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479 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
A negative feedback mechanism contains what three components?
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a sensor, a control center, and an effector
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The coxal region refers to the
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hips
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The term used to describe something pertaining to the internal organs is
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visceral
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Homeostasis is maintained by self-regulating physiological processes. Select the process that is primarily responsible for maintaining homeostasis.
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Negative Feedback
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The plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions is the
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transverse
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A _________ plane divides the body into equal left and right portions.
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midsagittal
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The integumentary system contains
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skin, hair, nails, and associated glands.
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The mediastinum, pleural, and pericardial cavities are contained within the
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thoracic cavity.
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The urinary bladder is located in the ________ abdominopelvic region.
Question 9 answers |
hypogastric
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The gall bladder is located in the _________ abdominopelvic quadrant.
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right upper
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The dorsal body cavity contains the
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cranial cavity and spinal canal.
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A feedback mechanism that takes the body away from homeostasis is
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positive feedback
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The membrane lining the abdominal cavity and the surface of its organs is the
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peritoneum
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The study of the structure and organization of the human body is
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anatomy
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A tissue is
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a group of cells that perform similar functions.
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Blood, heart, and blood vessels compose the _________ system.
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cardiovascular
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The survival needs of the human body include
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food, water, oxygen, body temperature, and atmospheric pressure.
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The lowest level of organization in the body is the ________ level.
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chemical
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A feedback mechanism that returns the body to homeostasis is
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negative feedback.
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In anatomical terms, the upper arm is the _______ region, and the wrist is the _______ region.
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brachium; carpal
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The diaphragm divides the
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ventral cavity.
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The simplest structures in which the processes of life occur are
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cells
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The sacral region of the spinal cord is located
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between the hips.
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The term peripheral refers to a structure that is
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away from the center of the body.
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The plane that separates the body into the front and back, or anterior and posterior portions, is the
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frontal and coronal.
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The ventral body cavity is subdivided into these cavities.
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Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic
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The stomach is contained within the
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left upper quadrant.
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All the chemical reactions within a cell or organism are known as
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metabolism
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Digestion breaks down complex molecules into simpler molecules. Select the term that best describes this process.
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Catabolism
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The cephalic region comprises
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the cranial and facial regions.
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The upper and lower extremities compose the ________ portion of the body.
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appendicular
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A/An ________ consists of a group of similar cells performing similar functions.
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tissue
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The chin is ________ to the mouth, and the knee is ________ to the ankle.
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inferior; proximal
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In anatomical terms, the forearm is the _______ region and the fingers are the _______ region.
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antebrachial; digital
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The region surrounding the knee can be described as the
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popliteal and patellar.
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In anatomical terms, the posterior potion of the elbow is the _______ region.
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olacranal
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Lactose, the sugar contained in milk, is an example of a
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disaccharide
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Select the organic compound in which the greatest amount of excess energy is stored in the body.
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Triglycerides
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Enzymes are necessary in cells to
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speed up chemical reactions.
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When one atom donates an electron to another atom, the donating atom becomes a __________ charged ion, and the receiving atom becomes a __________ charged ion. These ions are joined together by a/an ________ chemical bond.
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positively; negatively; ionic
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Hydrogen bonds occur between
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polar molecules.
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About 96% of the body consists of what four elements?
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oxygen, hydrogen, carbon, and nitrogen
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The process used to convert liquid vegetable oils to solids by changing its bonds is called
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hydrogenation
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A saturated fat will have
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little or no carbon-carbon double bonds.
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To form an ionic bond one atom must donate its ________ to another.
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electrons
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A carbohydrate molecule consisting of glucose + fructose is a
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disaccharide
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The number of protons plus the number of neutrons determines the __________ of an atom.
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atomic weight
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There are ____ naturally occurring elements of which ______ are commonly found in the human body.
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92; 26
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The monosaccharide that is the major carbohydrate fuel for body cells is
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glucose
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Lipids are molecules made up of
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fats
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The valence electrons are those
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located in the outermost shell and active in chemical bonding.
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The element that forms the backbone of organic molecules is
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carbon
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Anything that has weight and occupies space can be described as
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matter
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Two or more atoms combine chemically to form a/an __________, the smallest unit of a/an __________.
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molecule; compound
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To be considered an organic molecule a substance must contain
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carbon and hydrogen.
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A substance that cannot be broken down into a simpler substance by chemical means is a/an
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element
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DNA contains the genetic code, and RNA carries the coded information to the sites of protein synthesis.
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DNA contains the genetic code, and RNA carries the coded information to the sites of protein synthesis.
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Proteins are composed of subunits called __________ and functional proteins include _________, which speed up chemical reactions in the body.
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amino acids; enzymes
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Steroids are a form of
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lipid
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The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution increases from pH _______ to pH ________.
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14; 0
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The positively charged particles located in the nucleus of an atom are the
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protons
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If an atom has 8 protons and 8 neutrons in its nucleus, and 8 orbiting electrons, its atomic number would be
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8
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Covalent bonds form when
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two or more atoms share electrons equally and two or more molecules share electrons unequally.
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The molecule that provides immediate energy for cellular processes is
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adenosine triphosphate
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The difference between DNA and RNA is that
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there are differences in sugars, bases, and the number of strands.
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Proteins are made up of
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amino acids.
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Nucleic acids are made up of
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nucleotides
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The dissociation of a/an ________ releases hydrogen ions and increases the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
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acid
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A solution which contains a high concentration of salts relative to the cytosol of a cell is a(n)
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hypertonic solution.
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During what phase of mitosis do the chromosomes form a line along the equator of the cell?
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Metaphase
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The cellular structure that is composed mostly of a lipid bilayer with imbedded proteins is the
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plasma membrane.
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The genetic code of ________ is formed by the sequence of organic ________ in its nucleotides.
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DNA; bases
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A toxin targets the enzymes active in the formation of ATP. Which of the following membrane mechanisms would be limited due to the lack of ATP?
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active transport
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In mitotic division, the division of the parent cell occurs by ________ during ________.
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cytokinesis; telophase
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The _________ are sites of protein synthesis within cells.
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ribosomes
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The paired chromosomes separate and migrate towards the poles of a cell during
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Anaphase
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In mitotic division, replication of chromosomes occurs during
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interphase
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In __________, the sequence of bases in DNA determines the sequence of bases in mRNA, and the process occurs in the __________.
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transcription; nucleus
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The _________ is the organelle which is sometimes referred to as the powerhouse of the cell due to the fact that it produces ATP most efficiently.
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mitochondria
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The _______ are the folds of the mitochondria that form the matrix.
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cristae
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Materials are packaged in vesicles for transport by the
|
golgi complex
|
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For facilitated diffusion to occur it requires
|
a gradient and transport mechanism.
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Mitosis is division of the _______ and forms _____ cells after cytokinesis.
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nucleus; 2
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The numerous short hair-like projections that move things across the surface of cells are
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cilia
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Cellular respiration requires ________ to break down organic nutrients to release energy, which is captured in high energy ________ bonds.
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oxygen; phosphate
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If a 5% glucose solution (A) is separated from a 10% glucose solution (B) by a semipermeable membrane, glucose will diffuse from ____ to ____, and water will diffuse from ____ to ____.
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B to A; A to B
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During what phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disappear and the chromosomes condense?
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Prophase
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Mitotic cell division produces _____ daughter cells with ________ chromosome content as the parent cell.
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two; identical
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The structure that controls the movement of materials into and out of cells is the
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plasma membrane
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One key difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis forms _____ cells while meiosis forms ______ cells.
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diploid; haploid
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Substances can enter a cell either with or against the concentration gradient by __________ transport, which is powered by ________.
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active; ATP
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_________ contain digestive enzymes and are used to clean up the cell, digest bacteria that have entered the cell, or breakdown worn-out organelles.
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Lysosomes
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________ cellular respiration occurs in _________ and produces most of the ATP formed by cellular respiration.
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Aerobic; mitochondria
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The network of membranes that provide channels for the movement of materials throughout the cytoplasm is the
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endoplasmic reticulum.
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If a blood cell is immersed in a solution that causes fluid to diffuse from the cell, the solution is a/an _________ solution.
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hypertonic
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The ________ is the organelle active in most of the lipid and carbohydrate synthesis within the cell.
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smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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The __________ acts as the cell's "post office" by sorting, processing, and packaging materials to be transported within the cell or excreted.
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Golgi complex
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Ligaments and tendons are composed of _________ connective tissue, which contains densely packed ________ fibers providing strength and flexibility.
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fibrous; collagenous
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The matrix of bone is formed in circular layers called
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lamellae
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The connective tissue with a matrix of calcium salts and a few collagenous fibers is
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bone
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_____________ is found lining the upper respiratory passages and may include specialized mucus secreting goblet cells.
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Pseudostritified columnar epithelium
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The connective tissue that helps insulate the body, cushions internal organs, and stores excess nutrient energy is ________ tissue.
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adipose
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________ are cells of ________ tissue which are specialized to form and transmit impulses.
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Neurons; nerve
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Tissues that cover the body surface and line body cavities are _______ tissues.
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epithelial
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The muscle tissue(s) that can be characterized as striated and voluntary is/are ________.
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skeletal muscle
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The upper respiratory passages are lined with ________ epithelium.
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pseudostratified ciliated columnar
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Blood is classified as
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connective tissue.
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_____________ is a specialized connective tissue located in the intervertebral disks to absorb shock.
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Fibrocartilage
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In compact bone, the bone matrix is deposited in concentric rings around ________, and _________ serve as passageways for materials to move between osteocytes in lacunae.
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osteonic canals; canaliculi
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Cells of _______ muscle tissue are striated with a single nucleus, and this tissue is _________ in function.
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cardiac; involuntary
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The muscle tissue(s) that can be characterized as striated and involuntary is/are ________.
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cardiac muscle
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_______________ is found lining the urinary bladder and is specialized to stretch and return to its original shape.
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Transitional epithelium
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The cartilage containing short rows of chondrocytes between tightly packed collagenous fibers is
|
fibrocartilage
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Intercalated disks are contained in
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cardiac muscle
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A single layer of square-like cells describes which of the following tissues?
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simple cuboidal epithelium
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The epithelial membranes lining the ventral body cavity are _______ membranes.
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serous
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Which of the following cell types would be found in places such as the kidneys or the secretory portions of glands?
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simple cuboidal epithelium
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________________ is found lining the intestines and is important in the secretion and absorption of substances.
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Simple columnar epithelium
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The mouth, esophagus, and vagina are lined with nonkeratinized ________ epithelium.
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stratified squamous
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_________ cartilage covers bone surfaces in joints and attaches ribs to the breastbone.
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Hyaline
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Simple _______ epithelium occurs where diffusion, osmosis, and filtration are important functions within body organs.
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squamous
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_________ is the connective tissue responsible for the storage of fat.
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Adipose
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The cells that support the nervous system are referred to as _______.
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neuroglia
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Cells that are active in the breakdown of a connective tissue will have the suffix _______.
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-clast
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The ________ are the spaces in which the ostocytes of bone reside.
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lacunae
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Cells of ________ muscle tissue have striations plus multiple nuclei, and this tissue is _______ in function.
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skeletal; voluntary
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The membranes that line the joints of the body are referred to as
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synovial membranes.
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The membranes that line the cavities of the body and the internal organs are referred to as
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serous membranes.
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A single layer of flat scale-like cells with a centrally located nucleus describes
|
simple squamous epithelium.
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Elastic connective tissue is formed by ________, which secretes collagen and elastin proteins that form the matrix.
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fibroblasts
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The membranes of the body are formed from
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epithelium and connective tissues.
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The fibrous membranes lining joint cavities are _________ membranes.
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connective tissue
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Accessory structures such as hair and glands develop from the
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epidermis
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The pigment of the skin which contributes to skin coloration is
|
melanin
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Ceruminous glands are specialized _______ glands.
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sweat
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The superficial cells of the __________ are sloughed off and continually replaced.
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stratum corneum
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If body temperature increases above normal, what occurs?
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sweating occurs and blood vessels of the dermis dilate
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The ________ is composed of fibrous connective tissue whose strength and toughness results from abundant _________ fibers.
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dermis; collagen
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Exposure of the skin to sunlight stimulates the production of vitamin D.
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Exposure of the skin to sunlight stimulates the production of vitamin D.
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The layer within the epidermis that acts as the foundation providing new cells is the _______.
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stratum basale
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Adipose tissue in the _________ provides insulation that reduces the body's heat loss or gain.
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hypodermis
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Appocrine sweat glands are located
|
in the genital and axillary regions.
|
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Exposure to sunlight stimulates the production of
|
melanin and vitamin D.
|
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When body temperature is higher than normal, blood flow to the skin is increased.
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When body temperature is higher than normal, blood flow to the skin is increased.
|
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The _________ lacks blood vessels and must be nourished by materials diffusing from blood vessels in the _________.
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epidermis; dermis
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|
Eccrine sweat glands are located
|
throughout the body.
|
|
New cells of the epidermis are continuously formed in the
|
stratum basale.
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The epidermis is formed of _________ epithelium, and its outermost layer consists of dead cells filled with ________.
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stratifed squamous; keratin
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_________ sweat glands occur over all of the body and secrete a watery perspiration to cool the body.
|
Eccrine
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The root of a hair is located within a _________, an inward tubular extension of the epidermis into the dermis.
|
hair follicle
|
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Fingernails and toenails are formed of
|
keratinized epidermal cells.
|
|
The subcutaneous region can also be referred to as the
|
hypodermis
|
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Glands secreting an oily liquid into hair follicles are _________ glands.
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sebaceous
|
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_________ prevents excessive dryness and keeps skin soft and pliable.
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Sebum
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The integument consists of an outer _________ and an underlying ________.
|
epidermis; dermis
|
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__________ sweat glands empty their secretions into hair follicles in axillary and genital areas of the body.
|
Apocrine
|
|
The integumentary system comprises
|
skin, glands, hair, and nails.
|
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The skin pigment that provides protection from ultraviolet radiation is ________, which is produced by __________.
|
melanin; melanocytes
|
|
The outermost layer of the skin is the
|
epidermis
|
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The predominant tissues composing the hypodermis are _________ tissue and ________ tissue.
|
loose connective; adipose
|
|
Keratin is a ________ that is secreted by cells of the epidermis to waterproof the skin and protects against abrasion.
|
protein
|
|
A major difference between the eccrine sweat glands and the appocrine sweat glands is that eccrine glands empty into/onto _______ while appocrine glands empty into/onto _______.
|
the skin surface; a hair follicle
|
|
The secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine are regulated by the __________ nervous system.
|
sympathetic
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________ hormones bind to a receptor on the ________, which releases an enzyme that converts ATP into cAMP.
|
Nonsteroid; plasma membrane
|
|
An insufficient production of a hormone would be referred to as
|
hyposecretion
|
|
________ hormones enter a cell's nucleus and bind with a receptor to form a ________, which activates specific genes.
|
Steroid; receptor-hormone complex
|
|
Diabetes insipidus is due to a lack of
|
anti-diuretic hormone.
|
|
TSH is secreted by the ________ gland and stimulates hormone secretion by the ________ gland.
|
anterior lobe of the pituitary; thyroid
|
|
Myxedema is caused by a severe deficiency of ________ in ______________.
|
T3; adults
|
|
Which of the following hormones stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and milk expulsion when an infant is nursing?
|
oxytocin
|
|
A hormone is a chemical messenger that produces specific responses in
|
only cells with receptors for that hormone.
|
|
The hormone _________ stimulates movement of glucose into body cells and the conversion of excess glucose into glycogen.
|
insulin
|
|
The secretion of ________ by the posterior pituitary gland is the only hormone controlled by ________.
|
oxytocin; positive feedback
|
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A chemical within a cell that aids in the functionality of a hormone is a _________________.
|
secondary messenger
|
|
Epinephrine can also be ___________ and accounts for approximately _____ of the adrenal medulla secretions.
|
adrenaline; 80%
|
|
___________ is secreted by the adrenal cortex and assists in the maintenance of normal glucose regulation.
|
Cortisol
|
|
Milk production by the mammary glands is initiated and maintained by _________.
|
prolactin
|
|
The hormone progesterone is directly regulated by
|
LH
|
|
Which of the following structures is sometimes referred to as the "master gland?"
|
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
|
|
The hormone responsible for the development of female sex organs is ________, which is controlled by follicle stimulating hormone secreted by the ________.
|
estrogen; anterior lobe of the pituitary
|
|
The hormone ________ lowers blood calcium levels by stimulating calcium deposition in bones, but the hormone ________ has the opposite effect.
|
calcitonin; parathormone
|
|
Epinephrine and norepinephrine secretion by the ________ prepare the body to meet emergencies.
|
adrenal medulla
|
|
Cretinism is caused by a severe deficiency of ________ in ______________.
|
T3; infants
|
|
________ is the hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that stimulates the kidneys to retain ________ ions and maintain the concentration of mineral ions and water in the blood.
|
Aldosterone; sodium
|
|
Special neurons in the hypothalamus control the release of hormones from the _______ gland.
|
pituitary
|
|
Hormones secreted by the ________ gland regulate the metabolic rate and promote protein synthesis in body cells.
|
thyroid
|
|
The thymus gland is typically ________ in children than adults, and aids in the maturation of cells active in the _________ system.
|
larger; immune
|
|
The primary mechanism controlling the secretion of most hormones is
|
negative feedback.
|
|
The hormone ________ increases glucose concentration in blood, but the hormone ________ has the opposite effect.
|
glucagon; insulin
|
|
The hormone that seems to control wake-sleep cycles is _________ produced by the ________ gland.
|
melatonin; pineal
|
|
An articulation is
|
the joint formed between two bones.
|
|
The pectoral girdle is formed by the ________ and ________ on each side of the body.
|
clavicle; scapula
|
|
The bones of the foot consist of seven ________, five ________, and fourteen ________.
|
tarsals; metatarsals; phalanges
|
|
Yellow marrow acts to
|
store fat.
|
|
The _________ are rather large nonossified areas at junctions of an infant's cranial bones.
|
fontanels
|
|
The floor of the cranium is primarily formed by the ______ and _______ bones.
|
occipital; sphenoid
|
|
The shaft of a long bone is referred to as the
|
diaphysis
|
|
Skull bones containing paranasal sinuses are the
|
maxilla, frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid.
|
|
The fibula articulates with the tibia inferior to the
|
lateral condyle.
|
|
The trochlea of the humerus articulates with the
|
ulna
|
|
Amphiarthrosis joints can be described as _________ joints.
|
slightly moveable
|
|
The carpals of each wrist contain _____ bones.
|
8
|
|
The prominence of each cheek is formed by the
|
zygomatic bone.
|
|
The facial bones consist of a total of _______ bones.
|
14
|
|
A compound fracture is best described as
|
a break which protrudes through the skin.
|
|
The immoveable joints of the skull are called
|
sutures
|
|
Osteoblasts deposit the bone matrix in both compact and spongy bone.
|
Osteoblasts deposit the bone matrix in both compact and spongy bone.
|
|
Most skull bones are formed by _________ ossification, but other bones are formed by __________ ossification.
|
intramembranous; endochondrial
|
|
The interior portion of an epiphysis consists of
|
spongy bone.
|
|
The sacrum is formed from _____ fused vertebrae.
|
5
|
|
A long bone consists of a ________, a long shaft of bone, which extends between two enlarged terminal portions, the ________.
|
diaphysis; epiphyses
|
|
The axial skeleton includes
|
the skull, the vertebra, the sternum, and the ribs.
|
|
Seven ________ vertebrae, twelve _________ vertebrae, and five _________ vertebrae are located in the vertebral column.
|
cervical; thoracic; lumbar
|
|
The proper name for the human "tail" bone is the
|
coccyx
|
|
The numerous spaces in spongy bone are filled with
|
red marrow.
|
|
The sutures of the skull are examples of _________ joints.
|
synarthrosis
|
|
The maxilla articulates with all of the facial bones except the
|
mandible bone
|
|
The bone cells that maintain the matrix of bone are
|
osteocytes
|
|
Except for regions covered by articular cartilages, the ________ covers the surface of bones.
|
periosteum
|
|
The cervical vertebrae are different from the rest of the vertebral column in that they have
|
transverse foramen.
|
|
The cranial bone that articulates with the atlas is the
|
occipital
|
|
In diarthrosis joints, friction is reduced by __________ covering the ends of the bones and by fluid secreted by the __________.
|
articular cartilages; synovial membranes
|
|
The sternum is formed from the
|
body, manubrium, and xiphoid process
|
|
_________ results when light rays are focused in front of the retina.
|
Nearsightedness
|
|
Vibrations of the perilymph produce vibrations in the ________ causing hair cells in the ________ to form impulses that the brain interprets as sound sensations.
|
basilar membrane; organ of Corti
|
|
The actual receptors for taste are the ___________ located within the _________.
|
chemoreceptors; taste hairs
|
|
The interpretation of sensory impulses as sensations is the function of the
|
cerebral cortex
|
|
Tears are secreted by the __________, flow across the surface of the eye, and drain into the _________ via the superior and inferior canaliculi.
|
lacrimal gland; lacrimal sac
|
|
Sound stimuli are transmitted from the tympanic membrane to the oval window by the
|
ear ossicles.
|
|
In the maintenance of dynamic equilibrium, turning the head causes movement of endolymph in the _________ stimulating the hair cells of the _________ to form impulses, which are sent to the brain.
|
semicircular canals; crista ampullaris
|
|
Because a chemical we will smell needs to diffuse into the fluid surrounding the olfactory receptors, which of the following substances would not be able to be detected?
|
lipids
|
|
The _________ is the retinal area for sharpest, bright-light vision, and it contains densely packed ________.
|
fovea centralis; cones
|
|
Pitch of a sound wave is dependent on the ______ of the wave, while the volume is dependent on __________.
|
frequency; amplitude
|
|
The auditory ossicles, the malleaus, incus, and stapes are located in the
|
middle ear.
|
|
The ________ controls the amount of light entering the eye.
|
iris
|
|
The outer layer of the eye consists of the _______ and ________.
|
sclera; cornea
|
|
The structure that causes your nose to "run" when you cry is the ___________.
|
nasolacrimal duct
|
|
The intensity of a sensation is proportional to the ________ of impulses received by sensory areas of the cerebrum.
|
frequency
|
|
A woman applies perfume and immediately detects the scent. But after a short time, she cannot detect the scent. Why does this occur?
|
Olfactory receptors have become adapted and no longer form impulses
|
|
When cloudiness of the lens occurs it is referred to as ________.
|
a cataract
|
|
Light rays entering the eye are first bent by the ________ and finely focused on the retina by the _________.
|
cornea; lens
|
|
The space between the bony and membranous labyrinths contain ________. While the membranous labyrinth itself contains __________.
|
perilymph; endolymph
|
|
The rods are active in ________ vision and contain the pigment ____________.
|
black and white; rhodopsin
|
|
The receptors for sound stimuli are located in the
|
cochlea
|
|
The external portion of the ear which can be viewed is referred to as the
|
auricle
|
|
________ are the sensory receptors for pain.
|
Free nerve endings
|
|
Light receptors in the _________ form impulses that are transmitted to the brain via the ________ nerve.
|
retina; optic
|
|
Chemoreceptors for taste are _________, which can only detect chemicals that are _________ in a liquid.
|
taste cells; dissolved
|
|
The broad sheet of fibrous connective tissue active in connecting one muscle to another is referred to as the
|
aponeurosis
|
|
The plasma membrane, or phospholipid bilayer, of the skeletal muscle cell is referred to as the
|
sarcolemma
|
|
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover of the "hamstrings"?
|
biceps femoris
|
|
The ________ originates on the condyles of the femur, inserts on the calcaneus, flexes the leg, and plantar flexes the foot.
|
gastrocnemius
|
|
Two muscles of mastication are the _________ and _________.
|
masseter; temporalis
|
|
Which is the primary muscle used in smiling, when the corners of your moth lift upward?
|
zygomaticus
|
|
A sustained muscle contraction is referred to as
|
tetanic contraction.
|
|
The accumulation of lactic acid during strenuous muscle activity results from a deficiency of
|
oxygen
|
|
A muscle's motor units are activated by different thresholds of stimulation, which enables a muscle to exhibit
|
graded contractions.
|
|
An all-or-none response to a threshold stimulus is characteristic of
|
individual muscle fibers.
|
|
A weight lifter is attempting a new level of weights that are too heavy for him. His muscles contract but can't shorten. This would be an example of what type of contraction?
|
isometric contraction
|
|
Fibrosis of muscle tissue is caused by
|
replacement of muscle tissue by fibrous connective tissue.
|
|
When breathing, the muscles that surround the thoracic cavity undergo ________ contractions.
|
isotonic
|
|
When a muscle spanning a joint contracts, it pulls the ________ toward the ________.
|
insertion; origin
|
|
To raise the mandible during chewing you would need to contract what two muscles?
|
the masseter and temporalis
|
|
You've just eaten something sour and pucker your lips in response. This occurs due to the contraction of the ________ muscle.
|
orbicularis oris
|
|
Muscles that work together in a group such as the "hamstrings" are referred to as
|
synergists
|
|
A graded response occurs when
|
multiple motor units are activated.
|
|
The site of attachment of a muscle that does not move during contraction is identified as the
|
origin
|
|
Contraction of myofibrils results from _________ cross-bridges pulling _______ filaments to the center of a sarcomere.
|
myosin; actin
|
|
Muscle cells can store oxygen using the pigment
|
myoglobin
|
|
The neurotransmitter active in skeletal muscle contraction is
|
acetylcholine
|
|
The superficial muscle that originates on the pubic bone and inserts on the tip of the sternum and costal cartilages is the
|
rectus abdominis.
|
|
Select the three muscles that compose the hamstrings and flex the leg.
|
biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus
|
|
The muscle that extends and rotates the femur laterally is the
|
gluteus maximus.
|
|
Contraction of the diaphragm results in
|
inspiration
|
|
A skeletal muscle contains many fascicles of _________ bound together by _________ connective tissue.
|
muscle fibers; fibrous
|
|
The functional unit of skeletal muscle is
|
a sarcomere.
|
|
A muscle fiber is stimulated to contract when receptors on the _________ bind with acetylcholine released into the synaptic cleft by the axon tip of the ________.
|
sarcolemma; motor neuron
|
|
The muscle that can be described as multinucleated, striated and voluntary is
|
skeletal muscle.
|
|
The muscle that extends the forearm is the
|
triceps brachii.
|
|
A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it controls constitute a __________, which contains _________ muscle fibers where precise muscle control is required.
|
motor unit; very few
|
|
The muscle that can be described as involuntary, non-striated, and having a single nucleus is
|
smooth muscle.
|
|
The muscle that abducts and extends the humerus is the
|
deltoid
|
|
The ________ controls posture, balance, and the coordination of body movements.
|
cerebellum
|
|
The ________ is responsible for maintaining homeostasis in the body, and it is a major control center for the ________ nervous system.
|
hypothalmamus; autonomic
|
|
In the CNS, the groupings of cell bodies are called ________, whereas in the PNS they are referred to as ________.
|
nuclei; ganglion
|
|
The cavities in the brain are called the __________.
|
ventricles
|
|
The ________ is a mass of myelinated nerve fibers connecting the cerebral hemispheres.
|
corpus callosum
|
|
The somatic portion of the nervous system transmits
|
voluntary actions and conscious information.
|
|
The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system produce _________ effects on internal organs and tissues.
|
opposite
|
|
The posterior root of spinal nerves contains processes of _________ neurons.
|
sensory
|
|
The dendrite of a nerve cell acts to
|
conduct action potentials toward the cell body.
|
|
The ___________ controls the reflex center for the regulation of cardiac function, respiratory function, coughing, sneezing, and some digestive functions.
|
medulla
|
|
The motor division of the PNS carries action potentials from the CNS to
|
all muscle types and glands.
|
|
The respiratory, cardiac and vasomotor control centers are located in the
|
medulla oblongata.
|
|
________ fills the space between the arachnoid mater and the _________.
|
Cerebrospinal fluid; pia mater
|
|
The _________ interprets sensory impulses and controls voluntary body movements and intellectual processes.
|
cerebrum
|
|
The myelin sheath around axons of peripheral neurons is formed by
|
Schwann cells.
|
|
____________ form the linings of the cavities in the brain and spinal cord.
|
Ependymal cells
|
|
The _________ nervous system is the control center of the nervous system and consists of the _________ and spinal cord.
|
central; brain
|
|
A nerve impulse is formed when a neuron's _________ becomes permeable to _______ ions, and the sudden inflow of these ions depolarizes the neuron's plasma membrane.
|
plasma membrane; sodium
|
|
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system prepares the body to meet emergencies.
|
sympathetic
|
|
___________ form the blood - brain barrier and act to provide structural support for nerve cells in the CNS.
|
Astrocytes
|
|
The portion of the brain that acts to control posture, balance, and the coordination of skeletal muscle contraction is the _________.
|
cerebellum
|
|
A neuron process that receives impulses from receptors or another neuron is a/an
|
dendrite
|
|
There are _____ cervical vertebrae and ______ cervical nerves.
|
seven; eight
|
|
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of ______ and _______.
|
nerves; sensory receptors
|
|
The myelin sheath around axons within the central nervous system is ____________, while in the peripheral nervous system it is formed by __________.
|
an oligodendrocyte; a Schwann cell
|
|
Which area of the brain acts as the major regulator of the autonomic nervous system?
|
the hypothalamus
|
|
The ________ nerve develops from the cervical plexus and innervates the diaphragm to aid in the regulation of breathing.
|
phrenic
|
|
The portion of the brain active in most sensory input as well as voluntary muscle control is the _____.
|
cerebrum
|
|
The junction between a nerve and another cell is
|
a synapse
|
|
The cranial nerve which acts to innervate the thoracic and abdominal organs is the ________ nerve.
|
vagus
|
|
________ pairs of cranial nerves and _________ pairs of spinal nerves connect the central nervous system with body organs and tissues.
|
Twelve; 31
|
|
A ________ neuron carries impulses from receptors to the central nervous system, and its cell body is located ________ the CNS.
|
sensory; outside
|
|
The cranial nerves which are exclusively sensory are cranial nerves numbers _________.
|
I, II, VIII
|
|
In a given volume of blood, about ________% is plasma and ________% is formed elements.
|
55; 45
|
|
_________ that migrate into tissues become mast cells, which release _________ in allergic reactions.
|
Basophils; histamine
|
|
Antibodies that attack pathogens are produced by
|
B lymphocytes.
|
|
A person with blood type AB possesses ________ on the plasma membrane of his/her erythrocytes.
|
antigens A and B
|
|
Worn-out red blood cells are removed from circulation by the _________ and ___________.
|
liver; spleen
|
|
________ form a temporary plug to stop bleeding in a broken blood vessel.
|
Platelets
|
|
The preferred blood type for transfusing to a person with blood type A Rh- is ________, but when it is unavailable, blood type(s) _________ may be used.
|
A Rh-; O Rh-
|
|
Polycythemia is a condition characterized by the excessive production of _________.
|
erythrocytes
|
|
A woman with Rh- blood does not have anti-Rh antibodies in her blood unless
|
Rh+ erythrocytes have previously been introduced into her blood.
|
|
A large majority of the proteins found in plasma are produced by the __________.
|
liver
|
|
________ are the blood cells that help provide a defense against disease organisms.
|
Leukocytes
|
|
Mature ________ are the most abundant of the formed elements.
|
erythrocytes
|
|
The ion required for coagulation is ________.
|
Ca2+
|
|
The cells from which white blood cells are derived are called
|
hemocytoblasts
|
|
The enzyme ________ converts fibrinogen into strands of ________, which form a blood clot.
|
thrombin; fibrin
|
|
A decrease in blood oxygen increases the release of ________ from kidneys and liver, and it stimulates the production of ________ by red bone marrow.
|
erythropoietin; erythrocytes
|
|
________ are leukocytes that migrate into tissues and become macrophages.
|
Monocytes
|
|
Approximately __________ red blood cells are produced per second in a normal individual.
|
2 million
|
|
The normal level for hematocrit in females is
|
38 - 47%
|
|
In a blood transfusion, one must consider the ________ of the donor and the _______ of the recipient
|
antigens; antibodies
|
|
___________ for approximately 60% of the plasma proteins and are active in maintaining pH and osmotic concentration gradients.
|
Albumin
|
|
Within plasma, the transport of non-protein nitrogen substances is important for the
|
removal of waste products.
|
|
________ are leukocytes that neutralize histamine and destroy parasitic worms.
|
Eosinophils
|
|
The hemoglobin within erythrocytes plays a major role in the transport of ________ by the blood.
|
oxygen
|
|
The _________ acts to slow action potentials, while the _________ transmits these signals very quickly.
|
A-V node; Purkinje fibers
|
|
If excessive fluid retention increases blood volume, blood pressure is likely to
|
increase
|
|
The sequence of arteries supplying most of the blood to either knee is
|
aorta (--) common iliac (--) external iliac (--) femoral (--) popliteal.
|
|
The first branches which come off of the aorta are the right and left ____________ arteries.
|
coronary
|
|
The ________ rhythmically forms impulses initiating each heartbeat and transmits these inpulses to the _________.
|
S-A node; A-V node
|
|
The p wave of an ECG represents
|
atrial depolarization.
|
|
In addition to the carotid arteries, the brain is also supplied with blood through the __________ arteries.
|
vertebral
|
|
In addition to the carotid arteries, the brain is also supplied with blood through the __________ arteries.
|
vertebral
|
|
An increase in the frequency of sympathetic impulses to arteries and arterioles, produces ________, which ________ blood pressure and velocity.
|
vasoconstriction; increases
|
|
In most models and images of the cardiovascular system, vessels transporting de-oxygenated blood will be color coded in ________.
|
blue
|
|
The heart rate is increased by impulses from _________ neurons and decreased by impulses from _________ neurons.
|
sympathetic; parasympathetic
|
|
Heart rate regulation is primarily controlled by the cardiac control center located in the
|
medulla oblongata.
|
|
The ________ pumps blood into the aorta, and the _________ receives blood from the vena cavae.
|
left ventricle; right atrium
|
|
The specialized area of the myocardium that acts to anchor the chordae tendineae is the
|
papillary muscle.
|
|
The sequence of veins draining most of the blood from either side of the brain is
|
internal jugular (--) brachiocephalic (--) superior vena cava (--) right atrium.
|
|
The _________ atrioventricular valve is located on the right side of the heart, while the __________ valve is on the left.
|
tricupid; bicuspid
|
|
Blood returning to the heart from the lungs enters the ________, and blood is pumped from the heart to the lungs by the ________.
|
left atrium; right ventricle
|
|
The ________ act to receive blood from veins, while the _________ pump blood away from the heart.
|
atria; ventricles
|
|
An abnormal heartbeat that has a rate exceeding 100 beats per minute is ______________.
|
tachycardia
|
|
The ____________ is referred to as the pacemaker of the heart.
|
S-A node
|
|
The hepatic portal system is an unusual vein in that it is transporting ______________.
|
nutrient-rich blood
|
|
The viscera within the pelvis are drained through the __________ vein.
|
internal iliac
|
|
A precapillary sphincter muscle controls the flow of blood from
|
arteriole to capillary.
|
|
During ________, the atrioventricular valves are closed and the semilunar valves are open.
|
ventricular systole
|
|
The sequence of veins returning blood from the stomach is
|
gastric (--) hepatic portal (--) liver (--) hepatic (--) inferior vena cava (--) right atrium.
|
|
The ________ valve prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium.
|
bicuspid atrioventricular
|
|
The pulmonary veins are unusual as veins because they are transporting ________.
|
oxygenated blood
|
|
The membranous covering of the heart is the _________, which includes a loosely fitting sac composed of an inner ________ and an outer _________.
|
pericardium; parietal pericardium; fibrous pericardium
|
|
The QRS complex of an ECG represents
|
ventricular depolarization.
|
|
The _________ acts to receive blood from all of the veins of the heart.
|
coronary sinus
|
|
The artery carrying blood from the aorta to most of the small intestine is the
|
superior mesenteric.
|
|
The immunity that one receives from their mother both pre-natal and post-natal is referred to as
|
passive natural.
|
|
An immune response begins when a ________ is activated by binding to both a foreign antigen and a self antigen on an antigen presenting cell's plasma membrane.
|
helper T lymphocyte
|
|
Before birth the _________ acts to form blood cells, while after birth and throughout adulthood it is the __________.
|
spleen; bone marrow
|
|
B cells that respond to the same antigen and are derived from a single cell are referred to as
|
clones
|
|
_________ results when a person receives a vaccine that triggers a primary immune response and leaves memory T and B lymphocytes to initiate an attack if the pathogen re-enters the body.
|
Artificially acquired active immunity
|
|
There are ______ sub-types of T cells recognized to participate in the immune response.
|
4
|
|
During bacterial infections, the accumulation of dead cells, immune cells, and chemical mediators that form a thick whitish fluid is called
|
pus
|
|
The first step in a B-cell's defense against a microorganism is to
|
recognize the antigen.
|
|
An activated _______ rapidly divides to form a clone of plasma cells, which produce antibodies and memory cells.
|
B lymphocyte
|
|
The antibody active in agglutination or clumping of antigens is
|
IgM
|
|
________, a localized response to infection, attracts leukocytes to the affected tissues to destroy the pathogens.
|
Inflammation
|
|
Excess interstitial fluid is collected and returned to the blood by the
|
lymphatic system.
|
|
________ in lymphatic vessels and trunks prevent a backflow of blood.
|
Valves
|
|
______________ immunity provides protection against all types of pathogens and has no "memory."
|
Non-specific
|
|
________ and respiratory movements move lymph upward through lymphatic vessels and trunks below the heart.
|
Skeletal muscle contractions
|
|
________ are large phagocytic, pathogen-destroying cells in body tissues.
|
Macrophages
|
|
Blood is filtered and cleansed, and erythrocytes are stored in the
|
spleen
|
|
Lymphocytes originate in _________ and, after maturation, move into _________ where they divide to produce large populations.
|
red bone marrow; lymphatic organs
|
|
Lymph is filtered and cleansed by the ________ before it is returned to the blood stream.
|
lymph nodes
|
|
The antibody primarily active in allergic responses and the activation of basophils is
|
IgE.
|
|
The enzyme found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions that acts to destroy bacteria is __________.
|
a lysozyme
|
|
________ mature in the thymus gland and release chemicals to destroy pathogens.
|
T lymphocytes
|
|
Lymphatic vessels are similar to veins in that they contain _________, but unlike blood vessels in that they lack __________.
|
valves; tunics
|
|
The antibody that is capable of crossing the placental barrier and is responsible for the Rh incompatibility between an Rh negative mother and an Rh positive fetus is
|
IgG
|
|
The skin and mucous membranes can be considered as a ____________ part of innate immunity.
|
mechanical barrier
|
|
The antibody that acts as a receptor on the surface of B cell is
|
IgD
|
|
Lymph from most of the body is returned to the blood in the _________ vein.
|
left subclavian
|
|
Only lymphocytes possessing ________ that can bind with the ________ on an invading pathogen are involved in the immune response against it.
|
receptors; antigens
|
|
Materials moving between body cells and blood capillaries pass through the _________, which surrounds all tissue cells.
|
interstitial fluid
|
|
The ________ project from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity increasing its surface area.
|
nasal conchae
|
|
________ and smaller air passages of the bronchial tree are not lined with ciliated mucous membranes.
|
Bronchioles
|
|
The upper respiratory tract consists of the
|
nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, and part of the trachea.
|
|
Otis media is the proper term for an infection of the
|
middle ear.
|
|
The divide between the nasal cavity and oral cavity is formed by the
|
palate
|
|
Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to form
|
carbonic acid.
|
|
From the nasal cavity, air passes, in sequence, through the _________ on the way to the lungs.
|
pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi
|
|
The respiratory center in the ________ coordinates the rhythmic inspiration and expiration of quiet breathing.
|
pons
|
|
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in alveoli and blood in capillaries occurs by
|
diffusion
|
|
For inspiration to occur, the pressure in the alveoli must be _______ than barometric pressure due to _________ of the inspiratory muscles.
|
less; contraction
|
|
The structures which make up the larynx begin with the ________ and end at the _________.
|
hyoid bone; cricoid cartilage
|
|
A moderate ________ in the blood stimulates an increase in breathing rate and depth.
|
increase in carbon dioxide concentration
|
|
Without surfactant, the _________ would collapse preventing inspiration.
|
alveoli
|
|
The amount that is always left in the lungs after expiration is the
|
residual volume.
|
|
The maximum amount of air that can be forcefully exchanged, the ________, is about 4,600 ml.
|
vital capacity
|
|
The chemical bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is
|
unstable and reversible.
|
|
_______________ is the movement of air in and out of the lungs, while __________ is the movement of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
|
Ventilation; internal respiration
|
|
Carbon dioxide is primarily transported as
|
bicarbonate ions.
|
|
Gas exchange in the lungs occurs between air in the __________ and blood in surrounding capillaries.
|
alveoli
|
|
In humans, the right lung consists of _______ lobes while the left has ______ lobes.
|
3; 2
|
|
________ of the diaphragm decreases intra-alveolar pressure resulting in ________.
|
Contraction; inspiration
|
|
When swallowing, food is prevented from entering the trachea by the
|
epiglottis
|
|
The expiratory center in the _________ stimulates forceful expirations.
|
medulla oblongata
|
|
The amount of air that can be forcefully expired beyond tidal volume is the
|
expiratory reserve volume
|
|
The pharyngeal tonsils are sometimes referred to as the ________ when they are enlarged.
|
adenoids
|
|
The ability of the body to reabsorb significant quantities of water from the filtrate is due to
|
a high medullary concentration gradient; hormonal control; and the concentration of urea in interstitial fluids.
|
|
The gastric enzyme ________ is secreted in inactive form and activated by the low pH of gastric juice.
|
pepsin
|
|
The end products of protein digestion are ________, which are absorbed into ________ of villi.
|
amino acids; capillaries
|
|
Bile, which emulsifies fats, is secreted by the
|
liver
|
|
The end products of fat digestion are converted into ________ within epithelial cells and move into the ________ of villi.
|
chylomicrons; lacteals
|
|
The ________ salivary glands secrete a saliva rich in ________.
|
parotid; amylase
|
|
Fatty chyme entering the small intestine stimulates the secretion of _______, which stimulates the pancreas to secrete __________.
|
cholecystokinin; enzymes
|
|
The ________ nervous system innervates the intestinal mucosa and may stimulate the secretion of intestinal enzymes.
|
parasympathetic
|
|
A nutrient that is required for the synthesis of fatty acids as well as playing a role in cellular respiration is ________.
|
biotin
|
|
The alimentary canal is approximately ______ feet long in an adult.
|
29
|
|
The layers of the alimentary canal, from outside in, are the
|
serosa, muscular, submucosa and mucosa.
|
|
The ___________ has fibers which penetrate into the alveolar bone and aid in holding the teeth in place.
|
periodontal membrane
|
|
One of the nutrients important for the synthesis of DNA and RNA is
|
folic acid
|
|
Acid chyme entering the duodenum causes the intestinal mucosa to secrete the hormone ________, which stimulates the secretion of ________ that is rich in bicarbonates.
|
secretin; pancreatic juice
|
|
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________ and concludes in the ________.
|
mouth; small intestine
|
|
The folds in the mucosa of the stomach which allows it to expand as it fills with food are the
|
rugae
|
|
An organic compound that the body needs in minute amounts is a
|
vitamin
|
|
Both ________ and ________ catalyze the hydrolysis of proteins to form peptides.
|
pepsin; trypsin
|
|
In addition to the secretion of bile, the liver is active in
|
Synthesizing blood proteins;
Covering nutrients into usable forms; Detoxification |
|
There is a total of ________ deciduous teeth and ________ permanent teeth.
|
20; 32
|
|
_________ is secreted by stomach and is important for the absorption of Vitamin B12 in the _______.
|
Intrinsic factor; small intestine
|
|
The mineral required for the normal conduction of nerve impulses as well as ATP - ADP conversions is
|
magnesium
|
|
________ catalyzes the digestion of starch and glycogen to maltose.
|
Amylase
|
|
The enzyme catalyzing the hydrolysis of triglycerides is
|
lipase
|
|
The taste buds of the tongue are located on the
|
papillae
|
|
Gastric juice secretion is increased by ________ impulses and the hormone ________, which is produced by the stomach.
|
parasympathetic; gastrin
|
|
One of the nutrients active in the synthesis of proteins and antibodies is
|
B6-
|
|
The fat-soluble vitamin required for the formation and maintenance of cell membranes is
|
vitamin E
|
|
The primary function of the large intestine is the
|
absorption of water and certain minerals and vitamins
|
|
_________ are primarily used as an energy source, but unused quantities are converted into _________ and stored.
|
Monosaccharides; triglycerides
|
|
The hormone that stimulates the secretions of the stomach is
|
gastrin
|
|
A ________ consists of a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule.
|
nephron
|
|
A _________ carries urine from a kidney to the urinary bladder.
|
ureter
|
|
The fluid in the glomerular capsule contains the same substances as blood plasma except it lacks
|
proteins
|
|
________, formed by the breakdown of bile pigments in the intestine, gives the characteristic color to urine.
|
Urochrome
|
|
Urine formation begins when _________ moves some of the water and solutes in blood from the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule.
|
filtration
|
|
The outer layer of a kidney is the ________, and it contains the ________.
|
renal cortex; renal corpuscles
|
|
Aldosterone regulates the active reabsorption of sodium ions and secretion of potassium ions by the
|
distal convoluted tubule.
|
|
The kidneys assist in the blood's ability to transport oxygen due to the secretion of the hormone
|
erythropoietin
|
|
The ________ is a capillary tuft that lies between an afferent arteriole and an efferent arteriole.
|
glomerulus
|
|
The kidneys receive approximately ______ of the total cardiac output each minute.
|
1/4
|
|
When the _________ detects a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate it secretes ________ to start the renin (--) angiotensin mechanism.
|
juxtaglomerular apparatus; renin
|
|
Buffers either combine with or release ________ to maintain the pH of blood within normal limits.
|
hydrogen ions
|
|
With a normal glomerular filtration rate, the entire volume of blood in the body will be filtered approximately every ______ minutes.
|
40
|
|
Approximately 65% of tubular reabsorption occurs in the
|
proximal tubule.
|
|
Angiotensin II raises systemic blood pressure by triggering mechanisms that
|
constrict arterioles and increase water retention.
|
|
Antidiuretic hormone regulates the passive reabsorption of water from filtrate in the
|
collecting duct.
|
|
The functional unit of the kidney is the
|
nephron
|
|
The removal of amine groups from amino acids results in the formation of ________, the most abundant nitrogenous waste in urine.
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urea
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During reabsorption of solutes in the proximal tubule, most of the Cl- ions and HCO3- ions are moved by ________ mechanisms.
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passive transport
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During reabsorption of solutes in the proximal tubule, most of the amino acids, glucose, Na+ ions, K+ ions, and Ca2+ ions are moved by ________ mechanisms.
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active transport
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In the ________, nutrients and positive mineral ions are actively reabsorbed from the filtrate into blood in the peritubular capillary.
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proximal convoluted tubule
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Which of the following ions is secreted into filtrate rather than being reabsorbed?
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Mg+ ions
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The primary function of the urinary system is to
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maintain the volume and composition of body fluids within normal limits.
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Under normal conditions, which of the following substances would not appear in the filtrate?
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protein
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