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97 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
According to NA-01-1A-16, who can perform NDI inspections?
Certified personnel only.
What type of examination must a candidate receive before selection as an NDI inspector and annually there after?
Eye exam.
How often must active NDI technicians recertify?
3 years.
What is the minimum amount of experience required from a technician who is currently certified and engaged in NDI in order to train and certify NDI operators?
3 years.
How often must an NDI technician or operator perform the methods in which they are certified?
Two times a month.
How long must a NDI operator maintain proficiency without being required to update training for recertification?
6 months.
The original copy of the NDI certification is held by whom?
The individual.
Who verifies the entries in the work center supervisor's Technician/Operator work record?
Quality Assurance (QA).
What command has cognizance over the NDI program?
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR).
What command provides training for all NADEPs?
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR).
Who is responsible for monitoring the NDI program in activities under their cognizance?
Aircraft Controlling Custodians (ACC).
What activity is responsible for ensuring compliance with qualification requirements and enforcing the Industrial Radiation Safety Program (RASP) requirements in accordance with the RASP manual?
Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA).
What division is responsible for monitoring the organization’s NDI training program?
Quality Assurance (QA).
What activity is responsible for requesting NDI inspection on aircraft?
Organizational Maintenance Activity (OMA).
For a magnetic particle inspection to be performed, a part must be made of alloys that contain a high percentage of what material?
Iron.
When conducting a magnetic particle inspection, the magnetic field is interrupted by what factor?
Discontinuity.
Which method of magnetization is used to find radial discontinuities around the edges of holes and detect longitudinal discontinuities?
Circular magnetization.
When you inspect hollow or tubelike parts, it is important to inspect what surface?
Inside surface.
What type of current should be used for the detection of surface discontinuities?
Alternating current (ac).
To detect subsurface discontinuities, you would use direct current with what type of magnetic particle inspection?
Wet magnetic particle method.
The particles that are used in magnetic particle inspections have what two characteristics?
High permeability and low retentivity.
The smallest particles are more easily attracted to and held by what type of discontinuities?
Very fine discontinuities.
Fluorescent particles are widely used in wet baths and are easily seen on dark backgrounds when what type of light is used?
Black light.
What method of inspection is used to detect flaws in areas that are not accessible or favorably oriented for use by other test methods?
Radiation (X-Ray).
X-rays can be a health hazard when improperly used because of what factor?
They produce radiation.
What method of inspection uses vibration or sound waves?
Ultrasonic inspection.
What inspection method is used to detect discontinuities parallel to the test surface on materials one-half inch thick or greater?
Straight-beam.
What is the best inspection method to use around fastener holes, cylindrical components, and welds?
Angle-beam.
What ultrasonic method is used to detect surface cracks and subsurface discontinuities in field activities?
Surface wave.
Electric currents that are induced in a conductor of electricity by a reaction with a magnetic field are known as what type of currents?
Eddy currents.
What type of coil has the ability to better define the exact location of discontinuities?
Surface coil.
A simple, inexpensive, and reliable method for detecting discontinuities that are open to the surface is known as what type of inspection?
Dye penetrant.
Welding training and testing are conducted at what facilities?
Naval Aviation Depot (NADEP).
What is the recertification interval for IMA-level aeronautical equipment welders if proficiency is maintained?
Annually.
If you fail the first test weld(s), what amount of time do you have to submit the retest welds after notification of failure?
30 days.
What are the two main purposes of the welding torch?
To properly mix the gasses and direct the flame against the part to be welded.
What is the temperature range of acetylene when mixed with oxygen?
5,700 to 6,300°F.
What are the three main characteristics of oxygen?
Odorless, colorless, and slightly heavier than air.
If an oxygen bottle has a white band around it, what type of oxygen does it contain?
Breathing oxygen.
What pressure does the low pressure (0 to 500 psi) gauge on a single-stage regulator indicate?
Working pressure.
Acetylene is colorless, but has what feature that makes it easily detected?
A distinct odor.
At what pressure does acetylene become self-explosive?
29.4 psi.
What is another name for a low-pressure welding torch?
Injector.
What color is the acetylene hose on an oxyacetylene welding system?
Red.
Describe the thread fittings for the hose hookups for an oxyacetylene welding system.
All threaded fittings used for the acetylene hookup are left-handed threads, and
all threaded fittings for oxygen hookup are right-handed threads.
Regardless of the shade of your welding goggle's lens, they should be protected by what type of material?
Clear cover glass.
Bronze and aluminum welding rods are examples of what type of welding rods?
Nonferrous.
What type of flame has three distinct zones and is used to weld nickel alloys?
Carburizing flame.
What type of flame has a small, white pointed cone in the inner zone with a purple tinge and is used to fuse brass and bronze?
Oxidizing flame.
An overheated welding tip, accompanied by a popping sound, indicates what action has occurred?
Backfire.
Define the term “flashback” as it applies to a welding torch.
Flashback is the burning of gases within the torch.
When the torch is held properly, the tip should be in line with what structure?
The joint to be welded.
What welding technique is the best method for welding lighter metals?
Forehand method.
Tee and lap joints are classified as what type of welds?
Fillet welds.
Corner and butt joints are classified as what type of welds?
Groove welds.
What type of joint is formed when two pieces of metal are placed edge-to-edge with no overlap and welded together?
Butt joint.
What type of joint is formed when two pieces of metal are welded approximately perpendicular to each other?
Tee joint.
What type of joint is formed by welding two overlapping metals together?
Lap joint.
What type of joint is formed when two or more parallel or nearly parallel pieces of metal are welded together?
Edge joint.
What type of electrode is used in GTA welding because of its ability to resist high temperatures?
Tungsten alloy.
DC reverse polarity in a welding machine causes a greater concentration of heat in what location?
At the electrode.
Directional and distributional control of the shielding gas is provided by what component?
Gas cups.
What is the most common type of shielding gas used in the tungsten-arc welding process?
Argon.
When striking an arc in gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW), you should hold the electrode what distance above the work piece?
1/8 inch.
The process that uses a consumable wire electrode is known as what type of welding?
Gas Metal Arc (GMA).
What determines the melting rate of the filler wire?
Current level.
When you use the gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW) method to weld aluminum, what is the preferred shielding gas?
Argon.
When you use the GMA welding method, why should you pull the gun back quickly when contact is made between the electrode and the work piece?
To prevent sticking.
If you hear a loud crackling sound while you are GMA welding, what direction should you move the wire-feed speed dial to correct this?
Counterclockwise.
When using GMA welding equipment, where should you attach the ground connection?
Ensure it is firmly attached to the work piece.
When GMA welding equipment is not in use, what should you do to the power source?
Completely disconnect it.
What is the only metal that cannot be hardened by heat-treatment?
Pure metal.
Uneven heating of metal often causes what actions to occur?
Distortion and cracking.
The slow heating of metal ensures what condition?
Uniformity.
The heating rate for hardened tools and parts should be slower than metals that are in what condition?
Not in a stressed condition.
What is the process of holding a metal at a temperature until it is heated throughout and changes have had time to take place?
Soaking.
How can you reduce the distortion and cracking of metal?
Preheating.
The process for rapidly cooling heated metal is known by what term?
Quenching.
Alloy steels are generally hardened by cooling with what substance?
Oil.
The form of heat-treatment used to reduce residual stresses, induce softness, and alter ductility is known by what term?
Annealing.
The process in which an iron-based metal is allowed to cool at room temperature, in still air, after being heated to approximately 100°F is known by what term?
Normalizing.
The process of quenching a metal after it is heated to a temperature slightly above the critical temperature is known by what term?
Hardening.
What is the process of producing a hard case over a tough core known as?
Case hardening.
The process by which steel is heated to just below critical and held there for a period of time, and then cooled with oil, water, or brine is known by what term?
Tempering.
The process of hardening steel by introducing carbon to the heated metal is known by what term?
Carburizing.
The process of hardening alloy steel by holding it at temperatures below the critical point in anhydrous ammonia is known by what term?
Nitriding.
The carbon in steel, which exists as particles of iron carbide scattered throughout the iron mixture, is known by what term?
Ferrite.
If the cooling is slow, the carbon particles are relatively course and few. In what condition will this leave the steel?
A soft condition.
Before steel can be hardened completely, it must be heated to a certain point, before it is rapidly quenched. What is this point called?
Upper critical point.
If you don't have an instrument to determine the temperature of steel being heated, you can judge it by what factor?
Its color.
What term describes an aluminum alloy with a protective coating of aluminum?
Alclad.
What increases artificially aged alloys' resistance to corrosion?
They are slightly overaged.
What is the recommended time interval between removal from the heat and immersion during the quenching process?
10 seconds or less.
Small aluminum parts are normally quenched in what substance to ensure good resistance to corrosion?
Cold water.
What quenching method is used to quench large forgings to prevent cracking and minimize distortions?
Hot water.
The process of removing the effects of heat-treatment in alloys is referred to by what term?
Annealing.
It takes a 2-hour soak at 750° to 800°F, followed by a maximum cooling rate of 50° per hour to 500°F to remove the effects of a partial or full heat-treatment and obtain what condition?
Maximum softness.