Who Is To Blame In Shakespeare's Macbeth?

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Shakespeare’s “Macbeth” is still to this day one of the player writer's most successful works, for a variety of reasons. The piece is gorgeously written, mostly consisting of Shakespeare’s signature unrhymed iambic pentameters, and though it is not easy to understand, the play is considered a masterpiece that to this day intrigues many. However, those are not the only reasons the tragedy gained so much popularity; unlike many of Shakespeare’s works, “Macbeth” does not appear to be black and white, and leaves much room for debate. Furthermore, many questions are unanswered by Shakespeare himself, even after the story ends. For example, who was the real killer of King Duncan? There are many different answers to this question, and there are many …show more content…
Moreover, Macbeth seems to acknowledge what he is about to do is morally wrong, however, goes through with it anyways. For instance, when Macbeth is conversing with his wife, he tells her: “We will proceed no further with this business. / He hath honored me of late, and I have bought / Golden opinions from all sorts of people” (Shakespeare, 1.7.32-34). In saying this, Macbeth admits that he believes that killing the king is wrong, and that the public will no longer respect him if they ever found out he was behind the murder. Nevertheless, Macbeth was persuaded to execute his king in the end, and said: “I am settled, and bend up / Each corporal agent to this terrible feat” (Shakespeare, 1.7.79-80). Numerous individuals may believe this is enough evidence to show that Macbeth was the true evil, as he was also the one who went into Duncan’s chambers and committed the act. However, Lady Macbeth viciously insisted on Macbeth gaining the throne, even whilst he was having second thoughts, and convinced him to do so by annihilating Duncan. Without his wife, Macbeth would not have had anyone to push him to continue on when he was having doubts, and so, Macbeth most likely would not have committed the murder if his wife hadn’t manipulated him into doing so. Thus, even if Macbeth was partially responsible, most of the blame falls onto his

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