In my opinion, having the ability to play an instrument is universal in the sense that people all over the world have the ability to play the same instrument. A person who speaks strictly Japanese can play a violin just as well as a person who speaks strictly Spanish or English. So, what makes this possible? I believe it must be that music is a language in itself. There are notes that create different sounds and pitches similar to how different words are used to tell the same story. There are also different clefts, keys and time signatures, all of which impact what notes are played in the same way that tone and inflection influence how words are perceived and understood. Musicians must be able to read the notes and understand what each sign on the score means. So in the case of music, whatever language the musician speaks does not inhibit or bolster their ability to distinguish say, an A from an F, or treble cleft from base cleft. The music written on the score must be thought of and read as its own …show more content…
Especially in people with mental handicaps which parallel the mental state of the creature, the effects of classical music are enhanced to the point where the music is used as a complete sedative in most cases. Although all genres have a different psychological effect as to which emotions they evoke, and although not everyone responds to music in the same way, seeing as how the majority of people respond to classical music similarly is significant. In the same way that the creature is able to be mentally and physically sedated by the violin’s music, the audience watching the film is able to be mentally sedated in the sense that they are completely drawn into the film moment. Cognitive psychology has outlined the relationship between classical music and evoking emotions with sedation-like sensations, proving that it is possible for classical music to transform you from a state of rage or anxiety to a state of comatose-like