• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/247

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

247 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Anti-Tumoral Drugs


Purine pathway

Methotrexate: Dyhydrofolate reductase


5- Fluoracil: Thymidylate Synthase


Hydroxyurea: Ribonucleotide reductase


6- Mercaptopurine: Block novo purine synthesis

Antibiotics


Purine pathway

Trimethoprim: bacterial difydrofolate reductase

Histones

Octamere


H2a, H2b,H3,H4 x2 (nucleosome core) form 10nm fibers


H1-> 30 nm fibers

Nucleotides

Purines (Pure as gold) with two rings


Adenine demaination= guanine


Pyrimidines (CUT) (one ring)


Cytosine deamination= Uracil


Uracil methylation= Thimidine

Purine Synthesis requirements

(GAG)


-glutamine


-Aspartate


-Glycine


Orotic Acid accumulation

1)Orotic Aciduria(BUN: normal, Amonia: normal)


no defect in urea cycle,


No pyrimidines= megaloblastic anemia


Uridine administration



2)OTC malfunction from urea cycle


(BUN:decre, Hyperamonemia)


Carbamoy phosphate accumulation, being metabolized by UMP synthase


Nucleoside


Nucleotide

Base+sugar


Base+sugar+phosphate

Lesch- Nyhan Syndrome

X-Linked recessive


HGPRT ( hypoxanthine and guanine to IMP/GMP)


No purine salvage


Excess uric Acid


Retardation,Self mutilation,aggression, hyperuricemia,gout,choreoathetosis

Adenine Deaminase deficiency

-Adenosine to Inosine


-Accumulation of ATP/dATP feedback inhibition of Ribonucleotide reductase= No DNA synthesis


SCID in KIDS

Autosomal recessive


Adenine Demainase Deficiency


No DNA= No lymphocytes


Therapy: gene

Xantine Oxidase

Uric acid conversion from Guanine and Hypoxanthine.


Allpurinol inhibits it

Genetic code Properties

1)Unambiguos: 1codon=amino


2)Degenerate: 1 amino by multiple codons (Ex:methionine AUG and Tryptophan UGG)


3)Commaless/nonoverlapping: read from fixed starting point as continuos sequence of bases


4)Universal: Conserved throughout evolution (EX: mitochondria)

DNA mutations

Transitions:


Tranversions:


-Silent (same amino)


-Missence (changed amino similar)


-Nonsence (stop)


-Frameshift (missreading downstream)


-In frame( multiple of 3 bases added downstream normal)


-Large segment deletions


-Triplet repeat expansion


-Splincing mutations

Chargaffs Rules

% A=T % (or U%)


% G=C %


% Purines=Pyrimidines

Fluoroquinolones Target

Topoisomerase II


introduce negative supercoilings to relieve tension.


Prevent bacterial DNA replication

Chromatin Types

Euchormatin: Active


10 nm and 30 nm fibers



Heterochromatin:Inactive


Highly packaged


Chromosomes


DNA replication

DNA Polymerase:


Template Read from 3-->5 (primer req)


Synthesis: 5--> 3


Wrong nucleotide: 3--> 5 exonuclease


High fidelity


RNA replication

RNA polymerase:


DNA template read: 3--> 5 (no primer)


No profreading activity


Low fidelity


(T) for (U)

Helicase

Open the DNa strand breaking H bonds(unwind)

DNA binding proteins

Prevent from strands reassociating

Primase

RNA primer (5-->3)

DNA polymarase functions ?

Leading Strand: continuos


DNA synthesis 5-->3, beginning at the 3 end of the primer


Lagging Strand: discontinuos


Okazaki fragments


Profreading 3-->5 exonuclease

RNAase function ?

Remove primers

DNA ligase

Seal gaps with phosphodiesters bonds


(EX. Okasaki fragments)

DNA gyrase

topoisomerase II


negative supercoils

Inhibitors of Eukaryotic Topoisomerase II

Tenoposide


Etposide


antitumorals

Eukaryotic DNA polymerase

ALFA and DELTA: Synthesize DNA


GAMMA: replicates mitcochondrial DNA


Beta:Repair

Telomerase

Maintain Telomers by adding RNA by reverse transcriptase activity


Only in embryonic cells.


Might be high in tumoral cells.

Reverse transcriptase

RNA dependent DNA polymerase.


Uses an RNA template to produce DNA


RETROVIRUSES: HIV (Target of antiretroviral Therapy like AZT,DDc,DDI)


HUMANS: TELOMERASE

Xeroderma Pigmentosum

Autosomal Reccesive


Thymine dimers


Sensitvity to light, skin freckling, ulcerations, cancer.


Carcinomas and melanomas early


UV radiation


repair G1 : excision endonuclease (DNA polymerase, ligase)

P53 gene

Prevents entering a damaged cell to DNA replication


Associated with Li Fraumeni SD

RB gene

Tumor suppresor


Retinoblastoma

Mismatched bases repair

During: G2


Genes: MSH2, MLH1


Affected: Nonpolyposys colorectal cancer (HNPCC) or Lychc Syndrome.


Microsatellite instability

Cytosine Demaination Repair

During G1


Uracil Glycosilase


Microsatellite Instaibility

Di tri nucleotides repeats dispersed through DNA.


If mismach repair is altered numbers of repeats will vary.


HNPPC


Types of RNA

rRNA: most abbundant, ribososmes


tRNA:second, carry aa to the ribosome


mRNA: aa sequence from DNA thats going to be translated in ribosomes.


hnRNA: Pre mRNA


snRNA: splicing (nucleous)

Eukaryotic RNA polymerases

RNA Pol I: nucleous--> rRNA (except 5S)


RNA Pol II: hnRNA/mRNA


RNA Pol III: tRNA and the 5s rRNA

Where does RNA Polymerase binds to start Transcription ?

To the promoter

Where Does prokaryotic ribosomes bind to initiate mRNA translation ?

Shine Delgarno of the 5 unstraslated region

Where Does Eukaryotic ribosomes bind to the mRNA ?

To the 7 methilguanosine cap

Eukaryotic Mature mRNA which characteristics have ?

Process: in the nucleous


1) 7 methylguanosine cap to the 5 end


2)Poly A tail addition


3)No introns


Alternative Splicing is ?

The pre mRNA is spliced in different forms to produce different proteins from one gene.

Ribosomes

Eukaryotics: 60S and 40S(80S)


Big subunit: 5s-5.8s-28s


small subunit: 18s



Prokaryotics: 50S and 30S (70S)


Big: 5s-23s


small: 16s

Shiga Toxin(shigella dysenteriae)


Verotoxin (Enterohemorragic E. coli)


Target ??

Inactive 28S halting protein synthesis

tRNA Functions?

1)Pairs with codon in mRNA


2)Picks up aminoacid in the 3rd end

RNA polymarase types in Prokaryotes ??

JUST ONE


Alfa2beta beta

STOP AND START CODONS

START: AUG (methionine),bacterias=fmet



STOP: (UAA-UGA-UAG)

B-thalassemia

Beta chain of HB deficiency


Mediterranean areas


-Pale,splenomegaly,bone deformities (excessive activity of bone marrow) , fractures

Large segement deletions mutations

Alfa thalassemia: Deletion of one or more of the alfa globin from chromosome 16


Cri-Du-CHAT: deletion of the short arm of chormosome 5

Splice site mutations

B-thalassemia


tay Sachs


Gaucher

Trinucleotide Repeat expansions


mutations

Expansion of trinucleotides repeats, increase with generatios showing anticipation.


1)Huntingon


2)Fragile X Syndrome


3)Myotonic Dystrophy

Huntingon Disease

Autosomal Dominant (late onset)


Trinucleotide repeat expansion


-mood disturbance


-impaired memory


-Hyperreflexia


-Gait problems


-Chorea


-Dystonia


-Dementia


-Dysphagia

Where does translation, transcription takes part ??

Translation: Cytoplasm


Trasncription: Nucleous

Translation Stages:

1)Initiation: small subunit binding to shine delgarno or 7 methylguanosine. tRNA binds to firs codon AUG with Met.


Binds to P site


2)Elongation: Use elongations factors (ef2) and GTP


-tRNA binds to A site, peptidyl transferase forms peptide bond-->ribosome moves three codons in mRNA and the A site becomes free.



3)Termination:A site reach stop codon


Pseudomonas


Diphteria Toxins

Inactivate Ef2 used in Elongation


ADP rybosylation

AMINOGLYCOSIDES

Bind to 30S --> inhibit translation initiation

Tetracyclines

Elongation inhibitor


binds to A site


Minocycline


Doxicycline

Macrolides

Block elongation


Inhibiting 50S in P site


Erythromicin

Chloranphenicol

Block Peptidyl transferase


Gray Baby Syndrome

Babys who receive chloranphenicol


Do not have enough glucoronyl trasnferase to allow excretion.


Cause: Aplasic anemia,blue lips, cyanosis, death ,low blood pressure

Proteins translated on RER ribososmes:

Secreted proteins


Proteins for membrane


Lysosomal enzymes

Prteins translated in free ribosomes:

Cytoplasmic proteins


Mitochondrial proteins

How enzymes are targeted to Lysosomes??

Phosphorylation of mannose

How translation is designded to happen at RER ??

N terminal signal


Proteins for :


1)secretion


2)membrane


3)lysosomes

Alfa 1 antitrypsin deficiency

By Liver on to the blood


Protect cells as an inhibitor of some proteases released during normal inflamatory response.


Genetical disease: accumulationdue ti misfolding leading to cirrhosis.

I-Cell disease

No mannose Phosphorylation, producing lysosomal enzymes to be secreted in the blood.


Inclusion bodies in lysosomes


Produce:


-Coarse features, gingival hyperplasia, macroglossia.


-Craniofacial abnormalities


-Clubfoot


-Growth retardation


-Scoliosis

Co and Pottranslational mofications to proteins

1) Glycoslylation


2)Proteolysis


3)Phosphorylation


4)Gamma Carboxylation


5)Phenylation

Collagen Types

I: bone, skin, tendons(Osteo imperfec,Ehler)


II: Cartilage, Vitreous humor


III: Blood vessels, granulation tissue (keloid)


IV: basement membranes(Goodpasture, Alport)

Scurvy

Vit c Deficiency (No Hydroxylation)


-Anemia


-Petechiae, Echymoses. loose teeth, Bleeding gums


-Poor wound healing


-Poor bone development

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Gene mutation


-Skeletal deformities


-Fractures


-Blue sclera


Ehlers Danlos Syndromes
Collagen gene and Hydroxylase gene mutation.
-Hyperextensible skin and fragile
-Hypermobile joints
-dislocations
-Varicose veins and ecchymoses

Menkes Disease

X-Linked


No cross linking secondary to copper def (lysil Oxidase) Problem at intestine pump


-Depigmented steely hair


-Arterial tortuosity


-Cerebral degeneration


-Osteoporosis


-anemia

Wilsons Disease

Diferencial with MEnkes


Copper cannot be pumped from liver


-Kayser-Fleischer rings ( brown ring iris)


-Physcological problems


-Low ceruloplasmin

Activator proteins that bind to response elementsare called ?

trasncription Factors

Especific Transcription Factors bind to ??

Enhancer regions to modulate formation of transcription complex

Trans. Factor:


Steroid receptors

Biding Site or response element : HRE


Function: steroid response


Class: zinc finger


cAMP response element binding protein (CREB) binds to ?
Binding: CRE
Function : Response to cAMP
class: Leucine
Trans. Factor:
Peroxisomes proliferator activated receptors(PPARS)
Bind to: PPREs
Function: Regulate lipid metabolism
Class: zinc fingers

Transcription Factor have two Domains ??

1) DNA binding domain


2)activation Domain (bind to other TF, interact with RNa pol, Acetylases for chormatin)

How does Fibrates Act ?
Peroxisomes proliferation lipoprotein lipase expression.

Zwelleger Syndrome

Peroxisomes def. accumulation of long chain FA.


-enlarged liver


-Vision problems


- high Fe and Cu levels


- Abnormal muscle tone


- mental retardation

Klein Wardemburg syndrome

PAx gene defect


-Dysthopia Canthorum


-Pigementary abnormalities (white hair in fornt patch)


- Congenital deafness


- Limb abnormalities

Sonic hedgehog Gene mutation??

Holoprosencenphaly

Prader Willi Syndrome

Genetic imprinting in Chromosome 15 where paternal gene is imprinted.


- Childhood hyperphagia


- Obesity


- Hypodonatrophic hypogonadism


- Mental Retardation


- Hypotonia

Recombinant DNA applications:

-Analyze and altere genes


-Recombinant proteins


-Prenatal diagnosis


-Produce genomic libraries

cDNa Libraries Used for:

1) Sequence genes- identify disease


2) Recombinat proteins


3) Gene replacement therapy


4)transgenic Animals

Transgenic MICE

Introduce a cloned gene into fertilized Ova to produce affected germline.Offspring are transgenic


Used to study diseases from early embrionic development through adulthood.


KnockOut Mice

deletion of a gene

Chimeric mice

Mice compossed of two different cell lines fro two different starin of mice

Vectors for recombinant DNA should include :

1) Restriction site


2)replication Origin


3) resistance to antibiotic



For expression:


1)Promoter


2)Shine delgarno

Southern Blot
DNA
Determine which fragments of Dna are associated to a probe.

Wester Blot

Analyze proteins


Measure amount of antivbodies or antigens

Northern Blot

RNA


Measure amounts of mRNA or to measure gene expression.

What does Southern Blot with RFLPs search for ?

Mutations in restriccion endonucleases sites

Fragile X Syndrome

Leading Cause of mental retardation.


FMR1 gene in long arm of chromosome X


-Large ears


-Elongated Face


-hypermobile Joints


Uses of PCR:

1) Compare DNA in Forensic Cases (Paternity)


2)Direct mutation test


3)Diagnosis of viral or bacterial


4)HIV test (when Ab where uniformative, infants whose mothers are HIV pos)

Microsatellites Or STRs useful for:
Are repeats of Di Tri to tetranucleotides sequence.
useful for genetic Testing.
Show some variability in lenght as mutations have expanded or contracted the numbre of repeats

Advantages of PCR for HIV ??


And When is used ??


1) Positive muche earlier


2) Do not rely on Ab response by the invidual


------


1) newborn whose mother is HIV pos


2) Early testing after exposing to HIV pos blood

Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is used for ?
Detects and quantify a especific RNA in a sample.
Used for measure the concentrations of active circulating Virus or VIRAL LOAD

Hydrophobic aminoacids

1) Glycine


2) Alanine


3) Valine


4) Leucine


5) Isoleucine


6) Proline


7)Tyrosine


8)Phenilalanine


9) Triptophan

Hydrophilic aminoacids

1)Arginine


2)Lysine


3)Histidine


4)Aspartate


5)Glutamate


6)Serine


7)threonine


8)Cysteine


9)methionine


10)Asparagine


11)Glutamine

Positive Aminoacids ??

-Lysine


-Arginine


-Histidine

Negative Aminoacids ??

-Aspartate


-Gluatamate

Aminoacids with sulfur ??

-Methionine


-Cysteine

N-Acetylcysteine Uses:

1) Acetaminophen intoxication


2) Cystic Fibrosis


3) Hemorragic cistitis (cyclophosphamide)

Mapple Syrup disease involved aminoacids ??

-valine


-Leucine


-Isoleucine

Ketogenic aminoacids ??

-Leucine


-Lysine

Essential aminoacids ??

1)Arginine(only during growth)


2)histidine


3)isoleucine


4)leucine


5)lysine


6)methionine


7)phenylalanine


8)threonine


9)Tryptophan


10)valine

Aminoacids involved un cathecolamines synthesis ??

1) Phenylalanine


2)Tyrosine

Sickle cell anemia is produced by ?
Substitution of valine by a glutamate
Rod shaped crystals, anemia

1) Vaso occlusive episodes (1 week)
2) Hemolytic episodes
3) Pain in bones
4)abdomen

Test to detect Hemoglobinopathys ??

Electrophoresis


Normal HBA= no charge no migrattion


HBc= two positives charges


HBs= One negative charge

Protein Turnover ??

amount of Broken proteins have to replaced

Nitrogen Balance Is?

Condition in which the amount of nitrogen incorporated each day equal the amount excreted.


Causes of Negative balance ??

1) Protein malnutrition


2) A dietary deficiency


3) Starvation


4) Diabetes


5) Infections

Causes of positive balance ??

1) Growth


2) Pregnancy


3) post surgery


4) Recory from nevative balance conditions

How do enzymes modify the rate and the activation energy ?
1) the rate in increased by enzymes
2) Decrease the energy of activation

Energy needed = 0

Reaction at equilibrium

Energy needed = >0

Thermodinamically nonspontaneous (energy required)


Energy needed = <0

thermodinamically spontaneous ( irreversible)

Forms to represent enzyme reactions

1) Michael mentis equation


2) Lineweaver- Burk plot

What is a competitive inhibitor ?

Substance tha ressemble the substrate and compete for binding to the active site of the enzyme.


Increase the Km, No effect on Vmax

What is an noncompetitive inhibitor ?

They do not bind to the active site, they bind to regulatory sites in the enzyme.



Decrease Vmax and no effect on Km

Examples of competitive inhibitors ?

Statin drugs: Competitive inhibit (HMG-coa)


Methotrexate: inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Which is the best therapy for metanol intoxication ?

Fomepizole

Type of Hormones by its secretion location ?
1) Paracrine: act close to the cell
2) Telecrine: Acts far

Hormone clasification ?

1) Hydrophilic


( insulin, Glucagon, cathecolamines)


2)Hydrophobic (Steroids,Calcitrol,Thyroxines,Retinoic Acid)

Protein Kinases Cause ?

1) Phosphrylation of enzymes


2) phosphorylation at genetic levels to incrase enzymes.

Hormones related to cAMP receptors ?
-Glucagon (Gs)
-Epinephrine Beta receptor (Gs)
-Epinephrine Alfa 2 receptor (Gi)
-Ach receptors M2 (Gi)

Which Protein Kinase is present in the cAMP ?

Protein Kinase A

PIP2 hormones receptors for ?

-Vasopressin


-epinephrine alfa 1


-ACH m1-m3

Protein kinase activated in PIP2 path ??

Protein Kinase C

Which enzyme is activated by Gq in PIP2 ?

Phospholipase c

cGMP activates which Protein Kinase ?
Protein Kinase G

Atrial natriuretic factor accion mechanism ?

Binds to ANF receptos, activating guanylate cyclase which by a secon messenger acivates PKg relaxing smooth muscle.

Nitric Oxide accion mechanism ?

Difuses into cell activates soluble gualnylate cyclase which by 2nd messenger activates PKg relaxing smooth muscle.

Drugs that become NO ?

Nitroprusside


nytroglycerine


Isosorbide dinitrate

Whats the name of the G protein related to the cGMP pathway ??

Theres no G protein

Insulin binding to its receptor activates ??

Tyrosine Kinase

Steps related in the insulin pathway ?

1- Receptor dimerization


2-hormone binds


3-Tyrosine kinase activated


4-Tyrosine kinase autophosphorylation


5- Insulin receptor substrate binds to receptor (IRS)


6-SH2 domains bind to IRS

SH2 domains of tyrosine kinase produce ?

1) activation of Pi-3 kinase which increases GLUT 4 on membrane of Adipose and muscle


2)Activation og protein phosphatases


3) stimulation of p21ras gene

How does E.coli heat stable toxin acts ?

Stimulates adenyl cyclase in GI increasing cGMP producing diarrhea.

Biotin deficiency produces ?

MCC: raw eggs


-Fasting hypoglycemia


-Alopecia


-Muscle pain


-Symptoms related to energy deficiency

Biotin is related to which enzymes ?

ABC enzymes


1) Pyruvate carboxylase ( Gluconeogenesis )


2) Acetyl Coa carboxylase ( F. acid synthesis)


3) Propionyl Coa carboxylase (Odd carbon metabolism)

Thiamine is related to which enzymes ?

TLCFN


1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase ( Pyruvate to AcOA)


2) Alfa ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase (TCA)


3)Transkelotase (HMP shunt)


4)Branched chain ketoacid DH (val,leu,iso)(Mapple syrup)

Thiamine deficiency manifestations ?

MCC: alcoholism


1) Wernicke (Ataxia,Nystagmus,Opthalmoplegia)


2)Kosakoff ( psychosis, cofabulation )


3) Wet beri-beri (Dylatated Cardiomyophaty)


4) Dry Beri beri


Niacin is related to ?

NAD(H)


FAD(H)


Dehydrogenases


Pellagra is Produced by ?

Niacin deficiency or Hartnups disease (tryptophan )

Pellagra manifestations

4D's


Dementia


Diarrhea


Dermatitis


Death

Folic Acid is related to which enzymes ?

1) Thymydylate synthase ( Thimidine synthesis in pyrimidine pathway)

Folate deficiency may produce ?

MCC: Alcoholism and pregnancy


1) homocysteinemia : > DVT


2) Megaloblastic anemia


3)Neural tube defects

Cyanocobalamin is related to ?

1) Homocysteine methyltrasnferase


2) Methyl malonyl CoA mutase


Vit B12 deficiency may produce ?

MCC: pernicious anemia, also vegans, terminal ileum resection, Aging with poor diet, infection D.latum


-Megaloblastica anemia


-Progressive peripheral neurophaty

Pyridoxine is related to which enzymes ?

1) ALA syntahse


2) Aminotransferases


Vit B6 deficiency manifestations ?

MCC: Izoniacid therapy


-Sideroblastic anemia


-Cheilosis-stomatitis


-Convulsions

Riboflavin deficiency may produce ?

1) corneal neovascularization


2) cheilosis-stomatitis


3) magenta tongue

Vitamin C is related to which enzymes ?

1) Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases (collagen)


2) Dopamine Hydroxylase (cathecolamines)


3) Iron absortion (anemia)

How does lipid soluble vitamins act ?

They difuse through the membrane and bind to intracellular receptors, the binding to Dna enhancers by ZN fingers.

lipid soluble vitamins and main fucntions ?

Vitamin A: Growth regulation and maintenace of epithelia, Vision


Vitamin D: blood Calcium homeostasis


Vitamin K: Carboxylation of Ca biding proteins like goag factors


Vitamin E: Antioxidant mainly form lipids

Which is the active form of Vitamin D and where is produced ?

1,25 dyhydroxicholecalciferol and is produced in the kidney.

How does body respond to hypocalcemia ?

1- PTH is released, which activates in the kidney calcitrol.


2-Calcitrol increases the Ca absortion from the gut and reduces renal excretion


3- Calcitrol in presence of PTH produce bone resorbtion

Causes of Vitamin D deficiency and may produce ?

1) bone demineralization


2) Rickets (children)


3) Osteomalacia (adults)


-------


1) Low sunlight


2)Renal disease


3) vit d low diet

Biphosphonates are drugs for the treatment of________ and they act inhibiting _______ ?

Osteoporosis


Osteoclasts

Vitamin D toxicity may produce?

-HYPERCALCEMIA


Excess Vitamin D can cause bone resorption contrubuting to osteoporosis


Hypercalcemia mainly affect ?

Renal tissue (early signs: polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia), If not corrected= Ca deposition in renal tissues.

Vitamin A in the cells are present As ?

Retino and retinoic acid : for the epithelium


Retinal: for Vision

Which is the active form of retinal ?

The CIS form

When light hits rodopsyn, Activates ?

A G protein that activates cGMP- Phosphodiesterse which reduce cGMP concentration Closing Na channels hyperpolarizing the membrane.This reduce the concetration of glutamate and the optic nerve becomes active sending information to the brain.

Vitamin A deficiency manifestations ?

1) Hyperkeratosis


2) Night blindness


3) Xeropthalmia


4) Frequent infections like pnemounia


5) Bronchitis


6) Bitot spots

Vitamin A toxicity Signs and symptoms ?

- Excessive sweating


- Brittle nails


-Diarrhea

MCC of vit A deficiency in the US ?

- Fat malabsortion


- Liver cirrhosis

Vitamin K deficiency predisposition ?

1) Fat malabsortion ( Bile duct obstruction)


2) Prolonged antibiotics


3) Breast fed new borns


4) Infants whose mother have been treated with anticonvulsivants during pregnancy like phenytoin.

Whats the main function of Vitamin K ?

Gamma carboxylation : Introduce Ca binding sites (gamma glutamyl carboxylase) into proteins that depend on Calcium.


Which coagulation factors depend on vit K ?

-II (prothrombin)


-VII


-IX


-X


-proteins c and s

How to distinguish from a Vitamin K and C deficiency ?

In vitamin C bleeding time is increased, and there are connective tissue problems associated.



In Vit K : the bleeding time s normal, but the PT time is increased, and there associated conditions that predispone to deficiency like fat malabsortion, antibiotics, breast fed new borns.

How does coumarins act as anticoagulants ?

They antagonize the effect of Vit k, and coagulation factors are secreted to the blood with no effect.


Why Heparin is administered with coumarins ?

Coumarins require 2 or 3 days to reach maximun effect.

Vitamin E or alfa tocopherol main functions ?

Antioxidant of lipids

Vitamin E deficiency Signs and symptoms ?

Hemolytic anemia


Acanthocytosis


Peripheral neurophaty


Ataxia


Retinitis pigmentosum


causes :


Fat malbsortion and prematures

Which substance is the common metabolic intermediate during the the well fed state ?

Acety CoA

Which are the main sources for Acetyl coA ?

1) Carbohydrates


2) Proteins


3) Fat

After a meal how carbohydrates are processed to Acetyl CoA ?

Glycolisis:


Glucose is absorbed in the GI tract and with insulin its transformed to pyruvate and then with help of PDH to ACoa

Excess energy from the diet is stored as ?

1) Fatty acids


2) GLycogen

Insulin is an ________ hormone and promotes__________ ?

- Anabolic


-Fuel storage

Glucago main functions ?

Respond to hypoglicemia, by promoting synthesis and release of glucose.

Which are three major target tissues of insulin ?

1) Liver


2) Adipose


3) muscle

During the well fed stage insulin in the liver muscle and adipose tissues promotes ?

Muscle: GLucose entry and Glycogen and protein synthesis


Liver: Glycogen and Fatty acids synthesis.


Adipose: Glucose entry and triglyceride synthesis.

During the post absortive state which are the main functions of glucagon, epinephrine?

Glucagon: Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (Liver only).


Epinephrine : release of Aa from muscle and fatty acids from adipose tissue.


What inhibits the production of ATP and starts the production of storage forms of energy ?

High concentration of ATP inhibit TCA cycle.

What conditions must be present to produce Glycogen ?

1) Insulin


2) High energy level from burning sugars

During well fed state the excess of Acetyl CoA will be stored as ?

Fatty acids in Adipose tissue

During prolonged starvation Lypolisis produce high levels of Acetyl Coa ,What happen whith them ?

They are trasformed to ketone bodies in the liver and dump into the blood as a secondary source of energy.

Red blood cells can use which sources for energy ?

Only Glucose.

What are the two major roles ol the liver in fuel metabolism ?

1) Maintain glucose blood levels


2) Synthesize Ketones

During the well fed state the liver gets his energy mainly from ?

Oxidation of aminoacids

Lipoprotein lipase is located in ______ and its major function is______ ?

Adiposse tissue


Release fatty acids from lipoproteins

Lipoprotein Lipase respond to ?

Insulin

Hormone sensitive lipase fucntion ?

Release fatty acids during fasting to the blood from fat cells.

During the Well fed state the energy levels in the liver are high from burning _________ and in the post absortive state are high from burning _____?

-Sugars


-Fat

Which cells can carry glycolisis ?

Every cell in the body

How is glucose tranported into the mucosal cells ?
By a Na/glucose trasnporter

What kind of GLUT transporter does the Liver and pancreas have ?

GLUT 2 an server as the B2 glucose sensors.

GLUT 4 is present in ?

Muscle and adipose tissue and increase in response to insulin

GLUT 1 and GLUT 3 are in ?

All other tissues and have a high affinity for glucose

Glycolysis products are ?

From one glucose :



2 pyruvates


2 substrate level phosphorylation


1 NADH

Glucokinase function ?

In the liver and pancreas


Traps glucose adding phosphate


Insulin estimualtes

Which is the rate limiting enzyme in the glycolysis pathway ?

PFK 1


What activates and inhibits PFK1 ?

Inhibits : Glucagon, ATP, Citrate


Estimulates: Insulin by PFK2 and AMP

Deficiency in Pyruvate kinase produce ?

The 2nd most common cause of hemolytic anemia


Hemolituc anemia


No heinz bodies


Increased 2-3 BPG

Pyruvate Kinase function ?

Trasnform Phosphoenolpyruvate to Pyruvate.


Produce ATP as substrate lever Phosphrylation.

2 ATP are produces as substrate lever phosphorylation ?

1 ) 1,3 Biphosphoglycerate


2) Phosphoenolpyruvate

Which steps in the Glycolysis pathway are irreversible ?

1) Glucokinase or Hexokinase


2) PFK 1


3) Pyruvate Kinase

Patient which presents:Vomits, Diarrhea, Lethargy, Hepatomegaly and jaundice, and mental retardation, also cataracts
Probable Dx ?
Galactosemia
- Glacatose 1P urydiltransferase deficiency

Patient with cataracts should suspect ?

Galactokinase deficiency or Aldolase reductase


Patients with galactosemia or diabetes

Lactase deficiency ?

Diarrhea


Cramps


Bloating

2-3 BPG function ?

Decrease O2 affinity for hemoglobin and allows to O2 be kicked out from the erythrocyte to the tissues.

Sucrose is broke down into ?

Glucose and fructose

Essential Fructosuria

Fructokinase defiency


Benign condition

Infant previuosly normal, who started Weaning process developed lethargy, vomits, Hepatomegaly, Hypoglycemia, Hyperuricemia and renal failure ?

Hereditary Fructose Intolerance


Fanconi sindrome ( proximal renal disorder)

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase is located in and its function is ?

PDH converts Pyruvate to Acetyl- CoA inside the mitochondria, which will serve for either fatty acids synthesis or ATP production in TCA.

Which compund inhibits PDH ?

Its own product, Acetyl Coa

What PDH requires for work ?

T-- Thiamine


L-- lipoic acid


C-- COA


F-- FAD


N-- NAD

Wernicke- Korsakoff Syndrome

Thimine (B1) deficiency in alcoholics


Ataxia, opthalmoplegia, nystagmus


Memory loss and confabulation


Cerebral hemorrage


Wet Beri Beri : Congestive heart failure

Name 3 enzymes which Are TLCFN

1) PDH


2) Alfa ketoglutarate DH


3) Brnached chain ketoacid DH

Which products give rise to Acety Coa for TCA cycle ?

Glucose


Aminoacids


Alcohol


fatty acids


Ketones

Which is the rate limiting in the TCA cycle ?

Isocitrate Dehidrogenase


Inhibited : ATP and NADH


Estimulated: ADP


How many ATP are produced by each acetyl Coa ?

12 ATP (x2)

Requirements of alfa ketoglutarate dehydrogenase ?

TLCFN

Which enzyme catalizes the third substrate level phosphorylation ?

succinyl Coa synthase

How does the TCA cycle gets regulated ?

Isocitrate DH is inhibited (ATP or NADH) and citrate accumulation turns off PFK 1 which in turn turns off Glycolisis.


Exception on the liver whic has PFK 2

FADH2 is produced from ?

Succinate


By succinate dehydrogenase or complex 2

Electron transport chain components ?

1) NADH dehydrogenase or Complex I


2) Coenzyme Q


3) Complex III


4)Cytochrome C


5) Complex IV

Some electrons are transfered directly to Coenzyme Q ?

From:


1) succinate Dehydrogenase ( FADH2)


2) Fatty acyl CoA dehydrogenase (FADH2)


3) Glycerol P shuttle (NADH)

How a Proton gradient is maintained in the Mitochondria intermembrane space ?

The energy generated by the flow of electrons is used by translocators to pump protons from the matrix across the inner mebrane

Which complex is in charge of producing ATP by pxidative phosphorylation ?

F0F1 ATP synthase, protons flow into the mitochondria through the F0 and the energy is used by F1 to phosphprylate ADP to ATP.


HOw much ATPs are produced by the electrons of an NADH ?

3 ATPS


How much ATPs are produced by the electrons of an FADH2 ?

2 ATPs

Oxidative Phosphorylation is inhibited by ?

- ATP


- Low O2


- Increased NADH FADH2

How does Cyanide works ?

Binds irreversibly to complex IV ( cytocrome c), stoping electron transport and ATP production

Cyanide Treatment ?

1) Nitrites: transform hemoglobin to methemglobin, which cyanide binds faster than that to complex


2) Thiosulfate: transforms Cyanide to thyocynate which is less toxic

CO intoxication

CO binds to FE2 in hemoglobin and also in complex 4 (cytochrome oxidase ) preventting transportation of electrons to O2.

Carbon monoxide intoxication symptoms ?

1) red cherry color of lips and cheeks


2) Respiration depression


3) coma

How does uncouplers work ?

They block the entrance of protons to F0 that way ATP its no procuded and energy is lost as heat , low concentrations of ATP increases back the cycle.


- 2,4 dinitrophenol


-Aspirin


-thermogenin

Reactive Oxygen Species ?

1) superoxide


2) Hydrogen peroxide


3) Hydroxyl radical

Whats the mechanism behind reperfusion injury ?

When tissue has been depreved from Oxygen, ATP will bel low and NADH would be high, if we introduce 02 back theres is a burst of activity in the ETC releasing ROS.

Defense mechanism against ROS ?

1) superoxide dismutase


2) Catalase


3) glutathione peroxidase


4) Vitamin E

Mitochondrial inherited diseases ?

MELAS


LEBER


Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers

Whats known as respiratory control ?

If O2 is limited the rate oxidative phosphorylation decreases and concentration of NADH and FADH2 increases, the high concentrations of NADH in turn inhibits the TCA cycle.



If O2 is normal and ADP is low , ADP allosterically activates isocitrate dehydrogenase increasing NADH and FADH2 those in turn increase ETC increasing ATP synthesis.