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97 Cards in this Set

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X linked (Bruton) agammaglobinemia

1- Defect in BTK gene - tyrosine kinase gene (X linked recessive) - No B cell maturation


2- Recurrent bacterial and enterioviral infection after 6 months ( decrease maternal IgG)


3- Absent B cell in peripheral blood ( no Ig of any class)


4- Absent/scant lymph nodes and tonsil


5- Live attenuated vaccine contraindicated

Selective IgA deficiency

1- Most common primary immunodeficiency


2- Mostly asymptomatic


3- Can see Airway and GI infections


4- Autoimmune disease


5- Atopy and anaphylaxis with IgA containing products


6- Increase susceptible to giardiasis


7- Cause false positive BHCG

Common variable immunodeficiency

1- Defect in B cell differentiation


2- Develop during childhood but diagnose at puberty


3- Autoimmune disease, bronchiectasis, lymphoma and sinopulmonary disease


4- Decrease plasma cells and immunoglobulins

Autoimmune disease of B cells

1- X linked (Bruton) agammaglobinemia


2- Selective IgA deficiency


3- Common variable immunodeficiency

Autoimmune disease of T cells

1- Thymic aplasia


2- IL-12 receptor deficiency


3- Autosomal dominant hyper Ig-E syndrome


4- Chronic mucocutanous Candidiasis

Thymic aplasi

1- 22q11 micro-deletion, failure of development of 3th and 4th pharyngeal pouches - thymus and parathyroid


2- DiGeorge syndrome- thymus, parathyroid and cardiac defect


3- Velocardiofacial syndrome - palate, facies and cardiac defect


4- CATCH 22- 1- cardiac abnormality


2- Abnormal facies


3- Thymic hypoplasia


4- Cleft palate


5- Hypoparathyroids - decrease Ca tetany


5- Decrease T cell, PTH and Ca


6- Absent Thymic shadow on CXR


IL-12 receptor deficiency

1- Decrease Th1 cell response (autosomal recessive)


2-Disseminated Mycobacteria and fungal infections after administration of BCG


3- Decrease IFN- y


4- most common cause of Medelian susceptibility to mycobacterial disease (MSMD)

Autosomal dominant hyper IgE syndrome job disease

1- Defect in Th17 cell due to mutation of STAT 3 - impaired recruitment of neutrophils to the site of infection


2- Features 1- Cold


2- Staphylococcus Abscess


3- Retained baby teeth


4- Course facies


5- Dermatological abnormalities (eczema)


6- Increase IgE


7- Increase Bone Fracture after minor trauma

Chronic mucocutanous candidiasis

1- T cell dysfunction against Candida


2- Defect of AIRE


3- Persistent non-invasive Candida infection of skin and mucus membrane


4- Absent in vitro T cell proliferation in response to Candida antigen


5- Absent cutaneous response to Candida antigen

Autoimmune disease of B and T cells

1- Sever combined immunodeficiency


2- Ataxia telangiectasia


3- Hyper IgM syndrome


4- Wiskott- Aldrich syndrome

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome

1- Defect of IL-2R gamma chain (x linked recessive)


Adenosine deaminase deficiency (autosomal recessive)


RAG mutation- VDJ recombination chain


2- Failure to thrive, developmental delay, chronic diarrhea, thrush, recurrent bacterial viral fungal and protozoan infections


3- Decrease T cell receptor excision circle (TREC)


4- Absent Thymic shadow (CXR), germinal center (lymph node biopsy) and T cell (flow cytometry)


5- Live vaccine contraindicated

Ataxia telangiectasia

1- Defect in ATM gene- Failure to detect DNA damage


2- Failure to halt the progression of the cell cycle - mutation accumulate


3- Triad 1- Cerebellar defect (Ataxia)


2- Spider agioma (telangiectasia)


3- Ig A deficiency


Increase sensitivity to radiation


4- Increase AFP


5- Decrease IgG, A and E


6- lymphopenia and cerebral atrophy


7- Increase risk of lymphoma and leukemia


Ataxia telangiectasia

1- Defect in ATM gene- Failure to detect DNA damage


2- Failure to halt the progression of the cell cycle - mutation accumulate


3- Triad 1- Cerebellar defect (Ataxia)


2- Spider agioma (telangiectasia)


3- Ig A deficiency


Increase sensitivity to radiation


4- Increase AFP


5- Decrease IgG, A and E


6- lymphopenia and cerebral atrophy


7- Increase risk of lymphoma and leukemia


Hyper Ig M syndrome

1- CD40 L defect on Th cell (x linked recessive) class switching defect


2- Severe pyogenic and opportunistic infection early in life


3- Normal or increase IgM


Decrease Ig G, A and E


Failure to make germinal center

Ataxia telangiectasia

1- Defect in ATM gene- Failure to detect DNA damage


2- Failure to halt the progression of the cell cycle - mutation accumulate


3- Triad 1- Cerebellar defect (Ataxia)


2- Spider agioma (telangiectasia)


3- Ig A deficiency


Increase sensitivity to radiation


4- Increase AFP


5- Decrease IgG, A and E


6- lymphopenia and cerebral atrophy


7- Increase risk of lymphoma and leukemia


Hyper Ig M syndrome

1- CD40 L defect on Th cell (x linked recessive) class switching defect


2- Severe pyogenic and opportunistic infection early in life


3- Normal or increase IgM


Decrease Ig G, A and E


Failure to make germinal center

Wishkott- Aldrich syndrome

1- Defect in WAS gene- leukocytes and platelets unable to reorganize actin in cytoskeleton


2- Wishkott- Aldrich


2- Thrombocytopenia


3- Eczema


4- Recurrent pyogenic infections


3- Increase risk of autoimmune disease and malignancy


4- normal or decrease IgG and IgM increase Ig A and E

Phagocyte dysfunction

1- Phagocyte dysfunction (leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1)


2- Chediak- Higashi syndrome


3- Chronic granulomatous disease

Leukocyte adhesive deficiency type 1

1- Defect in LEA- 1 interferon (CD18) protein on phagocytes- defect in migration and chemotaxis (autosomal recessive)


2- 1- Late separation of umbilical cord (> 30 days)


2- Absent pus


3- Dysfunctional neutrophils


3- Increase neutrophils in blood , absent neutrophils at infection site - poor wound healing


Chediak- Higashi syndrome

1- Defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST)


2- Microtubles defect in phagoso-lysosome fusion


3- 1-Progressive neurodegeneration and Pancytopenia


2- Lymphohistocytosis


3- Albinism


4-Infection recurrent pyogenic


5- Peripheral neuropathy


4- Giant granules in granulocytes


Immunodeficiency that are X linked

1- Bruton X linked agammaglobinemia


2- Severe combine immunodeficiency syndrome


3- Hyper IgM syndrome


4- Wishkott- Aldrich


5- Chronic granulomatous disease

Immunodeficiency that cause false negative celiac disease results

Selective IgA deficiency

Autosomal recessive immunodeficiency

IL-12 receptor deficiency


Adenosine deaminase deficiency in SCID


Ataxia telangiectasia


Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1


Chediak Higashi syndrome

What cardiac defect are typically associated with DeGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome

Conotruncal abnormality such as tetralogy of Fallot and truncus arteriosus

Diagnosis

Giant granules in granulocytes seen in Chediak- Higashi syndrome

Diagnosis and what precaution must be taken for the patient

Ataxia telangiectasia


Limit X Ray


Sensitivity to radiation

Name 2 immunodeficiency disorder where the Thymic shadow is absent

Thymic aplasia


SCID

Level of which molecule is used as a newborn screening for severe combined immunodeficiency

Decrease T cell receptor excision circles

Cyclosporine

1- Calcineurin inhibitor


2- Binds to Cyclophilin


3- Blocks T cell activation by preventing IL 2 transcription

Use of cyclosporine

Rheumatoid arthritis


Psoriasis

Toxicity of cyclosporine

1- Nephrotoxicity


2- Neurotoxicity


3- Gingival hyperplasia


4- Hypertension


5- Hyperlipidemia


6- Hirsutism

Tacrolimus (FK 506)

1- Calcineurin inhibitor


2- Binds to FK 506 binding protein (FKBP)


3- Block T cell activation by preventing IL 2 transcription

Use of tacrolimus

1- Rheumatoid arthritis


2- Psoriasis

Use of tacrolimus

1- Rheumatoid arthritis


2- Psoriasis

Toxicity of Tacrolimus

1- Nephrotoxicity


2- Increase risk of diabetes mellitous and neurotoxicity


3- No gingival hyperplasia or hirsutism


4- Hypertension


5- Hyperlipidemia

Sircolimus (rompamycin)

1- mTor inhibitor


2- Bind to FKBP


3- Block T cell activation and B cell differentiation by preventing response to IL2

Use of Sircolimus

1- Renal transplant rejection prophylaxis specifically Sir Basil’s binding transplant

Toxicity of sircolimus

1- Pancytopenia


2- Insulin resistance


3- Hyperlipidemia

Basiliximab

1- Monoclonal antibody


2- Block IL 2R

Toxicity of basiliximab

1- Hypertension


2- Edema


3- Tremor

Azathioprine

1- Antimetabolite of 6 mercaptopurine


2- Inhibit lymphocyte proliferation by blocking nucleotide synthesis

Use of azathioprine

1- Rheumatoid arthritis


2- Crohn’s disease


3- Glomeraleronephropathy


4- Autoimmune condition

Toxicity of azathioprine

Pancytopenia

Mycophenolate (mofetil)

1- IMP dehydrogenase inhibitor reversible


2- Prevent purine synthesis of B and T cell


3- Associated with invasive CMV infection

Use of mycophenolate

Lupus nephritis

Toxicity of mycophenolate

1- Pancytopenia


2- GI upset


3- Hypertension


4- Hyperglycemia

Glucocorticoid

1- NF-BK inhibitor


2- Suppress B cell and T cell function by decreasing transcription of many cytokines


3- Induce T cell apoptosis


4- Demigration of WBC causes atypical leukocytosis


5- Adrenal insufficiency develop if the drug is stoped abruptly after chronic use

Use of glucocorticoids

1- Autoimmune and inflammatory condition


2- Adrenal insufficiency


3- Asthma


4- CLL


5- Non- Hodgkin lymphoma

What are the side effects of prednisone on MSK

Osteoporosis


Avascular necrosis of the head of the femur


Myopathy

Which immunosuppressant is often found in drug-eluting stent

Sircolimus (rapamycin)

Which immunosuppressant medication is synergistic with cyclosporine

Sirolimus - no Nephrotoxicity

Long term use of immunosuppressant increase the risk of which 2 condition

Cancer


Infections

What 2 factors can amplify the nephrotoxicity of Calcineurin inhibitor

Higher doses


Poor renal function

Which messenger, directly downstream from the T cell receptor is activated to promote inflammatory cytokines (eg IL-2) gene transcription

NFAT, which is generated from NFAT-P by Calcineurin mediated dephosphorylation

mTOR is responsible for diving the transcription of what type of gene

Proliferation gene

What are the 2 monoclonal antibodies that bind to and inhibit the IL-2 receptor

Declizumab


Basiliximab

6 mercaptopurine inhibits what specific protein involved in nucleotide synthes

PRPP aminotransferase

What downstream messenger is activated by IL-2R signaling

mTOR

Erythropoietin

1- Epoetin alpha (EPO analog)


2- Anemia (especially renal failure)

Erythropoietin

1- Epoetin alpha (EPO analog)


2- Anemia (especially renal failure)

Colony stimulating factor

1- Filgrastim (G-CDF)


Sargramostim (GM-CSF)


2- leukopenia (recover granulocytes and monocytes ****)

Thrombopoietin

1- Romiplostim (TPO analog)


Eltrombopag (TPO receptor agonist)


2- Autoimmune thrombocytopenia (platelet stimulator)

Thrombopoietin

1- Romiplostim (TPO analog)


Eltrombopag (TPO receptor agonist)


2- Autoimmune thrombocytopenia (platelet stimulator)

Bone marrow stimulating cytokine

Erythropoietin


Clingy stimulating factor


Thrombopoietin

Thrombopoietin

1- Romiplostim (TPO analog)


Eltrombopag (TPO receptor agonist)


2- Autoimmune thrombocytopenia (platelet stimulator)

Bone marrow stimulating cytokine

Erythropoietin


Clingy stimulating factor


Thrombopoietin

Immunotherapy recombinant cytokines

IL 2


IFN alpha beta and gamma

Thrombopoietin

1- Romiplostim (TPO analog)


Eltrombopag (TPO receptor agonist)


2- Autoimmune thrombocytopenia (platelet stimulator)

Bone marrow stimulating cytokine

Erythropoietin


Clingy stimulating factor


Thrombopoietin

Immunotherapy recombinant cytokines

IL 2


IFN alpha beta and gamma

IL 2 recombinant cytokines

1- Aldesleukin


2- Renal cell carcinoma


Metastatic melanoma

Thrombopoietin

1- Romiplostim (TPO analog)


Eltrombopag (TPO receptor agonist)


2- Autoimmune thrombocytopenia (platelet stimulator)

Bone marrow stimulating cytokine

Erythropoietin


Clingy stimulating factor


Thrombopoietin

Immunotherapy recombinant cytokines

IL 2


IFN alpha beta and gamma

IL 2 recombinant cytokines

1- Aldesleukin


2- Renal cell carcinoma


Metastatic melanoma

Interferon alpha beta and gamma cytokines

Alpha 1- HCV, HBV


2- Renal cell carcinoma


Beta 1- multiple sclerosis


Gamma 1- chronic granulomatous disease

Alemtuzumab

1- CD 52


2- CLL


Multiple sclerosis

Bevacizumab

1- VEGF


2- 1- Colorectal cancer


2- Non small cell lung cancer


3- Renal cell cancer


4- Neurovascular age related macular degeneration


5- Proliferative diabetic retinopathy


6- Macular edema

Rituximab

1- CD 20


2- 1- CLL


2- Multiple sclerosis


3- B cell non- Hodgkin lymphoma


4- ITP


5- Rheumatoid arthritis


3- Risk of PML in patients with JC virus

Trastuzumab

1- HER2


2- 1- Breast cancer


2- Gastric cancer

Adalimumab inflixamab

1- Soluble TNF alpha


2- 1- Rheumatoid arthritis


2- Psoriasis


3- IBD


4- Ankylosis spondylitis

Eculizumab

1- Complement protein C5


2- Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Ixekizumab Secukinumab

1- IL 17A


2- 1- Psoriasis


2- Psoriatic arthritis

Natalizumab

1- Alpha 4 integrin


2- 1- Crohn’s disease


2- Multiple sclerosis


3- Risk of PML Progressive multi focal leukoencephalopathy in patients with JC virus

Ustekinumab

1- IL 12/ IL 23


2- 1- Psoriasis


2- Psoriatic arthritis

Abciximab

1- Platelet glycoproteins IIb/IIIa


2- Anti-platelet agent that prevent ischemic complications in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention

Denosumab

1- RANKL


2- Osteoporosis (inhibit osteoclasts maturation) mimic osteoprotegesis)

Omalizumab

1- IgE


2- Refractory allergic asthma (prevent IgE binding to FcERI)

Palivizumab

1- RSV F protein


2- RSV prophylaxis in high risk infants

Therapeutic antibodies for cancer therapy

1- Alemtuzumab


2- Bevacizumab


3- Rituximab


4- Trastuzumab

Therapeutic antibodies for cancer therapy

1- Alemtuzumab


2- Bevacizumab


3- Rituximab


4- Trastuzumab

Therapeutic agents for autoimmune disease

1- Adalimumab/inflizamab


2- Eculizamab


3- Ixekizumab/ secukinmab


4- Natalizumab


5- Ustekinumab

Other therapeutic agents

1- Abciximab


2- Denosumab


3- Omalizumab


4- Palivizumab

What drug is a decoy tumor necrosis factor alpha receptor

Etanercept (not a monoclonal antibody)

Screening of what infection is necessary when beginning treatment with adalimumab or infliximabb

Tuberculosis due to risk of reactivation

Which therapeutic antibody mimic factor VIII in the treatment of hemophilia A

Emicixumab

Emicizumab

1- Factor IXa and X


2- Hemophilia A