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178 Cards in this Set

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  • Back

Prior to entering a cockpit with an ejection seat, what precaution should you take?

Ensure the ejection handle safety pins and safe/armed handles are in the safe position
State the purpose of varying the rocket motor inboard nozzle diameters.
Allows each seat to take a divergent path during ejection
The primary means of ejection is through the canopy, but if time permits, the canopy may be jettisoned at what maximum airspeed?
250 KIAS
ECMO #1 ejects how many seconds after ECMO #2?
0.4 seconds
In what time frame does the pilot eject after ejection is initiated?
1.2 seconds
During command sequenced ejection, the sequence gas generator sear is extracted by rotation of what assembly?
Cross shaft
With the CMD EJECT SELECT handle in the ECMO command position, what crewmember is able to initiate command-sequenced ejection?
During ejections below 13,000 ± 1,500 feet, what assembly will actuate at approximately 0.5 second after ejection?
Drogue gun
What procedure must be initiated if the time-release mechanism fails?
Occupant must initiate manual separation from the seat and deployment of the
personnel parachute
What is the purpose of the different color-coded brackets?
To prevent interchangeability of seats
What component is the structural frame of the seat assembly?
Main beam assembly
What component provides automatic actuation of the harness release mechanism?
Time-release mechanism
List the five main assemblies of the NACES.
The catapult, main beam assembly, seat bucket assembly, parachute assembly,
and seat survival kit
What is the purpose of the drogue and bridle system?
Used to decelerate and stabilize the ejection seat prior to deployment of the
personnel parachute
What component supplies dynamic pressure inputs to the electronic sequencer?
Pitot assemblies
The SAFE/ARMED handle displays what color when in the ARMED position?
Yellow and black stripes
An F/A-18C aircraft uses what type of seat survival kit?
For all configurations, if the seat is command ejected, gas from the command sequencing system enters through what initiating system?
RH seat initiating system
During ejection, what distance does the seat have to travel before the drogue chute deploys?
32 inches
MODE 1 occurs at what speed and altitude?
Low speed—low altitude
What provides the power for the different modes of canopy operation?
Pneumatic pressure from externally serviced reservoirs
What is painted on the canopy to provide a visual display of being closed and locked?
Reference mark
The canopy is made of what type of material?
How is the canopy actuator locked?
Describe the function of the lock actuator restrictor.
It regulates the speed of the canopy-lock pneumatic actuator during locking and
unlocking of the canopy.
At what pressure does the low-pressure sensor cause the module valves to lock the
remaining pressure in the canopy hydraulic actuator?
225 psi
The canopy pneumatic reservoir is (a) what cubic capacity and (b) serviced to what psi?
(a) 225 cubic inch, (b) 3,000 psi
What item prevents overpressurization of the
Reservoir relief valve
Where is the auxiliary pressure reducer?
Downstream of the auxiliary pneumatic reservoir
What type of valve is the unlock shuttle valve?
Three-port pressure operated
How many modes of operation are there for the F-14 canopy system?
In what mode can the canopy stop at a desired opening?
On a fully opened canopy, what is the approximate closing time?
10 seconds
When reservoir pressure drops below 225 psi, what mode is used to unlock the canopy?
Auxiliary opening
What is the purpose of the canopy inflatable seal system?
To provide an airtight seal between the canopy assembly and the aircraft structure to maintain cockpit pressurization
The canopy seal pressure regulator regulates 80-psi bleed air input down to what pressure?
25 ± 5 psi
Where does the canopy seal system receive its pressure?
Service air heat exchanger
What prevents loss of pressure should the air supply to the system fail?
Check valve
What types of pyrotechnic cords are used in the F-14 escape system?
What component enables the aircrewman to jettison the canopy during emergency conditions without initiating seat ejection?
Internal canopy initiators
What provides high-pressure gas to the canopy actuator to jettison the canopy?
Canopy jettison gas generator
What component provides interconnection of SMDC lines?
Inert connectors and manifolds
Explosive manifolds provide support for mounting the lines to the aircraft structure.
What component prevents explosive transfer in one direction only?
One-way explosive transfers
The external canopy jettison handles are used for what purpose?
Ground emergency conditions
What is the purpose of the frangible escape system?
Provides a means of escape from the aircraft for crewmembers after ditching or
after a wheels-up landing by initiation of explosive charges to blow out windows
and hatches
The S-3 emergency egress system is more susceptible to inadvertent actuation than hot gas systems. True or false?
Instead of safety pins, the external jettison initiators use what type of component to protect against inadvertent initiation?
10-foot lanyard
How many internal jettison initiators are located in the crew compartment?
The____and____connect all external and internal jettison initiators.
What component restricts transfer of pyrotechnic flow in one direction?
SMDC one-way transfer valve
The emergency egress system is virtually inert when what component is properly installed?
Safety pins
State the intent of the Explosives Handling Qualification and Certification Program.
To ensure that before an individual performs any task involving explosives/explosive devices they are qualified and formally certified by the command to which they are assigned.
For what period of time is recertification valid?
1 year
State what individuals are required to become ordnance certified
Any person whose duties require them to individually inspect, prepare, adjust, arm, or de-arm explosive devices. Personnel who conduct magazine inspections, maintenance on aircraft safety and survival equipment, or perform any other function that involves explosive devices must be included in this program. The supervisor of explosive operations and members of the command-appointed certification board (except the chairman) must be individually certified for the evolution that they may supervise or observe.
State the responsibility of the department head (or equivalent supervisor) in regards to ordnance certification.
The department head (or equivalent supervisor) is responsible for initial certification by screening school records, previous certification, demonstrated
ability, and for conducting a personal interview.
State the reason(s) an individual would receive a personnel record entry(pg 13) concerning an ordnance incident.
If an individual causes an explosive mishap through gross negligence, reckless operation of equipment used to handle explosive/explosive devices, or flagrant disregard of procedural and/or safety precautions.
Name four aircraft systems that use auxiliary bleed air.
Air-conditioning, pressurization systems, electronic cooling, windshield washing, anti-icing, and anti-g systems
An auxiliary bleed air system can reach up to what pressure?
125 psi
Describe an S-3 aircraft bleed air leak detection system.
Consists of four loops of bleed air leak sensing elements located close to the auxiliary power unit, bleed air ducts, and an engine start port leak detector located near the engine ground start port
During normal operation, describe what happens when the temperature in the sensing
element exceeds 225°F.
In normal operation, when the temperature of a section or short segment of the sensing element exceeds 255°F, the chemical in the tube conducts electric current, which completes a transformer circuit to ground similar to the test relay. The indicator light on the annunciator panel will come on to indicate the loop is
What are the major components of a bleed air leak detection system?
Bleed air leak detector control, bleed air leak sensing elements, and an engine start port leak detector
How many modules make up the bleed air leak detector control?
Describe the difference between an anti-icing system and a deicing system.
An anti-icing system is designed to prevent ice from forming on the aircraft. A deicing system is designed to remove ice after it has formed.
In an anti-ice system, what method(s) are used to remove ice formation?
Electrical heaters, hot air, or a combination of both
Identify the four major components of a P-3 anti-ice system.
Shutoff valves, modulating valves, thermostats, and leading edge skin temperature
indicator and overheat circuit caution light circuit
The OPEN light on the ice protection panel will illuminate when what condition occurs?
When the bleed air valve is open 2 degrees or more
What is the purpose of an F-18 windshield anti-ice/rain removal system?
To provide airflow over the external surface of the windshield for rain removal
and windshield anti-icing
Name the seven major components of an F-18 windshield anti-ice/rain removal system.
Warm air temperature control valve, warm air temperature sensor, flow/temperature limiting anti-ice modulating valve, warm air over temperature sensor, anti-ice/rain removal air control regulating valve, windshield overheat temperature sensor, and windshield anti-ice/rain removal switch
What component controls the temperature entering the windshield anti-ice and rain removal ducts?
Warm air temperature control valve
The modes of operation for the anti-ice/rain removal system are controlled by what component?
Describe the mixture content on an EA-6B windshield-washer system.
50 percent water-methyl alcohol mixture
What type of valve is the windshield-washing
shutoff valve?
Solenoid-operated valve
What event takes place if the pressure in the windshield-washing tank goes above 13±0.5 psig?
The relief valve inside the windshield-washing shutoff valve opens and pressure in the tank is reduced.
What is the capacity of the windshield-washing tank?
1 1/2 gallons
Identify the purpose of an anti-g system.
Reduces the fatiguing effect of repeated exposure to positive or negative g-forces, also provides a method by which the crewmember can relieve fatigue and physical tension during extended flight
Most anti-g systems consist of what components?
Anti-g valve, anti-g system filter, and quick disconnects
The anti-g valve regulates high-pressure bleed air to what maximum pressure for delivery to the g-suit?
10 psi
Describe the operation of an anti-g system
As high-g conditions occur, the anti-g valves activating weight is forced down to close the exhaust valve and open the demand valve. This allows cooled engine bleed air from the refrigeration system service heat exchanger to flow through the anti-g valve, where it is regulated, to inflate the g-suit. Pressure to the g-suit
is varied in proportion to the g-force acting upon the aircraft and crewmembers, to a maximum of 10 psi. As g-forces decrease, the activating weight is forced upward by spring tension. This reduces the pressure of the airflow to the g-suit and exhausts excess suit pressure into the cabin. As this occurs, the demand valve closes, blocking air from the g-suit.
A vent-air system is used for what purpose?
Provides a measure of personal comfort, offsetting the discomfort caused by the wearing of the anti-exposure suit or heat created by cockpit equipment and resulting high-temperature ambient air
Where is the vent suit temperature sensor located?
In a manifold downstream of the vent suit temperature valve
Identify the six major components of a vent-air system.
Vent suit temperature valve, over-temperature sensor, pressure regulating valve,
pressure relief valve, and air hose assembly
What are the two modes of operation for a vent-air system?
Automatic and manual
Describe the purpose of the F-18 aircraft radar liquid cooling system.
Circulates liquid coolant to remove heat from the radar transmitter high-voltage RF energy modules
During ground operation, what component supplies cooling air for the heat exchanger?
Ground cooling fan
Name the eight major components of the radar liquid cooling system.
Cooling liquid-to-air heat exchanger, liquid coolant pump, airflow valve, ground cooling fan, coolant system filter, low-pressure sensor, high-temperature sensor, and coolant temperature sensor
Describe the operation of the ground cooling fan.
The ground cooling fan is electrically powered and supplies a flow of ambient air for heat transfer from the liquid cooling heat exchanger during aircraft ground operations.
Under normal atmospheric pressure and temperature, describe the characteristics of
It is a more efficient extinguishing system than CO2, and under normal atmospheric pressure and temperature, it is odorless and tasteless.
How many independent fire-extinguishing systems does a P-3 aircraft use?
List the different ports for a transfer check valve.
Two inlet ports and one outlet port, and a poppet that shuts off one inlet port
What is the internal volume of a P-3 fire-extinguishing container?
400 (+20, -15) cubic inches
Describe the procedures if a fire is indicated in no. 3 engine nacelle.
If a fire is indicated in no. 3 engine nacelle, pull no. 3 engine emergency handle aft and press the no. 3 engine fire-extinguishing discharge button. If the fire persists and it becomes necessary to discharge the second container of the same fire-extinguishing system into no. 3 engine nacelle, the transfer switch, which is guarded and shear-wired in the DIRECT TO ENGINES position, must be set to TRANSFER TO ADJACENT ENGINES, and the no. 3 engine fire-extinguishing discharge button must be pressed again. This action electrically ignites the cartridge in the transfer container valve assembly of the second fire-extinguishing container in that system.
Describe the purpose of an auxiliary power unit.
Provides detection and extinguishing for the APU compartment on the ground and in flight
What is/are the indication(s) given if a fire is present in the APU?
A horn sounds and a warning light illuminates
What is the purpose of an F-18 waveguide pressurization system?
To contain and transport the regulated, filtered, dry air to the radar and electronic countermeasures (ECM) waveguide cavities
What percentage of particles will the filter assembly remove if they are 25 microns or larger?
100 percent
The waveguide pressure regulating valve has how many aneroid assemblies to regulate air pressure?
Describe the purpose of the missile liquid cooling system.
To provide thermal conditioning for the radar system of the WCS and missile
What is the purpose of the missile hot air modulating valve?
The valve heats the coolant during system warm-up
The coolant pump circulates what amount of coolant per minute?
18 gallons
What type of protective measures must you take when servicing the missile liquid cooling system?
Respirator or an area with forced ventilation, and chemical splash-proof goggles
and gloves
Prior to taking a coolant sample, the coolant must have circulated for what amount of time?
5 minutes
What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?
14.7 psi
As an aircraft ascends to higher altitude, the decrease in atmospheric pressure may affect flight personnel. What is the most noticeable effect?
The atmospheric pressure above 35,000 feet is extremely low. This condition may cause what effect on the human body?
The human body tends to burst. In some cases, blood vessels near the surface may burst, causing hemorrhages in the ears, eyes, and breathing passages.
List the five requirements necessary for successful functioning of a pressurization and air-conditioning system.
1. The cabin must be designed to withstand the necessary pressure differential. This is primarily an airframe engineering and manufacturing problem. 2. There must be a means of limiting the maximum pressure differential to which walls will be subjected. This is provided by the cabin safety valve. 3. The aircraft must have an adequate supply of compressed air. This is provided through the compressor section of the jet engine. A separate compressor or supercharger is used on aircraft having reciprocating engines. On all jet aircraft, the air is taken directly from the compressor section of the jet engine. This is generally referred to as bleed air. 4. There must be a means of cooling the bleed air before it enters the cabin. This
is provided by an aircraft refrigeration unit. 5. There must be a means of controlling the cabin pressure. This is provided by the cabin pressure regulator, which regulates the outflow of air from the cabin.
List three systems that are included in the environmental control system.
The environmental control systems of most aircraft include cabin air-conditioning and pressurization, equipment cooling, defogging, windshield
washing and rain removal, and equipment pressurization subsystems.
The term air-to-air comes from what principle?
The name air cycle or air-to-air comes from the principle of cooling the air without the use of refrigerants by compression and expansion of bleed air.
The cabin air cycle cooling system EDC is mounted on what engine?
No. 3
What component balances airflow in case of back-pressure?
Two flow-limiting venturis
The water separator removes what percentage of moisture?
70 percent
What component is the heart of the temperature control system?
Temperature controller
When selecting full cold, all of the airflow into the air cycle cooling system is being cooled by what component?
Turbine refrigeration unit
What are the modes of operation for the P-3 air cycle cooling system?
Automatic and manual
In order for the human body to operate at the same level of efficiency as at sea level, what solution was developed?
Pressurizing the cockpit/cabin area
The area of an aircraft to be pressurized must be free from all air leaks. How is this accomplished?
By the use of seals around tubing, ducting, bolts, rivets, and other hardware that pass through or pierce the pressure tight area. All panels and large structural components are assembled with sealing compounds.
For the S-3 pressurization system, what component provides the pressurization schedule?
Cabin pressure regulator
During flight operations between 5,000 and 24,000 feet, what mode maintains the cabin altitude between 4,350 and 5,000 feet?
When is the re-pressurization mode used?
When returning to the normal mode from the dump mode or during a rapid descent in excess of 4,000 feet per min.
The S-3 cabin pressurization system will pressurize whenever ground elevation is above what altitude?
5,000 feet
The S-3 cabin pressurization subsystem consists of how many primary components?
The pressure regulator safety valve limits cabin-to-ambient pressure differentials to what psi?
7.07 (+0.2 and –0.0) psi
The pressure regulator control maintains cabin pressure of 5,000 feet while the aircraft
is flying between what altitudes?
5,000 and 24,000 feet
State the purpose of performing a continuity check.
To determine whether or not the circuit to the component is complete
How many distinct steps should be followed during troubleshooting?
Malfunctions usually fall into three basic categories. What are they?
Electrical, mechanical, and/or improper installation
During troubleshooting, all evidence indicates that the problem is electrical. Whom should you call for assistance?
As an aircraft climbs, what effect occurs to the volume of air?
Unless an aviator breathes additional oxygen, which three main systems on the body begin to fail?
The eyes, brain, and muscles
Above 33,000 feet to approximately 35,000 feet, oxygen equipment provides what percentage of oxygen?
100 percent
Above 43,000 feet, what requirement is the only adequate provision for the safety of an aviator?
Pressurization of the entire body
Oxygen procured under MIL-0-27210 is required to be what minimum percent pure?
99.5 percent
What color is liquid oxygen?
Pale blue
A complete lack of oxygen is referred to by what medical term?
The pressure in gaseous oxygen supply cylinders should not be allowed to fall below what level?
50 psi
What is the preferred compound for use in oxygen system cleaning?
Type I conforming to Military Specification MIL-C-81302
True or False. Oxygen systems can be used as a substitute for compressed air.
What component is used to direct the oxygen to the user’s respiratory system?
What are the two most common cylinder sizes?
514 and 295 cubic inches
High-pressure copper or aluminum alloy tubing can withstand what amount of pressure?
Above 450 psi
What is the purpose of oxygen check valves?
To permit the flow of oxygen in one direction only
When the temperature of gaseous oxygen is lowered to –182°F under 720 psi pressure, what transformation will occur?
The oxygen will begin to form into a liquid
True or False. When working with LOX, the wearing of trousers with cuffs is authorized.
A sealed container of LOX can generate up to what amount of pressure?
12,000 pounds of pressure
What component on a LOX converter provides a margin of safety from explosion?
Blowout disc
In a 24-hour period, a normal LOX system will lose what amount of pressure?
10 percent
Where is the low-pressure switch for a LOX system located?
In the oxygen supply line
What are the three sequences of operation for a LOX converter?
Fill, buildup, and supply
An aircraft liquid oxygen system should have what type of maintenance performed after replacement of any component or tubing assembly?
An OBOGS system vailability may be as high as what percent?
99 percent
True or False. An OBOGS system has a reduced chance for potential accident.
What are the three basic components of an OBOGS system?
Concentrator, oxygen monitor, and control panel assembly
What component has a built-in test?
Oxygen monitor
During OBOGS operation, when one sieve bed is absorbing, what is the other sieve bed releasing?
Open flames, smoking, or sparks should be kept what minimum distance away from a
LOX handling area?
Fifty feet
True or False. Oxygen will burn when ignited.
Identify the three major components of the TMU-70/M.
A 50-gallon Dewar storage tank, 15-liter Dewar transfer tank, and a low loss, closed loop system of transfer lines
Explain the primary function of the transfer tank.
Holds small volumes of LOX and uses cold gas pressure from the pressure buildup unit to transfer LOX to the aircraft converter
What is the function of the transfer tank pressure buildup valve?
Controls the gravity flow of liquid oxygen from the storage tank to the transfer tank
Using the fill-drain shutoff valve to control LOX flow may cause what type of hazard?
Dangerous back-pressure
Exterior cleanliness of the TMU-70/M LOX cart should be performed at what interval?
Information and instructions for maintenance of the TMU-70/M are found in what publication?
NAVAIR 19-25D-26
What type of LOX must be used to service aircraft LOX systems?
Only LOX conforming to MIL-0-27210, type II
What manual should you refer to for information on contamination control for oxygen?
Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO) Surveillance Program Laboratory and Field
Guide (A6-332SAO-GYD-000)
What is the primary source of contamination for LOX?
Atmospheric air
State the three ways LOX contamination is detected.
Odor test, sampling, and analysis
An odor test will be performed on a LOX cart if it has not been in service for what amount of time?
Six days
When is LOX sampling performed?
Whenever contamination is suspected
Of all the hydrocarbons associated with LOX, why is acetylene the most dangerous?
It is highly insoluble in LOX, and changing into a solid form, it can be readily set off into ignition. Since it is chemically unstable, it can decompose under certain conditions and become its own source of ignition.
List four contaminants commonly found in oxygen.
Water vapor, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and halogenated compounds
What rate is responsible for purging of LOX trailers?
AS rate
The type No-2 gaseous oxygen-servicing trailer has how many manifold control
What component on the type No-2 cart controls the charging pressure when the
trailer is servicing aircraft oxygen systems?
Pressure regulators
An oxygen cylinder should never be completely drained. How much residual pressure should be kept in the cylinder?
50 psi
True or False. Parts for a No-2 cart can be interchanged with those on a nitrogen cart.
The A/U26U-1A gaseous nitrogen module supplies what amount of regulated gaseous nitrogen to the oxygen module?
120 to 130 psig
Gaseous nitrogen on the A/U26U-1A shall conform to what federal specification?
Federal Specification BB-N-411, Type 1 (gaseous), Class 1 (oil free), Grade B
(99.5 percent pure, low moisture content)
When using the A/U26U-1A, what is the maximum allowable ambient temperature when servicing aircraft?