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207 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are clamp loaders?
load the dna clamps
What are clamps?
help to keep the polymerase in contact w/ the growing strand - Clamps increase processivity, meaning increases the number of nucleotide additions catalyzed by polymerase before it dissociates.
What are single stranded DNA binding proteins?
bind to ss DNA in order to keep it unwound
What are topisomersases?
o Topoisomerases mitigate the twisting problem by forming a transient break in the DNA backbone, allowing the DNA to rotate to relieve the additional twists and then resealing break. – RELIEVE TWISTING
o Topoisomerase I- breaks one strand
o Topoisomerase II- breaks both strands
What role does RNaseH have in DNA repliction?
RNaseH degrades the RNA primer, leaving one ribonucleotide attached to the 5’end of the Okazaki fragment.
What role does FEN1 have in DNA replication?
FENs catalyse hydrolytic cleavage of the phosphodiester bond at the junction of single and double stranded DNA. FENs can also act as 5'-3' exonucleases on the 5' terminus of the flap strand and on 'nicked' DNA substrates.
What are telomeres?
the DNS-protein complex that protects ends of chromosomes from attack by nucleoases---6 nucleotide repeats of the sequence TTAGGGShorten each successive cell division and once certain length cell no longer divides.
What do telomeres do in DNA replication?
play a role in preventing strand shortening during replication.enzyme that catalyzes the addition of telomere is telomerase. mitotic clocks(telomere lenght in most cells inversely related to #of times cells divided
What is homologous recombination?
Homologous recombination is the exchange of genetic information between identical or nearly identical sequences. The process is initiated when an endonuclease makes a double strand break in a chromatid. An exonucleasethen removes nucleotides to create two protruding 3’ single stranded ends. The 3’ end then finds the homologous region of the second chromatid to begin base pairing. DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA from the free 3’ OH of the invading strand nucleotides in the displaced D loop pair serve as a template for DNA synthesis from the other 3’ end. Nicks are ligated forming two holiday junctions
What are holiday junctions?
Holiday junctions are points where the strands cross between chromatids. The movement of the crossover point is called the branch migration.
What are transposases?
Transposeases are enzymes that cleave a transposn form genome and move it to a different location.
What are integrases?
Integrase is an enzyme that inserts transposable elements into the chromosome.
What are 3 classes of transposable elements?
DNA only transposon - each end consists of inverted repeats Cut and paste type
b)Retroviral like retrotransposons- direct repeats at each end. Copy and paste type uses reverse transcriptase
c) Nonretroviral retrotransposons- poly A at 3’ end of RNA, 5’ end is truncated. Copy and paste type. Makes reverse transcriptase and moves via an RNA intermediateClass I mobile genetic elements, or retrotransposons, copy themselves by first being transcribed to RNA, then reverse transcribed back to DNA by reverse transcriptase, and then being inserted at another position in the genome. Class II mobile genetic elements move directly from one position to another using a transposase to "cut and paste" them within the genome.
What are some types of DNA damage?
Deamination -removal of an amine. Cytosine deamination produces uracil, adenine deamination produces hypoxanthine, guanine deamination produces xanthine.

Depurination – cleavage of a purine from the sugar (5,000 events per day/cell).

Alkylation – addition of a methyl group to bases.

Crossing linking of pyrimidines to form dimers. UV light can produce thymine-thymine dimers.
What is base excision repair?
repairs deaminated, methylated, and oxidized bases. Glycosylase recognizes the damage and removes the base by cleavage of the glycosyl bond. An AP endonuclease then cleaves the 5’ side. DNA polymerase beta has 3’ APlyase activity and cleaves the 3’ side and fills the gap. Ligase seals the nick.
What is nucleotide excison repair?
repairs things that distort the DNA (TT diamer). Endoonucleases cleave the abnormal chain and remove distorted region. Nicks are made on either side and an oligonucleotide is released. Dna polymerase fills the gap and ligase seals the nick.
What is mismatch repair?
incorrect base pairing distorts the duplex. Same as nucleotide repair. Recognizes which strand is new (which one to fix) because newly synthesized strands has nicks, parental strand is complete.
What is bypass synthesis?
Bypass synthesis the polymerase when encountering a lesion just continues. Is done by specific polymerases that are less accurate.
Prokaryotes= DNA polymerase IV and V

Eukaryotes = DNA polymerase η,ί,ξ
What are some characteristics of RNA polymerase?
­ It catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to a growing RNA chain in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
­ Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the promoter at the start of a gene (initiation).
­ In prokaryotes, a single RNA polymerase synthesizes all of the mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA.
­ RNA polymerases catalyze the addition of nucleotides to a growing RNA chain in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
­ Use DNA as a template.
­ Add nucleotides to the growing RNA strand in a manner similar to DNA polymerases (i.e., transesterification).
­ DO NOT need a primer to initiate RNA strand synthesis.
­ Prokaryotes have a single core RNA polymerase.
­ Eukaryotes have three nuclear RNA polymerases and one mitochondrial RNA polymerase.
What is a gene?
the basic unit of transcription; A gene is the segment of DNA involved in producing a polypeptide chain. It consists of sequences that precede and follow the coding region, as well as sequences that intervene (introns) between individual coding sequences (exons).
What is a promoter?
- DNA sequence that enables a gene to be transcribed. The promoter is recognized by RNA polymerase, which then initiates transcription. In RNA synthesis, promoters mark which genes should be used for messenger RNA synthesis
What is initiation?
when the RNA polymerase binds to the promoter at the start of a gene
What is elongation?
sequential addition of nucleotides after initiation
What is startpoint?
– the first bp transcribed; the promoter is typically in front of the start point
What is termination in transcription of prokaryotic genes?
transcription is terminated by one of two modes:
i. Rho-independent – stem loop structure of RNA and 6-7 U’s (intrinsic terminator) terminate synthesis. G-C rich stem is proposed to stall polymerase. RNA can fold back on itself forming a GC rich stem plus a loop known as a hairpin.
ii. Rho-dependent – Rho factor participates in termination( has helicase activity which causes release of the RNA
Describe a transcription bubble?
a molecular structure that occurs during the transcription or replication of DNA when DNA helicase and DNA topoisomerase "unzip" the DNA double strand. DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase may then bind to the exposed DNA and begin synthesizing a new strand of DNA or RNA. As DNA and/or RNA polymerase progresses down the DNA strand in the 3' to 5' direction, more of the DNA double strand is unwound, creating a replication or transcription bubble in the process
Eukaryotic RNA polymerases
I, localized in the nucleolus and synthesizes rRNA- 28S, 18S, 5.8S

II, located in the nucleoplasm and synthesizes mRNA, snRNA
inhibited by a-amanitin.

III, located in the nucleoplasm and synthesizes tRNA,5S ribosomald inhibited by a-amanitin.

Mitochondrial-contain single rna polymerase that resemble bacteria
Prokaryotic RNA polymerases
1 rna polymerase synthesizes all of rna except for rna primers(synthesized by enzyme primase) Rifamancin inhibits initiataition of transcription by binding B-subunit of rna polymerase
What do promoter consensus sequences do?
represent the results of a multiple sequence alignment, where related sequences are compared to each other, and similar functional sequence motifs are found. The consensus sequence shows which residues are most abundant in the alignment at each position.
What are types of RNA synthesized by eukaryotic RNA polymerases?
rRNA( 28S, 18S, 5.8 S) synthesized from RNA polymerase I

mRNA( also some small nuclear RNAs and snRNA synthesized from RNA polymerase II

tRNA( and 5S ribosomal RNA) synthesized from RNA polymerase III

mitochondrial, all RNA’s
What are transcription factors discussed?
TFIID starts the assembly process, binding the TATA box via its TBP (TATA-binding protein) subunit.

TFIID binding distorts the double helix, which probably serves as a landmark to denote an active promoter, allowing for subsequence protein assembly steps.

Other TFIIXs assemble upon TFIID.

TFIIH-hyrolyzes ATP
Describe processsing of hnRNA
primary transcript in eukaryotes that is a precursor to mature mRNA

Process:
- Guanylyl transerase adds 5’ cap
- Poly(A) polymerase- adds A (20-200) to the 3’ end
- Small nuclear- ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) catalyze splicing
- The 5’ cap is added as RNA is synthesized and serves as a recognition feature in ribosome binding.
Describe processing of tRNA
Additional nucleotides are cleaved by RNaseP (5’) and an exonuclease (3’)
tRNA nucleotidyltransferase adds the CCA-3’ sequence and other base modifications occur

An endonuclease removes the intron and a mature tRNA is produced following ligation
Describe process of rRNA
- RNA polymerase I synthesizes three of the four rRNAs in the nucleolus
- These rRNAs are produced as a large 45S precursor
- This precursor is processed by snoRNPs to release 28S, 18S, and 5.8S rRNAs
- 5S is synthesized by RNA polymerase III in the nucleoplasm
What is translation?
Translation is the process by which the mRNA transcript will be used to determine the amino acid sequence that makes up a protein.
What is general structure/fxn of tRNA?
transports amino acids to the ribosomes where the amino acids are assembled into polypeptides All have 3’CCA sequences, cloverleaf secondary structure and L-shaped tertiary structure. They have unique regions that recognize and interact with mRNA (the anti-codon) and have specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthtases that couples an amino acid
What are codons?
A codon is a three- base (nucleotide) sequence that specifies for a particular amino acid . There are 64 possible codons (43 = 64) . 61 of them code for amino acids and 3 code for stops.
Know stop and start codons
Start codon is AUG. Stop codons include UAG, UGA, UAA
What does degeneracy mean?
Different triplet combinations code for the same amino acid (some amino acids are coded by multiple codons).
While many amino acids are specified by more that one codon, each codon can only codon for ONE amino acid.
What is the wobble hypothesis?
mechanism by which tRNA's can recognize more than 1 codon for a specif aa----base at the 5' end of anticodon(the 1st base of anticodon) is not as spatially defined as other 2 bases. Mvmt of that base allows nontraditional base pairing with 3' base of codon(last base of codon) this mvmt is called a wooble...
What is the reading frame?
An open reading frame starts with an AUG and continues in triplets to a termination codon. 2nd reading frame, the codons are one base off of the AUG register, is blocked with stop codons. 3rd reading frame, the codons are two bases off of the AUG register, is blocked with stop codons.
What is a point mutation?
a single base change. Transitions- a purine for a purine. Transversions-a purine for a pyridimine.
What is silent mutation?
a change occurs that specifies the same amino acid. CGA to CGG,
What is a misense mutation?
– a change that specifies a different amino acid. CGA to CCA,
• Arg to Pro
What is a nonsense mutation?
– a change that produces a stop codon. CGA to UGA, Arg to stop.
What is frameshift mutation?
insertion or deletion of a single nucleotide in coding regions. Shifts the reading the frame.
What are free ribososmes?
Free ribosomes – located in the cytosol and synthesize proteins that remain in the cytosol or are targeted to the nucleus, mitochondria, or other organelles.
o Initiation and elongation begins on free ribosomes
o Proteins synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum have a signal sequence that is recognized by a signal recognition particle (SRP)
o The complex is bound by a docking protein at the ER, then transferred to a translocon (ribosome receptor)
What are bound ribosomes?
bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum and synthesize proteins that will be secreted or incorporated into other cellular membranes.
What are 3 steps in translation?
• Initiation – the reactions that precede the formation of the peptide bond between the first two amino acids.
• Elongation – all the reactions following the formation of the first peptide bond to the addition of the last amino acid.
• Termination – the steps needed to release the completed polypeptide chain and ribosome dissociation.
What is prokaryotic initiation?
the initiating methionyl T-RNA is formylated, producing a formyl-methionyl tRNA that participates in INITIATION COMPLEX-3 initiation factors---id of initaiting AUG occurs whn sequence in the mRNA-known as Shine Dalgarmo sequence binds to complementary sequence near 31 end of 16S rRNA of small(30S) ribosomal unit
What are steps in eukaryotic initiation?
1. GTP binds eIF2a
2. Met-tRNAimet binds to form a ternary complex. Note that this initiator tRNA species cannot be replaced with Met-tRNA emet.
3. this complex binds to 40S(small in eukaryote)subunit and occupies what will be the P site.
- eIF-4e binds 5’ cap
-eIF-4a unwind secondary structures
-eIF-4g-binds to eIF-4e
-eIF-4B assists further unwinding
-eIF-3 needed to maintain free 40S subunits, required for 40S subunit with ternary complex to bind to 5’ end
-40S subunit migrates along mRNA to AUG codon
-eIF-5 –GTPases required for 60S joining, release of eIF-2 and eIF-3
What are 3 steps in eukaryotic elongation?
1. Binding of an aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site (acceptor site) -done by EF-1alpha and GTP is hydrolyzed
2. Formation of a peptide bond between the Met-tRNA i met in the P site (peptidyl site) and the aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site (the formation of the bond is catalyzed by peptidyltransferase).
3. Translocation of the peptidyl-tRNA to the P site (by translocase)
Prokaryotic elongation similar except elongation factors are different
Prokayotic
First elongation factor EF-Tu
Elongation factor regenerating the first factor EF-Ts
Elongation factor involved in translocation EF-G
What is eukaryotic termination?
1. A release factor (eRF-GTP) binds when a termination codon (UAG, UAA, or UGA) is encountered and the deacylated tRNA is released from E site.
2. Peptidyl-transferase hydrolyzes the linkage between tRNA and the polypeptide.
3. GTP is hydrolyzed by eRF and the complex dissociates from mRNA as well as the ribosome subunits and deacylated-tRNA
What are antibiotics that inhibit translation in bacteria?
Tetracycline –interacts with 30S ribosomal subunits and blocks access of aminoacyl-tRNA to A-site of ribosome(mRNA-ribosomal complex)
Streptomycin-binds to 30S subunit and distorts its structure interfering with initiation of protein synthesis. prevents the transition from initiation complex to chain-elongating ribosome and also causes miscoding
Chloramphenicol- blocks the peptidyl transferase reaction on ribosomes
Erythromycin –binds irreversibly to site on 5oS subunit thus inhibiting translocation reaction on ribosomes
Rifamycin – blocks initiation of RNA chains by binding to RNA polymerase (prevents RNA synthesis)
What are antibiotics that inhibit translation in both bacteria and eukaryotes?
Puromycin – causes the premature release of nascent polypeptide chains by its addition to growing chain end this causing inhibition of further elongation
Actinomycin D- binds to DNA and blocks the movement of RNA polymerase (prevents RNA synthesis)
Movement of proteins to correct area of cell after being synthesized
Localization signal target cytoplasmic proteins (those make by free ribosomes) to specific cellular locations. These signals are found inspecific areas of the protein and have a specific characteristics (i.e., charge and or sequence)

Proteins made in the ER may be sorted and trafficked to specific cellular domains according to specific signal sequences. The “default pathway” takes a protein through the ER, into the Golgi, and on to the plasma membrane.
What is partial proteolysis?
amino acid sequences may be removed form a protein during maturation
What is phosphorylation?
many proteins are modified by a the covalent addition of a phosphate group. Kinases catalyze the addition of a phosphate group to a protein
ATP Phosphates catalyze the removal of a phosphate group from a protein.
Phosphorylation of serine, threonine, or tyrosine residues. May activate, modify, or terminate a protein function
What is glycosylation?
a process of adding one or more sugars to a protein.
Glycosylation of asparagine, serine, or threonine residues. Alters protein stability, function and solubility
N-linked (asparagine-linked) glycosylation is the most common.
What is ubiquination?
attachment of small highly conserved protein called ubiquitin to a protein that is defective or destined for rapid turnover are often marked for destruction by ubiquination. They ae rapidly degraded by a proteasome in cytosol.
What are other post translational modifications?
acetylation, methylation, iodination, palmitoylation, myristolation, ADP-ribosylation…)

Generally:

Fold into unique 3-D conformations
May bind cofactors such as biotin
May undergo posttranslational modifications
May be sorted to specific cellular domains or organelles
Attachment of lipids can help anchor proteins in membranes.
What is a bacteria operon?
The structural genes that code for proteins involved in particular metabolic pathway are often fuound sequentially grouped on chromosome along with cis acting regulatorty that determine trnscription of these genes.a unit of bacterial gene expression and regulation that consists of the following:Structural Genes, Regulatory Genes and control elements.
What are structural genes?
encode for anything other than a regulator protein, that are coordinately regulated. Meaning, they are transcribed to form a polycistronic mRNA.
what are regulatory genes?
code for regulator proteins. They encode for mRNA as well, which will make regulator proteins.
What are control elements?
sit on top of structural gene cluster and control whether or not those genes are transcribed. A particular DNA sequence in control element is called the operator, where a particular regulatory protein, the repressor, binds
Describe regulation of lac operon
the lac-operon codes for 3 proteins involved in catabolism of dissacharide
Lactose operon consists of 3 structural genes (lacZ, lacY, & lacA), a repressor gene (lacI), and control elements (lacP = promoter, lacO = operator, CAP (catabolite activator protein), and CAP binding site)
i. The repressor gene, lacI, is always transcribed and has a high affinity for the operator, this causes RNA Poly to not always be able to bind. (It is able to bind rarely when the repressor leaves, and the binding site to the operator is open for a split second)
ii. When an inducer (allolactose) is present, it binds to the repressor and reduces its affinity causing transcription to occur.
iii. Mutations can inhibit induction by preventing inducer binding to the repressor or permanently turn on the structural genes (lacZ, lacY, & lacA) by preventing repressor binding.

Lactose operon is generally turned off unless it is induced
Describe operation of tryptophan operon
Tryptophan operon is generally turned on unless it is repressed

Tryptophan operon has 5 structural genes to code for 3 enzymes, its synthesis can be regulated at the transcriptional level and enzyme level, through feedback inhibition affecting anthranilate synthetase.
i. trpR gene encodes for the tryptophan repressor which binds with tryptophan, a corepressor that increases its affinity greatly to the operator.
ii. When the corepressor is not bound, RNA Poly is able to bind to the promote
iii. Using attenuation, when tryptophan levels are low, tRNAtrp will be low and the ribosomes stall in the leader mRNA sequence. This induces a secondary structure to signals for RNA Poly to continue past the attenuator.
What is an inducer?
stimulate induction, which is when the transcription of genes in an operon increases in response to a substrate.
What is a corepressor?
stimulate respression, which is when the transcription of genes in an operon decreases in response to a substrate.
What is catobolite repression?
When glucose is present it causes the transcription of the lactose operon to not be induced even in the presence of lactose. This is due to AC (adenyl cyclase) being inhibited by glucose and not allowing cAMP to be made, which in turn cannot bind CAP. And CAP binds the catabolite activator protein.
What are attenuators?
intrinsic terminators located at the beginning of a transcriptional unit, which reads the RNA polymerase to decide if it should continue transcription or terminate.
What is feedback inhibition and how does it regulate enzymatic activity?
when the level of an enzyme or product causes further products not to be synthesized
Tryptophan levels increases bind via feedback inhibition and can shut level down
What levels may eukaryotic gene expression be regulated?
transcriptional control
i.For most genes, transcriptional control is the leader for regulating expression.
RNA processing control-
RNA transport and localization control
translation control-
mRNA degredation contol- protein activity control-
what is histone acetylation?
o Acetylation of lysines will weaken the interactions between the + charged histones and the – phosphate groups of the DNA backbone. This may lead to gene transcription b/c transcription factors have access to DNA and then recruit RNA Poly II.
What is DNA methylation?
C in CG can be methylated, and if it occurs before replication, then it is still methylated afterwards. CG-regions are found in gene promoter regions. Transcription factors can freely associate with gene promotor regions if the C’s are NOT methylated. Methylation causes gene inactivation.
Methylation of DNA and deacetylation of histones often occur together to repress transcription of a particular gene
Describe imprinting
o Imprinting- a difference in behavior between alleles inherited from each parent.
This can be caused by a specific pattern of methyl groups being inherited by germ cells.
Angelman syndrome
Severe mental retardation, with absence of speech
Seizures
Jerky gait
Inappropriate laughter
Protruding tongue
Enlarged jaw
Prader-Willi syndrome
Mild to moderate mental retardation
Hypotonia (abnormally low muscle tone) and poor feeding in infancy
Short stature
Small hands and feet
Small external genetalia
Hyperphagia (compulsive overeating) and massive obesity beginning at about two years old
components of the basal transcriptional apparatus
TFIID binds DNA when TATA box is accessible. Once TFIID binds, other transcriptional factors bind in an ordered manner (e.g. TFIIB, TFIIA) to form the preinitiation complex. Then RNA Poly II is phosphorylated by TFIIH and transcription now begins. These transcription factors together with RNA Poly II make up the basal transcriptional apparatus, which is needed to transcribe any promoter for RNA Poly II.
What are general (basal) factors?
transcription factors that bind the core promoter elements to recruit and position RNA poly II
What are activators?
transcription factors that bind to proximal or enhancer elements to facilitate general factor assembly, which will influence the frequency of initiation, and thus increase gene expression. Main function is to attract, position, and modify the general transcription factors and RNA Poly II so that transcription can begin.
What are Inducible Factors ?
a transcription factor that’s activity is regulated (e.g. ligand binding)
What are Repressors?
transcription factors that bind to consensus sequences in the promoter to prevent general factor assembly / inhibit gene expression. They inhibit by recruiting repressive chromatin remodeling complexes and recruiting histone deacetylases.
What are coactivators?
Some activators recruit enzymes that alter chromatin structure - these enzymes are referred to as co-activators, proteins that do not bind DNA themselves, but assemble on other DNA-bound gene regulatory proteins.
What is Histone acetylase ?
enzyme involved in acetylation of histones( important in activation of chromatin for transcription)
What is Chromatin remodeling complex?
alters the positioning of nucleosomes and allows transcription factors access to specific regions of dna
What is a mediator?
an important co-activator that is required for both basal and regulated transcription at promoters used by RNA pol II and stimulates the phosphorylation of the CTD by TFIIH
• Mediator is a protein complex consisting 20 or more subunits that binds tightly to the carboxyl-terminal domain of the largest subunoit of Pol II
What does a mediator do?
• It binds RNA pol II and some activators
It stimulates phosphorylation ofRNA pol II by TFIIH, allowing transcription to begin.
What are Proximal elements?
consensus sequences that are near the transcriptional start point and are upstream.
What are Enhancer elements? either orientation
cis-acting DNA sequences that increase rate of initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase II. They can be located upstream (to the 5' side) or downstream (3' side) of transcription site
2) they can be close to or thousnads of bps away from the promoter and can occur on either strand of dna
What are steroid hormone receptors?
Specific response elements are bound by specific receptors (e.g., the glucocorticoid receptor binds to the glucocorticoid response element).
Streroid hormone receptors contain the following:
A ligand-binding domain; where the steroid binds the receptor.
A DNA-binding domain; where the receptor binds the response element.
A transactivation domain; the domain that binds co-activators.
A nuclear localization signal (NLS); directs the receptor to the nucleus at the appropriate time.
These receptor-ligand complexes accumalate in nucleus, dimerize, and bind to specific regulatory dna sequences(HRE-hormone response elements) in association with co-activators thereby causing promoter activation and increased transcription.
What role do they play in eukaryotic gene regulation?
Steroid hormones, and other lipophilic hormones, activate or inhibit gene transcription by binding nuclear receptors.
These receptors bind to hormone-response elements (short consensus sequences of DNA) at genes that possess them. These receptors, and their response elements, allow for rapid changes in gene expression in response to changes in hormone levels.
What is mechanism of glucocorticoid?
Glucocorticoid receptors (GR) are retained in the cytoplasm bound to heat-shock proteins (HSP) (A).
In the presence of cortisol, which binds to GR, the nuclear localization signal sequence is exposed and the GR dimerizes (forms a homodimer) (B).
The GR dimer binds to the glucocorticoid response element (GRE) of genes possessing it (C).
The dimer recruits activators to influence the transcription of the genes possessing the GRE (D).
What is alternative splicing?
A particular mRNA transcript may be spliced in more than one way, thereby allowing the same gene to produce a corresponding set of different proteins.
– This phenomenon is referred to as alternative splicing and ~75% of genes in humans are alternatively spliced.
• Alternative splicing can be regulated.
– It can be negatively regulated by preventing the splicing machinery from gaining access to a particular splice site on the RNA. In this case, a repressor protein binds and blocks the access of the splicing machinery.
– It can be positively regulated by helping direct the splicing machinery to an otherwise overlooked splice site. In this case, an activator protein binds to attract the splicing machinery to a particular splice site.

• Alternative splicing can also be constitutive.
– Constitutive alternative splicing occurs because there is an intron sequence ambiguity.
• The spliceosome is unable to clearly distinguish between two or more alternative pairing of 5’ and 3’ splice sites.
• Consequently, different choices are made by chance on different transcripts.
• This results in several versions of the protein encoded by the gene being made in all cells expressing it.
What is ALTERNATIVE CLEAVAGE?
• Remember that the 3’ end of a eukaryotic mRNA is formed by cleavage.
• A cell can control the site of this cleavage and therefore can change the C-terminus of the resultant protein.
• An example of this is the switch from the synthesis of membrane-bound to secreted antibody of B lymphocytes. At first, a B lymphocyte produces an antibody that is anchored to the plasma membrane where it serves as a receptor for antigen. Antigen binding causes the cell to secrete its antibody. The secreted antibody is identical to the membrane-bound form except at the extreme C-terminus.
What is RNA STABILITY ?
mRNA stability influences the level of gene expression. How long and mRNA remains in cytosol influences how much protein product can be produced form that messenger.
• The IRE-BP also recognizes IREs in the 3’-UTR of the mRNA encoding the transferrin receptor.
• In the absence of iron, IRE-BP is bound to the IRE.
• Binding of the IRE-BP blocks access to a endonuclease site, and the mRNA is quite stable and is translated.
• Increased concentrations of iron promote the dissociation of IRE-BP from the 3’-UTR, exposing the endonuclease site.
• The mRNA is then rapidly degraded and translation of the transferrin receptor ceases
what is RNA EDITING?
RNA editing alters the nucleotide sequence of an RNA transcript once it is synthesized and changes the message it carries.
• Apolipoprotein B undergoes a C-to-U edit in the small intestine, creating a premature stop codon that produces a short form of the protein.
• In the liver, full-length apolipoprotein B is produced.
• The two protein isoforms have different properties, and each plays a specialized role in lipid metabolism that is specific to the organ that produces it.
What are Proto-oncogenes: (Cyclin, Cdk)?
A class of genes for which a gain-of-function (GF) mutation pushes a cell towards cancer---Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that help to regulate cell growth and differentiation. Proto-oncogenes are often involved in signal transduction and execution of mitogenic signals, usually through their protein products. Upon activation, a proto-oncogene (or its product) becomes a tumor-inducing agent, an oncogene.[7] Examples of proto-oncogenes include RAS, WNT, MYC, ERK, and TRK.
What are Oncogenes?
Mutant over active form of proto-oncogenes; act in dominant manner
What are Tumor suppressor genes?
Class of genes for which a loss-of-function (LF) mutation drives a cell towards cancer; act in a recessive manner
What is Overactive mutation (GF) ?
Mutation in a SINGLE copy of the Proto-oncogene creates oncogene. Activation (Act) leads to Proliferation (Prolif)
What is Underactive mutation (LF)?
Mutation occurs in BOTH copies of gene. Act & Prolif.
What is a Tumor AKA neoplasm?
Growing mass of abnormal cells that results from unrestrained cell %
o Benign: mass remains clustered
o Malignant: cells acquired ability to invade surrounding tissue
What is Cancer?
Malignant tumor; mutations in somatic cells, proliferates and invades
What is Metastasis?
Cells ability to break loose, enter blood stream & lymph tissues; form secondary structures---can break away, leak, or spill from a primary tumor, enter lymphatic and blood vessels, circulate through the bloodstream, and be deposited within normal tissue elsewhere in the body.
classes of oncogenes What is Growth Factor?
regulate growth by serving as ligands that bind to cellular recptors on plama membrane----this stimulates a signal transduction pathway that activates transcription of certain genes
classes of oncogenes -What are Growth Factor Receptors?
receptor found on cell surfaces that growth factors bind to
*GF & GFR can lead to increased signal transduction and abnormal cell proliferation
classes of oncogenes- What are Signal Transducers?
o intracellular components
• Example: GTP turns Ras on; hydrolysis turns Ras off- mutation to the
• hydrolysis can lead to abnormal cell proliferation
classes of oncogenes -What are Mutations?
increase transcription factor production/activity leads to inappropriate cell division
classes of oncogenes-What are DNA-binding proteins?
in nucleus (Transcript-factors)
classes of oncogenes-What are Regulatory Molecules?
(Cyclins, Cyclin-Dep Kinases, Kinases Inhibitors)
• oncogenes inappropriate activity generally leads to increased cell proliferation!!!
describe the control system for the cell cycle
CC process includes DNA, replication, mitosis, and cytokinesis
Cyclin-dept kinases (Cdks): kinases rise & fall during cell cycle; when active, they phosphorylate
intercellular proteins that initiate or regulate major events of cell cycle and produce orderly division.
Cyclins: protein that regulates Cdk activity; undergo cycles of syn & degradation
Describe the way Cdk and cyclin oncogenes lead to increased cell proliferation.
Cdk: associated with different cyclins to trigger different cell cycle events
oActivity of Cdk terminated by cyclin degradation (breakdown)
S-cyclin binds to Cdk= S-Cdk complex; triggers S-phase of Cell Cycle
S-Cdk triggers DNA replication machinery
Cyclin: rise & fall is primary determinant of Cdk activity; regulatory mechanisms fine tune Cdk activity
Phosphor (by kinase) & dephosphorylates (phosphatase) can control complex activity
Cyclin isn’t enough to activate complex, additional cyclins needed

-G1 (Cyclin D) w/ Cdk-promotes start of cell cycle
G1/S-cyclin (Cyclin E) w/Cdk-commit cell to DNA replication
-S-cyclin (Cyclin A) w/Cdk- required for initiation of DNA replication
M-Cyclin (Cyclin B) w/Cdk- promotes mitosis
What is apoptosis?
programed cell death; cell shrinks, chromatin condenses, nucleus fragments, & cell breaks up

Can be initiated by DNA damage, lack of necessary GF, or presence of death signaling proteins w/in environment
Resistance to apoptosis is key to malignant cells b/c enables them to increase in # and survive
What are mechanisms of apoptosis?
Intrinsic: mitochondrial pathway: mito proteins (cytochrome c) from intermembrane space enter cytoplasm
Extrinsic: death receptor pathway; response to binging of a death ligand (TNF) to death receptor
o Both pathways converge on caspases, enzymes that cleave cellular proteins; which are activated by proteolytic cleavage-(2 grps: 1-initiator~cleave other procaspases & act; 2-execution~other cellular proteins invol. maintaining cellular integrity)
what role the Bcl-2 gene family plays in apoptosis?
Bcl-2 family members integrate pro-death & anti-death signals to determine whether the cell should commit suicide
Anti-apoptotic-prevents a death signal from initiating apoptosis
Bid & Caz are Ccl-2 family members that are pro-apoptotic
When mutated & oncogenic it is over-expressed; disrupts the regulation of pro- & anti- factors
What is the normal role of Rb tumor suppressor?
inhibit cell proliferation in response to certain signals (DNA damage); if not there ultimately leads to cancer
Rb (Retinoblastoma): rare intraocular malignant neoplasm of infants; cytochrome 13
When not phosphorylated it binds E2Fs, blocking G1/S transition
When phosphorylated it releases E2Fs and the blockade is released-transition occurs
o
What is normal role of p53 tumor suppressor?
They inhibit cell proliferation in response to certain signals (DNA damage); if not there ultimately leads to cancer
P53: Phosphorylation by kinase leads to an increase in its number & activity;
o Stimulates the tf p21 which binds to the G1-Cdk complex and prevents the phosphorylation of Rb-inhibits entry into the S phase.
o Stimulates GADD45-DNA damage enzyme-combined activity; this inhibits the transition to the S phase & transcribing a DNA repair enzyme (gives cell opportunity to fix damage-if repaired decrease of p53 activity & if not-increase signaling for apoptosis to occur
What is NF-1?
• NF1 is the most common neurofibromatosis, occurring in 1 in 3,000 to 4,000 individuals in the United States.
–NF-1 is a tumor suppressor gene that regulates the activity of Ras.
– It does so by behaving as a GTPase-activating protein.
What disorders related to NF1?
This disorder affects the nervous system and causes tumors to grow around nerves.
– Tumors begin in the cells that make up the myelin sheath and often spread into adjacent areas (neurofibromas).
– Other symptoms include
• Malformation of the long bones and curvature of the spine (scoliosis)
• Tumors on the optic nerve which can cause visual loss
• High blood pressure and other blood problems
• Tumors on the spine and brain: increase risk of epilepsy
• Tumors or lesions on the gastrointestinal
• Hearing defects

• Individuals with NF1 have a mutation in the gene that encodes NF-1.
What is APC?
regulatory protein and tumor supressor gene. When it is bound to b-catenenin it inhibits cell proliferation.Mutatations in APC are found in vast majority of sporadic colon cancer.
What disorders related to APC?
Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (FAP) is a hereditable colorectal cancer, in which hundreds or thousands of polyps appear early in adult life (see B).
– If they are not removed, one or more will almost always progress to become malignant.
• 12 years is the average time from the first detection of polyps to the diagnosis of cancer.
• Individuals with FAP have mutation in, or deletion of, the tumor suppressor gene adenomatous polyposis coli (APC).
What is deoxyribose?
pentose sugar
no hydroxyl group (OH) at C2
when added to a base, C atoms are numbered 1’ to 5’
What is structure of 3', 5' phosphodiester bond b/t nucleotides of polynucletide chain?
Nucleotides are covalently linked together by 3’,5’-phosphodiester bonds.
b. 5’ end has free 5’ carbon –
c. 3’ end has 3’ nucleotide carbon – free
d. 3’ to 5’ phosphodiester bond – do not hydrolyze frequently – bad if want to form process
What is base pairing b/t complementary strands of DNA?
Adenine to Thymine with 2 hydrogen bonds
Cytosine to Guanine with 3 hydrogen bonds
Describe structure of DNA
a. Two polynucleotide chains coiled around a common axis.
b. Chains are paired in an antiparallel manner.
c. In B-DNA bases are stacked inside (hydrophobic), perpendicular to the axis. Deoxyribose-phosphate backbones (hydrophilic) are on the outside.
d. Phosphate groups give DNA a net negative charge.
e. Bases are major groove
f. Minor groove– deoxyribose and 3-5 phosphodiester linkages
What are 3 forms of DNA?
A, B, and Z
What is deoxyribose?
pentose sugar
no hydroxyl group (OH) at C2
when added to a base, C atoms are numbered 1’ to 5’
What is ribose?
pentose sugar
hydroxyl group in C2 position
What are purines?
adenine and guanine – 9 member ring
bound at N9 and C1’ of deoxyribose
What are pyridimines?
cytosine, thymine, uracil (RNA) – 6 member ring
bound at N1 and C1’ of deoxyribose
What is a nucleoside?
glycosidic linkage between a base and deoxyribose
ie deoxy to adenine=deoxyadenine
What is a nucleotide?
nucleoside is linked to a phosphate group –
Nucleotides consist of a phosphate ester, a pentose sugar, and a heterocyclic base which are covalently bonded together
What is structure of 3', 5' phosphodiester bond b/t nucleotides of polynucletide chain?
Nucleotides are covalently linked together by 3’,5’-phosphodiester bonds.
b. 5’ end has free 5’ carbon –
c. 3’ end has 3’ nucleotide carbon – free
d. 3’ to 5’ phosphodiester bond – do not hydrolyze frequently – bad if want to form process
What is base pairing b/t complementary strands of DNA?
Adenine to Thymine with 2 hydrogen bonds
Cytosine to Guanine with 3 hydrogen bonds
Describe structure of DNA
a. Two polynucleotide chains coiled around a common axis.
b. Chains are paired in an antiparallel manner.
c. In B-DNA bases are stacked inside (hydrophobic), perpendicular to the axis. Deoxyribose-phosphate backbones (hydrophilic) are on the outside.
d. Phosphate groups give DNA a net negative charge.
e. Bases are major groove
f. Minor groove– deoxyribose and 3-5 phosphodiester linkages
What are 3 forms of DNA?
A, B, and Z
What are characteristics of A-DNA?
A-DNA – 11 bp per turn – low humidity – high salt right handed
What are characteristics of B-DNA?
B-DNA – 10 bp per turn – high humidity – low salt right handed
i. average overall structure in living organisms
What are characteristics of Z-DNA?
Z-DNA – 12 bp per turn – left handed
What are components of nucleosome?
a. Nucleosomes are regularly repeated units – made of DNA wrapped around histones
b. They are composed of an octameric histone cluster containing two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4.
c. DNA (147 bp) is wrapped around the octamer and makes contact with histones at the minor groove.
d. ~200 bp of DNA is associated with each nucleosome (DNA wrapped around core + linker DNA).
What is hiearchy of DNA packaging?
1.Nucleosome
2.10nM fiber – beads on a string – many nucleosomes joined (3-6x shorter)
3.30nM fiber of solenoid (6-7 nucleosomes per turn – 40x shorter)
4.Loops – (1000x shorter) – formed by topoisomerases – avg packaging during interphase
5.Chromosome – 10000x shorter
Linker and 147 pairs – 8 octomer – 10nM fiber – 30nM fiber (6-7nucleosome, 40x) – scaffold (solenoid 1000x) – condensins (10000times)
What is heterochromatin?
highly condensed chromatin, that is not transcriptionally active.
What is euchromatin?
less condensed chromatin, that is transcriptionally active.
Describe basic structure of eukaryortic chromosome?
Each haploid cell (i.e., egg or sperm) contains 1 copy of chromosomes 1-22 (autosomes) and either an X or Y.
Diploid cells contain 2 copies of chromosomes 1-22 and either 2 X (females) or an X and Y (male).
A karyotype is an organized profile of chromosomes.
The human genome contains ~6 billion base pairs and encodes ~25,000 genes.
G band – lower GC content
R band – high GC
3 sequences needed to replicate chromosomes
Telomere – ends would be shortened and info lost
Origin of replication – sequence necessary to replicate DNA
Centromere – area where mitotic spindle assembles – where the sisters line up
What is replication?
DNA serves as a template for its replication and, consequently, plays an essential role in heredity.
What is transcription?
Genetic information contained in DNA is converted to RNA.
What is translation?
RNA is converted to protein
What is tRNA?
Transfer RNA (tRNA): activates amino acids and recognizes codons in mRNA. It carries its specific aa-covalently attached to its 3' end-to site of protein synthesis.
What is rRNA?
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA): structural and catalytic components of the ribosome.
central component of the ribosome, the protein manufacturing machinery of all living cells. The function of the rRNA is to provide a mechanism for decoding mRNA into amino acids and to interact with the tRNAs during translation by providing peptidyl transferase activity
What is mRNA?
Messenger RNA - carries genetic information from the genome to ribosomes where it is used as template for protein synthesis.
What is role of mRNA 5'cap?
Principle role is to serve as a recognition feature for initiation factor binding.
Eukaryotic mRNAs lacking a cap are not translated efficiently in in vitro systems.
What is role of 3"tail?
i. The poly(A) sequence IS NOT coded in the DNA, but is added to mRNA in the nucleus after transcription.
ii. Its addition is catalyzed by the enzyme poly(A) polymerase (20-200 A’s).
The poly(A) tail is useful in isolating mRNA
Plays a role in stabilizing mRNA.
Contributes to the initiation of translation.
Prokaryotic and eurkaryotic mRNA differences
mRNA carries information (as a sequence of codons) for the synthesis of one or more proteins.
Monocistronic-information for one protein (eukaryotes).
Polycistronic- information for more than one protein (prokaryotes).
Eukaryotic include long sequences of adenine nucleotides(a "poly-A tail")
on 3'-end of RNA chain, plus "cap" on 5'end consisting of 7-mehthylguanosine attached backward
Describe Prokaryotic ribosmes
Prokaryotes are 70s – made of a 30s and 50s subunit-50S (5S RNA and 23S RNA) and 30S (16SRNA)
Describe Eurkaryotic ribosomes
Eukaryotes are 80s – made of a 40s and 60s subunit--60S ( 5S, 28S, 5.8), 40S( 18S)
Describe structure of tRNA
Amino acids are bound to tRNAs.
tRNA recognizes specific mRNA sequences (codons) to incorporate the correct amino acid residue. It serves as the intermediary between genetic information and protein synthesis.
Two important features, CCA-3’ sequence and the anticodon triplet.
tRNAs are 74-95 nucleotides long and have both secondary and tertiary structure.
Cloverleaf – secondary structure
Can also do tertiary structure
Describe mechanism of zidovudine
ZDV inhibits the production of DNA from viral RNA by preventing the elongation of a DNA strand by reverse transcriptase once it has been incorporated. Notice that ZDV does not have the necessary 3’-OH group for the synthesis of a 3’,5’ phosphodiester linkage. Therefore, the viral DNA is not made and it can not be integrated into a host chromosome.
Nucleotide has high affinity for reverse transcriptase
Does not inhibit dna polymerase
Describe mechanism of 5-fluorouracil
The chemotherapy agent 5-FU (fluorouracil), which has been in use against cancer for about 40 years, acts in several ways, but principally as a thymidylate synthase inhibitor. Interrupting the action of this enzyme blocks synthesis of the pyrimidine thymidine, which is a nucleotide required for DNA replication. Thymidylate synthase methylates deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) into thymidine monophosphate (dTMP).
What does semiconservative mean?
• DNA replication is semiconservative.
• The polynucleotide strands are separated from each other and used as templates for the synthesis of complementary daughter strands.
• Each new strand has one original template
What does template do?
provides the sequence information
What does a primer do?
provide a free 3’-OH group for the addition of nucleotides to the strand being synthesized
What do precursors do?
Deoxynucleoside 5’-triphosphates??
What do DNA polymerases do?
catalyzes the formation of the 3’,5’ phosphodiester bond beween nucleotides....an enzyme that catalyzes the polymerization of deoxyribonucleotides into a DNA strand. DNA polymerases are best-known for their role in DNA replication, in which the polymerase "reads" an intact DNA strand as a template and uses it to synthesize the new strand.
What are sliding clamps?
keep DNA polymerase in contact with the growing chain
What do helicases do?
separate DNA strands by unwinding at replication fork-energy for this fxn provided by ATP
What are primases?
enzymes which synthesize primers (normally short segments of RNA)
What do ss DNA binding proteins do?
keep template strands separated
What are nucleases?
catalyse 3’5’ phosphodiester bond thus hydrolyzing nucleic acids – includes endonucleases and exonucleases
What are ligases?
seals nicks created during DNA synthesis using AMP
What is fxn of DNA polymerase?
The function of DNA polymerase is to synthesize complementary bases into the daughter strand from the template strand in a 5’ to 3’ direction. DNA polymerase also proofreads the daughter strand to ensure accuracy
What are some prokaryotic dna polymerases?
Pol III – used for the synthesis of leading strand and the synthesis of most Okazaki frags
Pol I - used to fill the gaps once the primer is removed
What are some eukaryotic dna polymerases?
Pol a/primase b- used for priming
Pol δ- synthesis of the leading strand
Pol η- damage bypass less specific than Pol δ
What is the overall accuracy of a dna polymerase?
Using fit, proofreading, and strand-directed mismatch repair, only 1 error is made for every 1 billion nucleotides incorporated!
Therefore, only ~6 errors are made for every round of DNA replication in a human diploid cell
What is the replication fork?
the point where the double stranded parental DNA separates allowing replication to proceed
What is an Okazaki fragment?
the small sections of DNA that compose the daughter side of the lagging strand
What is the leading strand?
is the daughter strand of DNA that is continuously synthesized from 5’ to 3’
What is the lagging strand?
is composed of discontinuous bands of double stranded DNA due to DNA polymerase synthesizing in a 5’ to 3’ direction
Where is DNA replication initiated in Prokaryotes?
the ori C is the site where dna replication is intitiated. It is bound by Dna A which causes separation of the strands. Dna C then binds which allows Dna B to bind which is a helicase
Where is DNA replication initated in eukaryotes?
Eukaryotes have multiple sites along the DNA helix(origins of replication) This provides a mechanism for rapidly replicating the great length of dna molecules. Many sites where replication begins spaced 50,000 -100,000 bp apart. Ori extends bidirectionally until it comes in contact with a second ori.
DNA replication in Prokaryotes
The DnaG primase and Dna B helicase complex binds to the lagging strand.
Periodically the complex pauses to allow DnaG primase to synthesize an RNA primer for the lagging strand while the DnaB helicase unzips the strand. Following the complex ss binding proteins bind to DNA to keep it open.
The strand is elongated onto a previous Okazaki fragment (*1000-2000 bases*) by DNA Polymerase III. Elongation stops when it runs into another RNA primer. DNA polymerase III dissociates and DNA polymerase I binds to remove the RNA primer and fill in the gap with DNA (called nick translation).
Following the filling of the gap DNA Polymerase I dissociates and the nick is sealed by DNA ligase. During this process extra twists are being added to the dna which is eleviated by DNA gyrase a four subunit protein. The gyrA subunits catalyze transesterfercation reactions, while gyrB subunits cautalyze hydrolysis of ATP to mediate strand passage through the broken strands
DNA replication in Eukaryotes
In the eukaryotic leading strand the clamp loading factor RFC helps to load the sliding clamp (PCNA), which helps to initiate the binding of DNA polymerase δ.
In the eukaryotic lagging strand Replication protein A (RPA)(*as compared to ss binding protein in prokaryotes*) binds single stranded DNa once parental strands separate. DNA polymerase a is complexed with primase and they bind to the opened DNA strands and lay down primer.
oThe complex synthesizes a 10 bp RNA primer and then elongates it with 15-30 DNA’s. the complex then dissociates and DNA polymerase comes in to extend the okazaki fragment. (*130-200bp*) RNaseH degrades the RNA primer but leaves one behind and FEN1 removes the last nucleotide. DNA polymerase δ then fills the gap and DNA ligase fills the nick
What are transposons?
mobile segments of DNA that move an essentially random manner from one site to another
What is DNA polymorphism?
inherited differeneces in dna base sequences---some associated with disease
What is a clone?
the procedure of isolating a defined DNA sequence and obtaining multiple copies of it in vivo.To "clone a gene," a DNA fragment containing the gene of interest is isolated from chromosomal DNA using restriction enzymes and then united with a plasmid that has been cut with the same restriction enzymes. When the fragment of chromosomal DNA is joined with its cloning vector in the lab, it is called a "recombinant DNA molecule." Following introduction into suitable host cells, the recombinant DNA can then be reproduced along with the host cell DNA
What is recombinant DNA?
form of DNA that does not exist naturally, which is created by combining DNA sequences that would not normally occur together
What does restriction fragment length polymorphism refer to
Point mutations can occur in a recognition site for a restriction endonuclease and short DNA fragments are created (restriction fragments)
How can restricition fragments be used to identify disease?
Individuals with mutations will have variations in the length of restriction fragments produced compared to normal individuals, and the abnormal strands are called RFLP
What is DNA polymorphism?
2 or more allelic forms within a polymorphisms that can arise from point mutations, insertions, and deletions; some can be associated with disease and can be used as markers for the disease
What is a clone?
he procedure of isolating a defined DNA sequence and obtaining multiple copies of it in vivo
What is recombinant DNA?
form of DNA that does not exist naturally, which is created by combining DNA sequences that would not normally occur together
What does restriction fragment length polymorphism refer to
Point mutations can occur in a recognition site for a restriction endonuclease and short DNA fragments are created (restriction fragments)
How can restricition fragments be used to identify disease?
Individuals with mutations will have variations in the length of restriction fragments produced compared to normal individuals, and the abnormal strands are called RFLP
What does reverse transcriptase do?
reverse transcriptase, also known as RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, is a DNA polymerase enzyme that transcribes single-stranded RNA into single-stranded DNA. It also helps in the formation of a double helix DNA once the RNA has been reverse transcribed into a single strand cDNA. Normal transcription involves the synthesis of RNA from DNA; hence, reverse transcription is the reverse of this.
What is DNA polymorphism?
more allelic forms within a polymorphisms that can arise from point mutation
What is cloning?
process of making multiple copies of a defined DNA sequence. Cloning is frequently used to amplify DNA fragments containing whole genes, but it can also be used to amplify any DNA sequence such as promoters, non-coding sequences and randomly fragmented DNA. It is used in a wide array of biological experiments and practical applications ranging from genetic fingerprinting to large scale protein production.
What is recombinant DNA?
form of DNA that does not exist naturally, which is created by combining DNA sequences that would not normally occur together.[1] In terms of genetic modification, recombinant DNA (rDNA) is introduced through the addition of relevant DNA into an existing organismal DNA, such as the plasmids of bacteria, to code for or alter different traits for a specific purpose, such as antibiotic resistance.[1] It differs from genetic recombination, in that it does not occur through processes within the cell, but is engineered.
What does restriction fragment length polymorphism refer to?
Point mutations can occur in a recognition site for a restriction endonuclease and short DNA fragments are created (restriction fragments)
How can RFLP's be used to identify diseases?
Individuals with mutations will have variations in the length of restriction fragments produced compared to normal individuals, and the abnormal strands are called RFLP
Know what restriction endonucleases are
Restriction endonucleases cleave only at restriction sites (recognition sites) and create fragments of DNA
i. They recognize short (4-6bp) called palindromes(sequence is the same on both strands, not complementary, but the same) and unique
ii. Some have sticky ends, some have blunt ends
iii. 900 found
iv. First letter in name is the genus, next 2 are for species, the next for the strain, and the number for what order they were identified in
What are steps is Southern Blotting?
1. dna extracted form white cells
2. dna cleaved with restriciton enzyme-people can have different restriciton enzymes
3. agragose gel electrophoresis-fragments separated by size
4. denature dna into single strands and transfer(by blotting action) to nitrocellulose membrane, creating replica of the gel
5. hybridization w/32
6. expose xray film P-labeled probe
dna from 2 individuals differ in region recogmnized by probe.
Understand basics of PCR
PCR – polymerase chain reaction
i. Need primers, dNTPs, and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq) and your sample or template DNA
1. Primers are short sequences designed to be complementary to the sequence you want to copy, and 2 are needed for each sequence (one for 3’ end of sequence on each strand)
ii. The mix of necessary items is placed in a thermal cycler and several steps take place:
1. Denaturation: ~94 degrees C, causes the DNA double strands to split apart
2. Annealing: mixture is cooled (Tm – 5 degrees) and the primers bind to the template strand
3. Elongation: ~72 degrees and the primers are extended using the dNTPs
4. Several cycles occur, and 2 times as much DNA is created each time
iii. Primer set that is specific to the mutation is used for diagnosis, there is no amplification if there is no mutation – dark band on an electrophoretic gel for mutation
iv. Used for DNA fingerprinting as well by amplifying VNTR (variable number or tandem repeat sequences) of the loci
Let's make some DNA
use mRNA to make a DNA complementary to an mRNA using reverse transcription
i. Isolate mRNA in the cell using the polyA tail specific to mRNA
ii. Reverse transcriptase is added to mRNA with dNTPs and primers
iii. Primer anneals and reverse transcriptase makes a cDNA copy that makes a hook at the end, then an alkaline base removes RNA and DNA polymerase extends hook into complementary strand
iv. S1 will cleave the hook
Know how antibiotic resistance works for selecting bacterial transformants
look up
Know why plasmid vectors often have antibiotic resistance genes associated with them.
bacteria are grown in presence of antibiotics thus selecting for cells containing the hybrid plasmids which provide antibiotic resistance.