ntp trusted-key


ntp authentication-key

Which functionality does an SVI provide?




OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches


remote switch administration


traffic routing for VLANs


OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches

traffic routing for VLANs

Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three)




The subnet ID is 14920bf83d


The subnet ID is 4079


The global ID is 14920bf83d


The address is a link-local address


The global ID is 4079


The address is a unique local address

The subnet ID is 4079


The global ID is 14920bf83d


The address is a unique local address

Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)




It allows a single strand of fiber to support bidirectional communications


It is used for long-distance and submarine cable systems


It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber


It supports both the SDH and SONET standardsEach channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal


It supports simplex communications over multiple strands of fiber

It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber


It supports both the SDH and SONET standards


Each channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal

If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are exchanging link-stateadvertisements, which state have they reached?




Exstart


2-Way


FULL


Exchange

FULL

Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?


CLNS


TCPv6


NHRP


NDP


ARP

NDP

What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ipv6 connection?


/127


/128


/64


/48


/32

/127

Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)




device management address.


device type


spanning-tree topology


routing configuration


access-list configuration

device management address.


device type

Which two statements about switch stacking are true? (Choose two)




The stack is powered by a single power cableThe switches are connected in a daisy-chain fashion


The first and last switch in the stack must be connected to one another


The switches are connected by crossover cablesThe switches must be fully meshed

The stack is powered by a single power cable The switches are connected in a daisy-chain fashion

Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three.)




A. VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP address beconfigured.


B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.


C. When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and accelerates trunk linknegotiation.


D. Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain.


E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.


F. To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own passwords.


G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.

B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.


E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.


G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP


modes.

On which layer tcp/ip is ACL Apic-EM path


Layer 1


Layer 2


Layer 3


Layer 4

Layer 4

Which statement about DTP is true?


It uses the native VLAN.


It negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured.


It uses desirable mode by default.


It sends data on VLAN 1.

It sends data on VLAN 1.

Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?


Ethernet


dialer


serial


Frame Relay

dialer

Which statement about named ACLs is true?


They support standard and extended ACLs.


They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.


They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.


They support standard ACLs only.


They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.

They support standard and extended ACLs.

Which statement about static routes is true?




The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.


A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.


The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default


The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.

The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.

Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?1500


9216


1600


1518

1600

Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?


shutdown


protect


shutdown vlan


restrict

shutdown

By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with portsecurity enabled?


8


2


1


0

1

Which three options are the major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choosethree.)


virtual network services


authentication services


network access control


network resilience


path isolation


policy enforcement

virtual network services


network access control


path isolation



Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?


automatic


manual


dynamic


static

dynamic

Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)


It can run on a UNIX server.


It authenticates against the user database on the local device.


It is more secure than AAA authentication.


It is enabled on Cisco routers by default.


It uses a managed database.

It can run on a UNIX server.


It uses a managed database.

When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configurationchecks you must perform?




Verify that the router interface IP address IP address is correct.


Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.


Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.


Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.Verify that a default route is configured.


Verify that the route appears in the Routing table

Verify that the router interface IP address IP address is correct.


Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.


Verify that the route appears in the Routing table

Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true?


They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.


They are defined by RFC 1884.


They use the prefix FEC0::/10


They use the prefix FC00::/7


They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.

They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.


They use the prefix FC00::/7

Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?




interface ip address verification.


MAC address table verification


neighbor discovery verification


Routing table entry verification

neighbor discovery verification

Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?


CST


RSTP


MSTP


PVST+

PVST+

Which two components are requirements for configuring RIPv2 for IPv4? (Choose two)


enabling RIP authentication


connecting RIP to a WAN Interface


enabling auto route sumamrization


allowing unicast updates for RIP


enabling RIP on the router

allowing unicast updates for RIP


enabling RIP on the router

In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?




when a network device fails to forward packets


when you require ROMMON access


when management applications need concurrent access to the device


when you require administrator access from multiple locations


when the control plane fails to respond

when a network device fails to forward packets


when you require ROMMON access

Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ?




They must be configured on all IPv6 interface


They must be globally unique


They must be manually configured


They are advertised globally on the network

They must be configured on all IPv6 interface

When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues,how can you verify that an IP address isknown to a router?


Check whether the IP address is in the routing table


Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address


Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table


Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table

Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table

Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?


It is always performed automatically


Each VLAN must have its own root bridge


Each VLAN must use the same root bridge


Each root bridge must reside on the same root switch

Each VLAN must use the same root bridge

Which statement about DHCP snooping is true?




it blocks traffic from DHCP servers on untrusted interfaces.


it can be configured on switches and routers.


it allows packets from untrusted ports if their source MAC address is found in the binding table.


it uses DHCPDiscover packets to identify DHCP servers.

it blocks traffic from DHCP servers on untrusted interfaces.

For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential host startup issues? (Choose two.)




DHCP


DNS


OSPF


RIP


CDP

DHCP


DNS

Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a specific OID tree?




server group


a community


a view record


an access group

a view record

Which two values are needed to run the APIC-EM ACL Analysis tool? (Choose two.)


destination port


source address


protocol source port


periodic refresh interval


destination address

destination port


destination address