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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
At what time does a member’s right to refuse the
imposition of NJP terminate?

a. When he or she signs the report chit accepting mast.
b. When he or she signs the rights acknowledge form before the mast.
c. When he or she appears before the CO.
d. Up until the punishment is announced.
B
The term “minor offense” means misconduct not more
serious than that usually handled at which of the following forum?

a. Summary Courts-Martial
b. Special Courts-Martial
c. General Courts-Martial
A
The Report and Disposition of Offense(s), NAVPERS
Form 1626/7, should be processed in the manner prescribed on the form itself.

a. True
b. False
A
The NAVPERS Form 1626/7 serves all EXCEPT which of
the following functions?

a. Records premast restraint.
b. Serves as a preliminary inquiry report.
c. Records that appeal rights have been explained to the accused.
d. Includes all premast advice that must be given to the accused.
B
In what order should witnesses be listed on the
NAVPERS Form 1626/7?

a. Civilian witnesses and then military witnesses and then military witnesses in order of seniority.
b. Military witnesses and then civilian witnesses in alphabetical order.
c. Military witnesses by seniority and then civilians.
d. Military and civilian witnesses in the order of involvement in the offense.
C
If an accused refuses to sign the section of the
NAVPERS Form 1626/7 that acknowledges the accusation(s) against him or her, what action should be taken?

a. Any of the witnesses listed on the form may sign attesting to that fact.
b. The person informing the accused of the accusations should sign attesting to that fact.
c. The accused should be given a direct order to sign the form.
d. The form is forwarded without the accused’s signature
B
The XO may screen a case by holding an informal
hearing or may impose punishment after reviewing the report chit and the record of the accused.

a. True
b. False
B
The results of NJP may be published in the plan of
the day not later than how many months after the imposition of NJP?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
A
Which of the following actions may be taken by a CO
at mast?

a. Referral to an Article 32 pretrial investigation
b. Dismiss the case with a warning
c. Postpone the action pending further investigation
d. Each of the above
D
Regardless of the rank of an OIC, his or her NJP
power is limited to that of a CO in what range of paygrades?

a. W1 to O2
b. O1 to O2 only
c. O2 to O3 only
d. O1 to O3
D
Which of the following NJP punishments may be awarded
to an E-3 enlisted accused by an OIC?

a. Correctional custody for 14 days
b. Correctional custody for 7 days
c. Restriction for 15 days
d. Forfeiture of one-half of 1 month’s pay for 1 month
D
Procedures for issuing punitive letters may be found
in which of the following publications?

a. MCM
b. JAGMAN
c. MILPERSMAN
d. U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990
B
Which of the following statements is correct
concerning extra duties?

a. Guard duty may not be assigned as extra duties.
b. Extra duties cannot be demeaning to the accused’s rank or position.
c. Extra duties should not extend beyond 2 hours per day.
d. Each of the above.
D
An appeal to NJP must be submitted in writing within
how many days of the imposition of NJP?

a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 14
A
Which of the following types of NJP hearings should
be entered in the unit punishment book?

a. NJP hearings that refer cases to court-martial only.
b. NJP hearings that impose punishment that affect pay only.
c. NJP hearings that impose punishment only.
d. All NJP hearing.
D
The regulations that govern administrative investigations (fact-finding bodies) are found in what publication?

a. MCM
b. SORM
c. JAGMAN
d. MILPERSMAN
C
An administrative fact-finding body searches out, develops, assembles, analyzes, and records all available information about the master under investigation.

a. True
b. False
A
A court of inquiry consists of at least how many commissioned officers?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
C
Which of the following types of investigations take all testimony under oath and record all proceedings verbatim?

a. Fact-finding bodies
b. Courts of inquiry
c. Fact-finding bodies not required to conduct a hearing
d. Fact-finding bodies required to conduct a hearing
B
At the minimum, a fact-finding body required to conduct a hearing consists of how many commissioned officers?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
B
Which of the following investigations is normally composed of a single investigator who obtains statements, rather than taking testimony?

a. Fact-finding body
b. Court of inquiry
c. Fact-finding body required to conduct a hearing
d. Fact-finding body not required to conduct a hearing
B
A fact-finding body must be convened in which of the following death cases?

a. When a U.S. Navy member, while on active duty, dies from other than a previously know medical condition
b. When civilians or other nonnaval personnel are found dead on a naval installation
c. When death or permanent disability occurs in which the adequacy of medical care is reasonably in issue
d. Each of the above
D
A report to the Judge Advocate General is not required when death occurs as a result of which of the following actions?

a. Suicide
b. Death by enemy action
c. Death by natural causes
d. Death by accidental causes
B
Progress reports are required on all death investigations from all command and reviewing activities every

a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 14 days
B
The next of kin may request copies of the death investigation from what code of the JAG office?

a. Code 31
b. Code 32
c. Code 33
d. Code 34
B
Additional instruction and guidance on safety investigations can be found in which of the following directives?

a. OPNAVINST 5100.14
b. OPNAVINST 5100.12
c. OPNAVINST 3750.6
d. OPNAVINST 5112.6
D
An appointing order should be in which of the following forms?

a. Official letter only
b. Official letter addressed to the JAG
c. Official letter addressed to the IO
A
What must be provided if a service member is asked to provide his or her social security number for an investigation?

a. Privacy act statement
b. Formal request from JAG
c. Formal request from the IO
d. Formal request from the CA
A
The appointing order directs the completion of the IO’s report within how many days?

a. 14
b. 21
c. 30
d. 45
B
Of the following items, which one should NOT be included in a preliminary statement?

a. Nature of the investigation
b. Difficulties encountered
c. Failure to advise individuals of their rights
d. Synopsis of facts, recommendations, or opinions
B
What is the first enclosure to an investigative report?

a. Opinions
b. Recommendations
c. Findings of fact
d. Signed written appointing order
B
Upon completion of an investigation, the IO should submit his/her investigation to whom?

a. CA
b. JAG
c. TYCOM
d. OPNAV
B
Award recommendations are prepared using which of the following instructions?

a. OPNAVINST 1560.A
b. OPNAVINST 1650.1
c. SECNAVINST 1560.1
d. SECNAVINST 1650.1
A
Awards recognizing specific acts should be given within 60 days after the act occurred.

a. True
b. False
A
The quota system issuing Navy Achievement Medals at a command is based on the total number of which of the following factors?

a. Billets authorized
b. Officer personnel only
c. Enlisted personnel only
d. Enlisted and officer personnel
A
An award recommendation should be prepared on which of the following OPNAV forms?

a. 1605/2
b. 1650/3
c. 1650/4
d. 1605/5
B
A proposed, non-combat citation is limited to a total of how many typed written lines?

a. 20
b. 22
c. 24
d. 25
C
The normal processing time for an award recommendation should be what maximum number of days?

a. 15
b. 30
c. 60
d. 120
C
What is the intent behind letters of appreciation and commendation?

a. To promote morale
b. To promote harmony
c. To reward individuals only
d. To accelerate advancement only
A
Information pertaining to the Officer Distribution Control Report (ODCR) is contained in which of the following instructions?

a. BUPERSINST 1301.40
b. BUPERSINST 1401.2
c. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1401.1
d. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1301.2
A
An ODCR is prepared for each Naval command by which of the following activities?

a. EPMAC
b. MAPTIS
c. NAVFINCEN
d. NAVMILPERSCOM
A
How often is the ODCR prepared?

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually
A
When pen changes to an ODCR are made, in what part of the report should you place the date the correction was made?

a. Left margin
b. Right margin
c. Over the corrected data
d. Under the corrected data
B
A description of an officer’s primary duties can be found in what data element of an ODCR?

a. Desk code
b. Billet title
c. Activity mission code
d. Billet phase indicator
B
The security code data element of on the ODCR consists of a five-position code divided into two lines.

a. True
b. False
A
An officer’s name should not exceed a total of how many characters on an ODCR, including spaces?

a. 20
b. 21
c. 22
d. 23
B
What data element of an ODCR is indicated by an asterisk following the officers name?

a. PAD
b. OSAM
c. DESIG
d. ASED/SSED
C
Which data element of an ODCR reflects an officer’s current operational flying status?

a. MOF
b. ACD
c. ABI
d. AUG
A
The acceptance and oath of office is filed on the right side of an Officer’s service record.

a. True
b. False
A
The Certificate of Personnel Security Investigation, clearance and access is file on the left side of an Officer’s service record.

a. True
b. False
A
When at sea, what office usually maintains an Officer’s Service Record?

a. Personnel Office
b. Captain’s Office
c. Department Offices
d. Administrative Office
B
What authority contains detailed information of Officer Service Records?

a. SORM
b. SDSPROMAN
c. MILPERSMAN
d. OFFTRANSMAN
C
When an individual travels to a command or geographical area that is not the individual’s permanent duty station, what official Navy acronym should be used?

a. TEMDUINS
b. TEMADD
c. TAD
d. TDY
C
What NAVPERS form is used to prepare TEMADD travel orders?

a. 1320/12
b. 1320/14
c. 1320/16
d. 1320/18
A
The complete accounting classification code and the standard document number and its construction can be found in which of the following manuals?

a. SDSPROMAN
b. MILPERSMAN
c. OFFTRANSMAN
d. ENLTRANSMAN
B
Which of the following DD Forms is used to liquidate a travel claim?

a. 1351–1
b. 1351–2
c. 1351–3
d. 1351–4
C
Entries for mode of travel and reason for stops can be found in what block(s) on the reverse side of a travel voucher?

a. Block 15d
b. Block 15e
c. Both 1 and 2 (above)
d. Block 25c
A
All members of the Navy should be encouraged to use their full leave entitlement each year?

a. True
b. False
D
For which of the following time periods are members NOT authorized to earn leave?

a. Active duty for less than 30 days
b. Active duty for training, with pay, for less than 30 days
c. Lost time
d. Each of the above
C
Navy members are advised of their leave balance each month by which of the following methods?

a. Memoranda prepared by command personnel officers
b. Memoranda prepared by command disbursing officers
c. Leave and earnings statements prepared by the Navy Finance Center
d. Leave lists prepared by BUPERS
D
Of the following types of leave, which one is NOT charged against a member’s leave entitlement?

a. Earned
b. Advance
c. Emergency
d. Convalescent
A
Ordinary leave is requested and authorized on which of the following forms?

a. NAVCOMPT From 3065
b. NAVCOMPT Form 3067
c. DD Form 1624
d. DD From 398
A
What term identifies an amount of money paid to a member to provide for food, quarters, or services when they are not provided by the Navy?

a. Allowance
b. Incentive
c. Special
d. Miscellaneous pay
C
Which of the following is the only authority that should be used in the preparation of officer fitness reports?

a. NAVMILPERSMAN
b. Navy Regulations
c. BUPERSINST 1610.10
d. BUPERSINST 1616.9
A
Officer fitness reports are a primary basis for selecting officers for advanced training, duty assignment, promotion, and command.

a. True
b. False
B
Reporting seniors should retain copies of FITREP’s for at least how many years?

a. 5
b. Always
c. 3
d. 4
B
Which of the following is the only authority that should be used in the preparation of enlisted evaluations?

a. BUPERSINST 1611.17
b. BUPERSINST 1610.10
c. Navy Regulations
d. NAVMILPERSMAN
D
Which of the following statements is true regarding routine office machine maintenance?

a. Know how to give routine care to any machine you operate.
b. Acquaint yourself with equipment instruction manuals.
c. Understand other kinds of local maintenance policy.
d. Each of the above.
A
Which instruction deals with the Survivor Benefit Plan?

a. BUPERSINST 1750.11
b. BUPERSINST 1740.10
c. BUPERSINST 1650.11D
d. Navy Regulations
A
How is empty space on a DD Form 214 filled in?

a. Diagonal X's
b. Left Blank
c. Dashes
d. Slashes
B
When preparing an Identification Card for a Dependent,
which instruction would you use?

a. BUPERSINST 1740.1
b. BUPERSINST 1750.10
c. OPNAVINST 1650.1F
d. BUPERSINST 1610.10
C
When a member is separating from the Naval Service, which
instruction is used to prepare the DD Form 214?

a. BUPERSINST 5215.1C
b. BUPERSINST 5216.5D
c. BUPERSINST 1900.8
d. BUPERSINST 1910.8C
A
When replying to an invitation, you should respond within?

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
B
What manual would you refer to if you had a question about
an invitation?

a. BUPERSINST 5215.1C
b. OPNAVINST 1710.7
c. OPNAVINST 1650.1F
d. BUPERSINST 1710.7
A
For a Keel-Laying Ceremony, what type of invitation would
you prepare?

a. Fully-Engraved
b. Semi-Engraved
c. Handwritten
d. All of the above
C
What form would you use to promote an Ensign to the next
higher paygrade?

a. NAVPERS 1421/1
b. BUPERS 1426/7
c. NAVPERS 1421/7
d. NAVPERS 1426/1
B
How long does an Ensign on active duty have to wait to be promoted to the next higher paygrade?

a. 12 months
b. 24 months
c. 18 months
d. 6 months
A
What instruction would you refer to when preparing a NAVPERS 1421/7?

a. SECNAVINST 1412.6
b. SECNAVINST 1212.4
c. SECNAVINST 1414.2
d. OPNAVINST 1410.2
C
The form used for an Enlisted Evaluation (E-6 and below)
is?

a. NAVPERS 1070/602
b. NAVPERS 1610/2
c. NAVPERS 1616/24
d. NAVPERS 1070/605
B
NAVPERS 1070/613 is found on what side of the Enlisted
Service Record?

a. Left
b. Right
B
NAVPERS 1070/605 is found on what side of the Enlisted
Service Record?

a. Left
b. Right
C
How many days per month of leave does a Service Member earn?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 2.5
d. 3
D
When is the Enlisted Service Record verified?

a. Upon Receipt
b. Transfer
c. Separation
d. All of the Above
B
The maximum number of award points for an E-4/E-5 going up
for advancement is?

a. 6
b. 10
c. 8
d. 12
D
The maximum number of award points for an E-6 going up
for advancement is?

a. 6
b. 10
c. 8
d. 12
A
How many different colors of ID Cards are still used by
the DON?

a. 4
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2
B
A service member that is UA from their command is normally
declared a deserter on what day?

a. 1st
b. 31st
c. 20th
d. 25th
A
A NAVPERS 1070/606 is issued when a service member is UA
over how many hours?

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 5 days
d. 10 days
D
What is the maximum number of days used for proceed time?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A
Death gratuity is paid to former members provided they
die with how many days of separation?

a. 120 days
b. 180 days
c. 90 days
d. 60 days
B
What is the most severe punishment that can be awarded at CO's NJP?

a. Bread and Water
b. Reduction in Rate
c. Forfeiture of Pay
D
A General Courts-Martial is composed of how many members?

a. A Judge and 2 Members
b. A Judge and 3 Members
c. Five Members
d. A Judge and at least 5 Members
C
How long should you keep command files on hand?

a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 4 years
B
Where are your ASVAB Scores located in your Service
Record?

a. Page 13
b. Page 4
c. Page 5
d. Page 9
D
What is the maximum number of months a service member
can extend?

a. 10
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
A
Administrative separation processing is mandatory for
which of the following reasons?

a. Drugs
b. Theft
c. UA
d. Assault
C
Upon completion of TAD, how many days does a member have
to file a Travel Claim?

a. 3 days
b. 4 days
c. 5 days
d. 10 days
C
SSIC 7000 is best represented by what category?

a. Logistics
b. General Administration
c. Medicine and Dentistry
d. Financial Management
D
SSIC 6000 is best represented by what category?

a. Logistics
b. General Administration
c. Medicine and Dentistry
d. Financial Management
C
SSIC 4000 is best represented by what category?

a. Logistics
b. General Administration
c. Medicine and Dentistry
d. Financial Management
A