Western Review

Front 1

pain fibers in the spinothalamic tract do what?

Back 1

they contain neurons that carry crude sensation of touch,pressure, temperature and pain, they synapse with afferent and efferent nerves to and from the sponal cord, they contain interneurons whos axons to the opposite side of the spinal cord

Front 2

which information is correct about what the spinocerebellar tracts do

Back 2

they carry procioceptive information concerning the position of muscles tendons and joints to the cerebellum, they cross over to the opposite side of the spinal cord and ascend to the cerebellar peduncle in the anterior, the axons in the posterior spinocerebellar tract do not cross over to the opposite side and ascend to the cerebellar cortex via the inferior cerebellar peduncle

Front 3

basal metabolic rate can reflect dysfunction of the

Back 3

thyroid

Front 4

sterilization kills all microbial life, including virus

Back 4

true

Front 5

a patient with pernicious anemia will have what type of vitamin deficiency

Back 5

B12

Front 6

true or false: zoonotic disease is an infection

Back 6

from animals to humans

Front 7

What are the innervations of the muscles that move the thigh in particular the flevors, abductors and adductors

Back 7

lumbar nerve

Front 8

what are the positive signs of terenelenberg

Back 8

dislocation of one hip and pelvis drops down towards unaffected side , limping

Front 9

hypoxemia is a decreased partial pressure of oxygen

Back 9

a decreased partial pressure of oxygen in blood

Front 10

the_____separates the nasal cavity from the brain

Back 10

ethmoid bone

Front 11

the______transmits the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery in the orbital cavity

Back 11

optic canal, optic foramen

Front 12

Where are simple squamous epithilium found in the body

Back 12

capillary walls, alveoli of lungs

Front 13

the trigeminal nerve Cranial nerve 5 is

Back 13

both sensory and motor

Front 14

What muscles does the radial nerve innervate?

Back 14

triceps brachii, anconeus,brachioradialis

Front 15

what is the function of red blood cells

Back 15

transport oxygen and hemoglobin

Front 16

calculi

Back 16

are stones in the common bile duct
?

Front 17

Erythrocytopenia is lack of red blood cells: true or fals

Back 17

true

Front 18

the body doesn't lose heat due to evaporation

Back 18

false

Front 19

the _____separates the rigth atrium and the left ventricle

Back 19

bicuspid valve

Front 20

true or false: Parkinsons disease deals with a malfunction of the basal ganglia

Back 20

true

Front 21

which cranial nerve is sensory

Back 21

1

Front 22

the disease associated with niacin deficiency is

Back 22

pellagra

Front 23

the amino acid which is precursor to niacin is

Back 23

trytophan

Front 24

the metabolic functions of niacin are to

Back 24

convert proteins and glycerol into glucose for energy

Front 25

If a high dose of a vitamin causes a skin flush, gastrointestinal upset and itching the vitamin taken was

Back 25

nicotinic acid

Front 26

which of the following foods is the best source of niacin

Back 26

meats

Front 27

the vitamin most closely associated with protein metabolism is

Back 27

pridoxine

Front 28

which of the following is not involved with red blood cells formation

Back 28

niacin

Front 29

pridoxine plays an important role in conversion of linoleic acid to

Back 29

arachidonic acid

Front 30

It is important to include water soluable vitamins in the daily diet because

Back 30

they are not stored in any appreciable amount

Front 31

The structure of vitamin c is similar to that of

Back 31

glucose

Front 32

the 2 water soluable vitamins having toxic effects when taken in megadoses are

Back 32

pyridoxine and vitamin c

Front 33

vitamin c requirements may be increased during times of physical stress because

Back 33

infectious processes deplete stores of the vitamin

Front 34

a vitamin c deficiency is characterized by

Back 34

easy bruising and pinpoint hemorrhages

Front 35

Vitamin c helps maintain the integrity of tissues because it

Back 35

forms collagen to bind cells together

Front 36

a vitamin c deficiency is associated with the disease known as

Back 36

scurvy

Front 37

It is dangerous to take large doses of folic acid in a vitamin supplement because

Back 37

it can mask a vitamin B12 deficiency

Front 38

The vitamin deficiency associated with pernicious anemia and neurological degeneration is

Back 38

B12

Front 39

Vitamin B12 is unique in that it requires

Back 39

a special carrier called intrinsic factor to be absorbed

Front 40

the B vitamin found predominantly in foods of animal origin is

Back 40

cobalamin

Front 41

persons undergoing cancer chemotherapy may develop anemia because

Back 41

the drugs inhibit action of folic acid in heme formation

Front 42

A folic acid deficiency will induce a form of anemia called

Back 42

megaloblastic anemia

Front 43

the best food source of folic acid is

Back 43

leafy green vegetables

Front 44

much of the body's biotin comes from

Back 44

intestinal basterial syntesis

Front 45

The vitamin incorporated into the key pivot chemical coenzyme A is

Back 45

pathothenic acid

Front 46

The potentially toxic vitamin sometimes given to relieve menstrual discomfort is

Back 46

B6

Front 47

the need for pyridoxine varies witht he dietary intake of

Back 47

protein

Front 48

women taking oral contraceptives are at risk for a deficiency of

Back 48

pyridoxine

Front 49

Recent studies suggest that the single most significant factor determining BMR is

Back 49

ironlean body mass

Front 50

when food is not available as a source of energy, the body draws upon its own stores of

Back 50

glycogen, muscle mass, adipose tissue

Front 51

the unit of measurement used by a nutritionist to determine food energy content is the

Back 51

kilocalorie and megajoule

Front 52

If a snack contaitned 10g of CHO, 2g of protein, and 5g of fat, what would be the total calories in the snack

Back 52

93

Front 53

the energy that exsists within a phosphate bond would be_____energy

Back 53

kinetic

Front 54

which of the following bonds is most important in the forming of protein

Back 54

phosphate

Front 55

the chemical bond that contains the greatest amount of stored or potential energy is the

Back 55

phosphate

Front 56

the chemical compound that provides immediate energy to the cell is

Back 56

ATP

Front 57

the function of initiating and controlling the rate of chemical reactions is performed by

Back 57

enzymes

Front 58

A unique feature of enzymes is that

Back 58

they are specific to the substrate, they can be used over and over again

Front 59

Sources of stored energy include

Back 59

glycogen in liver, glycogen in muscle, protein in muscles, fats in adipose tissue

Front 60

the chemical messengers that help to regulate and control enzyme activity are

Back 60

hormones

Front 61

the amount of energy needed by the body for maintenance of life while at digestive, physical and emotional rest is

Back 61

the basal metabolism

Front 62

women exhibit a lower BMR than men due to

Back 62

a smaller proportion of muscle mass compared to fat

Front 63

During pregnancy the BMR will ___whereas during lactation the BMR will____

Back 63

increase;increase even more

Front 64

Disease states that will increase cell metabolism is/are

Back 64

cancer, hypertension, emphysema, cardiac failure

Front 65

The specific dynamic action of food refers to the fact that

Back 65

the process of digestion, absorption, and metabolism of food requires engergy

Front 66

to determine total energy requirements, one must add together

Back 66

basal metabolism, physical activity and dietary themogenesis

Front 67

adispose fat stores are catabolized for energy

Back 67

after glycogen stores are depleted

Front 68

proteins are built from simpler organic compounds called

Back 68

amino acids

Front 69

the element that is contained in proteins and not in carbohydrates or lipids is

Back 69

nitrogen

Front 70

the base component or amine group of an amino acid is the

Back 70

amine group

Front 71

Nutritionists generally recognize_____essential amino acids

Back 71

8

Front 72

the greatest proportion of our essentail amino acids are provided by

Back 72

animal products

Front 73

a protein that contains all 8 essential amino acids in the correct proportion and ratio is a/an

Back 73

complete protein

Front 74

the chemical bond that joins 2 amino acids together is called a/an

Back 74

peptide bond

Front 75

the organ that regulates and monitors the amino acid pool is the

Back 75

liver

Front 76

there is a constant turnover of protein between the _____protein compartment and the ____prtoein compartment

Back 76

tissue;plasma

Front 77

proteins from plant sources such as grains,nuts, and legumes are called

Back 77

simple proteins

Front 78

An important chemical ability of proteins is

Back 78

its ability to be hydrolyzed

Front 79

It is generally accepted that proteins are made up of _____different amino acids

Back 79

20

Front 80

which of the following is not a protein

Back 80

prostaglandins

Front 81

An amino acid residue that is capable of being converted into glucose or fat is called a/an

Back 81

keto-acid

Front 82

The enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the

Back 82

pancreas

Front 83

pepsinogen secreted by the gastric cells is converted into pepsin by

Back 83

hydochloric acid

Front 84

protein catabolism would be increased in conditions such as

Back 84

severe trauma, high fever

Front 85

the phase of metabolism that makes possible growth and repair is

Back 85

anabolism

Front 86

A gastriv enzyme present in infants but not in adults that coagulates milk is

Back 86

rennin

Front 87

which of the following enzymes is not found in the pancreatic secretions?

Back 87

pepsin

Front 88

the enzyme trypsin is activated by the hormone

Back 88

enterokinase

Front 89

the enzymes aminopeptidase and dipeptidase are secreted by the

Back 89

small intestine

Front 90

the vitamin which is involved in the absorption of amino acids is

Back 90

pyridoxine

Front 91

the phenomenon whereby a nursing infant receives antibodies from its mother is due to

Back 91

absorption of large protein molecules

Front 92

which of the following tissues has a high rate of protein turnover

Back 92

liver

Front 93

ammonia and urea are wastes products form the metabolism of

Back 93

amino acids

Front 94

If the excretion of nitrogen exceeds the nitrogen intake, the condition is called

Back 94

negative nitrogen balance

Front 95

the recommended dietary intake of protein for the adult has been set at

Back 95

.8g/kg

Front 96

WHich of the following is a good example of the use of complementary proteins

Back 96

cornmeal tamales and refried beans

Front 97

The openign between the oral cavity and pharynx is the

Back 97

fauces

Front 98

to free the small intestine from the posterior abdominal wall which of the following would have to be cut?

Back 98

mesentery

Front 99

The lamina propria is a constituent of which tunic

Back 99

mucosa

Front 100

Inflammation of the periodontal membrane and adjacent gingivae is referred to as

Back 100

pyorrhea

Front 101

Pyloric stenosis will interfere most directly with the passage of materials from the

Back 101

stomach into the duodenum

Front 102

Aggregated lymphatic follicles (peyer's patches) function in

Back 102

filtration of lymph

Front 103

an obstruction in the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater) would affect the ability to transport

Back 103

bile and pancreatic juice

Front 104

If an incision had to be make in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, which layer of tissue would be cut first?

Back 104

serosa

Front 105

The stomach differs from other digestive organs in that it

Back 105

has 3 layers of muscle in its walls

Front 106

The lumen of the gastrointestinal tract is lined with

Back 106

mucous membrane

Front 107

The parynx, esophagus and stomach develop from the

Back 107

foregut

Front 108

Which of the following is/are NOT associated with the large intestine

Back 108

pyloric sphincter

Front 109

WHich of the following would be classified as mechanical types of digestion

Back 109

chewing, mixing with digestive juices, peristalsis

Front 110

In response to high environmental temp, which glands would secrete their product to help regulate body temp>

Back 110

sudoriferous

Front 111

The formation of bullae is associated with

Back 111

second degree burns

Front 112

WHich of the following is/are considered to be skin appendages

Back 112

hair, nails, sweat glands

Front 113

Thae waterproffing quality of the skin is due to the presence of

Back 113

keratin

Front 114

Regeneration of the epidermis is largely a function of the

Back 114

basale

Front 115

Destruction of the matrix of a hair would result in its inability to

Back 115

grow

Front 116

THe stratum of epidermis in direct contact with the external environment is the

Back 116

corneum

Front 117

WHich of the following sequences is correct

Back 117

epidermis, papillary layer, reticular layer, subcutaneous layer

Front 118

The cuticle of a nail is referred to as the

Back 118

eponychium

Front 119

Blackheads, pimples and boils are associated with

Back 119

sebaceous glands

Front 120

The pink color of the skin of causcasians is due largely to

Back 120

blood vessels in the dermis

Front 121

Which region of a hair is deepest?

Back 121

medulla

Front 122

Dermal collagenous fibers are indicated at the surface of the skin as

Back 122

lines of cleavage

Front 123

If a splinter penetrated the skin to the third epidermal layer of the sole of the foot, the last layer to be damaged would be the

Back 123

granulosum

Front 124

Using the following list of features, determine which are found in the reticular region of the dermis

Back 124

sebaceous glands and sweat glands, sensory structures for touch, pressure, and pain, hair follicles, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels

Front 125

Which of the folowing statements about the functions of skin is not true

Back 125

it absorbs water and salts

Front 126

The epidermis is derived from the

Back 126

ectoderm

Front 127

Melanin is responsible for

Back 127

skin coloration

Front 128

the skin is anchored to underlying tissues and organs by the

Back 128

superficial fascia

Front 129

Nerve endings that are sensitive to touch are called

Back 129

Meissner's corpuscles

Front 130

Fingerlike projections of the dermis that contain looks of capillaries and receptos are called

Back 130

dermal papillae

Front 131

The attached visible potion of a nail is called its

Back 131

body

Front 132

growth in the length of nails is the result of the activity of the

Back 132

matrix

Front 133

smooth muscles attached to hair follicles are called

Back 133

arrector pili

Front 134

An example of a disorder in which bone-producing and bone-destroying cells become uncoordinated in their activities is

Back 134

paget's disease

Front 135

The inorganic material of bone consists of mineral salts called

Back 135

hydroxyapatites

Front 136

BLood vessels and nerves from the periosteum penertrate the compact bone through the

Back 136

perforating (Volkman's) canals

Front 137

THe structural unit of compact bone is the

Back 137

osteon (haversian system)

Front 138

The remodeling of bone is a function of which cells

Back 138

osteoblasts and osteoclasts

Front 139

Bone tissue develops from

Back 139

mesoderms

Front 140

Which of the following statements is false

Back 140

the medullary cavity of a long bone is lined by tissue called periosteum

Front 141

During fracture repair, the new bone tissue that develops around the fractured area is called a

Back 141

callus

Front 142

What happens when the epiphyseal line appears

Back 142

appositional growth ceases

Front 143

Which of the following are/is true?

Back 143

bone maturation and modeling fo on continually during the life of the individual, the bones of the face develop via intramembranouse ossification, most bones are laid down as cartilage which is replaced by bone

Front 144

Which of the following is not considered a function of bone or bony tissues

Back 144

elaboration of calcitonin which affects calcium ion levels in the blood

Front 145

An example of a bone formed by intramembranous ossification is the

Back 145

mandible

Front 146

The periosteum of a bone is

Back 146

a tough connective tissue membrane covering the outside of most of a long bone, but not the articular ends, contains nerves and blood vessels

Front 147

AN individual exhibiting the following symptoms-degeneration of the epiphyseal cartilage,poor calcification,bow legs, and malformation of the head and pelvic bones is probably suffering from

Back 147

rickets

Front 148

ANatomically the region of the epiphyseal plate adjacent to the epiphysis is

Back 148

the reserve cartilage zone

Front 149

The framework of spongy bone consists of

Back 149

trabeculae

Front 150

WHich of the following statements are/is true?

Back 150

The part of a bone formed from a primary center of ossification is the diaphysis, a bone having an epiphysis at each end is a long bone, a layer of cartilage between the diaphysis and epihysis constitues the epiphyseal plate

Front 151

The portion of a long bone that stores yellow marrow in adults is the

Back 151

medullary cavity

Front 152

bone formation is referred to as

Back 152

ossification

Front 153

The membrane covering a bone that assumes a role in fracture repair is the

Back 153

periosteum

Front 154

the deposition of calcium salts during bone formation is called

Back 154

calcification

Front 155

the epiphyses of long bones are covered by

Back 155

articular cartilage

Front 156

a disorder of bones closely related to decreased activity of osteoblasts due to a hormone deficiency is

Back 156

osteoporosis

Front 157

Concentric rings of calcified intercellular substance arranged around central haversian canals are called

Back 157

lamellae

Front 158

which of the following would you recommend in the diet of a child for bone growth

Back 158

calcium, phosphorus vitamins A&D

Front 159

A fractured superciliary arch would involve which bone

Back 159

frontal

Front 160

The suture at the junction of the occipital and parietal bones is the

Back 160

lamboidal

Front 161

All of the following contain paranasal sinuses except the

Back 161

temporal

Front 162

A useful landmark in obstetrics that distinguishes the abdominal from pelvic cavities is the

Back 162

sacral promontory

Front 163

The improper fusion of portions of which bone resulte in a cleft palate

Back 163

maxilla

Front 164

Surgery around the immediate area of the pituitary gland would involve the

Back 164

sella turcica

Front 165

The anterior part of the hard palate is formed by the

Back 165

maxillary bones

Front 166

WHich of the following bones is correctly match with its process

Back 166

zygomatic-temporal process

Front 167

WHich of the following statements is/are true

Back 167

the sternum is best classed as a flat bone

Front 168

WHich of the following landmarks is out of place with the rest as it is not considered a bony projection

Back 168

sulcus

Front 169

The posterior portion of the hard palate is formed by the

Back 169

palatine bones

Front 170

A newly born baby has minor bleeding on the scalp between the frontal and parietal bones. Which fontanel is under the area that is bleeding

Back 170

anterior

Front 171

A child is admitted to the emergency room with a conspicuous swelling near the lumbosacral region. THe correct diagnosis would probably be

Back 171

spinal bifida

Front 172

A useful landmark in obstetrics that distinguishes the abdominal from pelvic cavities is the

Back 172

sacral promontory

Front 173

The improper fusion of portions of which bone resulte in a cleft palate

Back 173

maxilla

Front 174

Surgery around the immediate area of the pituitary gland would involve the

Back 174

sella turcica

Front 175

The anterior part of the hard palate is formed by the

Back 175

maxillary bones

Front 176

WHich of the following bones is correctly match with its process

Back 176

zygomatic-temporal process

Front 177

WHich of the following statements is/are true

Back 177

the sternum is best classed as a flat bone

Front 178

WHich of the following landmarks is out of place with the rest as it is not considered a bony projection

Back 178

sulcus

Front 179

The posterior portion of the hard palate is formed by the

Back 179

palatine bones

Front 180

A newly born baby has minor bleeding on the scalp between the frontal and parietal bones. Which fontanel is under the area that is bleeding

Back 180

anterior

Front 181

A child is admitted to the emergency room with a conspicuous swelling near the lumbosacral region. THe correct diagnosis would probably be

Back 181

spinal bifida

Front 182

A hole in a bone through which blood vessels nerves or ligaments pass is a

Back 182

foramen

Front 183

WHich bone is not a facial bone

Back 183

sphenoid

Front 184

WHich of the following bones contains the largest foramen

Back 184

occipital bone

Front 185

the fontanel associated with hydrocephalus and microcephalus is the

Back 185

anterior

Front 186

Which of the following bones is NOT involved in the formation of part of the orbit

Back 186

temporal

Front 187

the parietal bones articulate with

Back 187

each other to form the sagittal suture

Front 188

which cranial fossa contains the greater winds of the sphenoid bone

Back 188

middle

Front 189

the atlas

Back 189

articulates with the occipital condyles of the skull, forms a joint with the occipital bone, this joint allowing only flexion and extension

Front 190

WHich of the following is/are true

Back 190

the squamosal suture is where the temporal bone articulates with the sphenoid and parietal bones

Front 191

ribs attached directly to the sternum by means of costal cartilage are refeered to as

Back 191

true

Front 192

The sternum

Back 192

articulates with all the truw ribs by means of costal cartilages

Front 193

A certain bone forms most of the nasal cavity. The roof is formed by the cribiform plate of this bone, the lateral wall is formed by two curled processes, the superior and middle conchae of this bone and the nasal septum is partially formed by the perpendicular plate of this bone

Back 193

ethmoid

Front 194

all of the following are parts of the sphenoid bone except the

Back 194

carotid canal

Front 195

WHich of the following pairs of terms are properly matched

Back 195

temporal bone-styloid process

Front 196

Severe pain posterior to the external auditory meatus most likely involves the

Back 196

mastoid process

Front 197

a point of attachment for the meninges of the brain is the

Back 197

crista galli

Front 198

A bone that contains a diaphysis and epiphysis has a curvature for strength, and contains considerably more compact than spongy bone is the

Back 198

femur

Front 199

a person with a fractured patella has sustained a break in which type of bone

Back 199

sesamoid

Front 200

Which of the following is not a component of the axial division of the skeleton

Back 200

occipital

Front 201

the vertebral arch around the vertebral foramen is

Back 201

formed by the 2 pedicles and 2 lamina of the vertebra

Front 202

The foramen through which the hypoglossal, vagus, and accessory nerves pass is the

Back 202

jugular

Front 203

which of the following bones has an alveolar process

Back 203

maxilla, mandible

Front 204

Poor posture may result in a marked increase in the lumbar curve of the vertebral column. SUch a curvature is called

Back 204

lordosis

Front 205

A depression in or on a bone is known as a

Back 205

fossa

Front 206

A patient with a lateral curvature of the spine to the left has

Back 206

scoliosis

Front 207

During walking the bone of the tarsus that initially bears the weight of the lower extremity is the

Back 207

talus

Front 208

which of the following are all parts of the appendicular skeleton

Back 208

radius, ulna, femur

Front 209

A colled fracture involves the

Back 209

radius

Front 210

Which of the following is a true statement

Back 210

there are a total of 56 phalanges in the human body

Front 211

An intertrochanteric fracture would involve which of the following bones

Back 211

femur

Front 212

Which 2 structures anatomical features are directly anterior/posterior to each other

Back 212

the coronoid and olecranon fossae of the humerus

Front 213

WHich of the following pairs of terms is correctle matched or related

Back 213

shoulder blade-scapula

Front 214

In the female skeleton

Back 214

the pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees

Front 215

The ilium

Back 215

articulates with the sacrum and is part of the pelvis

Front 216

Weakened ligaments or tendons in the longitudinal arch that cause the height of the arch to decrease may result in

Back 216

flatfoot

Front 217

the bones of the pectoral girdle include the

Back 217

scapula and clavicle

Front 218

The skeletal elements of the foot include

Back 218

7 tarsal bones,5 metatarsal bones, 14 phalanges

Front 219

The distal protuberance of the tibia that can be palpated at the ankle is the

Back 219

medial malleolus

Front 220

the medial bone of the forearm is the

Back 220

ulna

Front 221

a wrist bone that is not a component of the proximal row is the

Back 221

captitate

Front 222

A wedding ring is normally worn around which bone

Back 222

proximal phalanx

Front 223

Which bone of the carpus is the lateral bone of the proximal row

Back 223

scaphoid

Front 224

The terminal portion of the spone of the scapula that may be palpated on the superior part of the shoulder is the

Back 224

acromion

Front 225

with which bone are the acromion and glenoid cavity associated

Back 225

scapula

Front 226

the socket that receives the head of the femur is the

Back 226

acetabulum

Front 227

the distal projection of the humerus nearer the capitulum that can be palpated at the elbow is the

Back 227

lateral epicondyle

Front 228

The greater trochanter is associated with the

Back 228

femur

Front 229

The olecranon, the prominence of the elbow is associated with

Back 229

ulna

Front 230

the superior ridge of the pelvic girdle is known as the

Back 230

illiac crest

Front 231

the lateral bone of the leg is the

Back 231

fibula

Front 232

If you are told that patient has a Pott's fracture, you know immediately that one bone involved is the

Back 232

fibula

Front 233

which is not an anterior bone of the tarsus

Back 233

calcaneus

Front 234

An x-ray of the scapula would be necessary to demonstrate a fracture of the

Back 234

coracoid process

Front 235

bending of the foot in the direction of the sole is known as

Back 235

plantar flexion

Front 236

The deposition of sodium urate crystals is a sign of

Back 236

gouty arthritis

Front 237

connective tissue sacs that act as cushions in places where friction develops are referred to as

Back 237

bursae

Front 238

the following characteristics-presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage and articular capsule-define what type of joint

Back 238

hinge

Front 239

WHich of the following maitain the stability of a moveable joint

Back 239

joint capsule, joint ligaments, articular muscles

Front 240

WHich of the following is not a synovial joint

Back 240

symphsis

Front 241

What type of joint affords triaxial movement

Back 241

ball and socket

Front 242

Articulation that are slightly movable are referred to asamphiarthoses

Back 242

amphiarthroses

Front 243

A joint united by dense fibrous tissue that permits a slight degree of movement is

Back 243

syndesmosis

Front 244

Which of the following pairs of terms are correctly associated or matched

Back 244

knee joint-cruciate ligaments

Front 245

hinge joints

Back 245

are characterized by a convex surface of one bone fitting into a concave surface of another, allowing movement primarily in a single plane

Front 246

diarthrotic joints

Back 246

are always enclosed in a synovial-lined capsule and always have ligaments uniting the bones of the joint

Front 247

In pronation

Back 247

the bones of the forearm cross each other distally, the back of the hand is turned anterior and superior

Front 248

WHich of these is not an angular movement

Back 248

rotation

Front 249

which of these is not characteristic of a synovial joint

Back 249

fibrous connective tissue

Front 250

Given the following clinical symptoms-chronic inflammation of articular cartilage, degeneration of the articular cartilage, and spur formation-the patient is probably suffering from which disorder of the joints

Back 250

osteoarthritis

Front 251

A joint that affords 2 planes of movement is the

Back 251

gliding

Front 252

The clinical term applied to the forcible twisting of a joint with partial rupture to its attachments without luxation is

Back 252

sprain

Front 253

which statement does not accurately describe the synovial membrane

Back 253

it forms the outer layer of the articular capsule

Front 254

The symphysis pubis

Back 254

is a good example of a slightly movable joint

Front 255

Which of the following pairs of terms is correctly assosciated or matched

Back 255

knee joint-semilunar cartilages

Front 256

A bursa

Back 256

serves as a cushion

Front 257

The displacement of a bone from its natural position in a joint is known as

Back 257

dislocation

Front 258

the movement of a sole of the foot laterally is called

Back 258

eversion

Front 259

WHich is not a factor in restricting movement at a synovial joint

Back 259

the number of bursae present

Front 260

A movement in which the distal end of a bone moves in a circle while the proximal end remains relatively stable is called

Back 260

circumduction

Front 261

In the disorder referred to as torn cartilage which portion of the joint is injured

Back 261

menisci

Front 262

All of the following joints are freely movable except the

Back 262

syndesmosis

Front 263

flexion and extension

Back 263

are movements possible at hinge joints, may occur at the wrist, are possible with the backbone

Front 264

which is not a factor in keeping the articular surfaces of synovial joints in contact with each other

Back 264

the presence of bursae

Front 265

A suture replaced by bone is called

Back 265

synostosis

Front 266

the movement of a bone around its long axis is an example of

Back 266

rotation

Front 267

A joint of the body that contains a broad, flat disc of fibrocartilage would be classified as a

Back 267

symphsis joint

Front 268

a 45 yo female having the following symptoms-inflammation of synovial membranes, accumulation of synovial fluid, pain, and tenderness, pannus formation, and some immobility as certain joints probably has

Back 268

rheumatoid arthritis

Front 269

A disorder characterized by degeneration of muscle fibers and atrophy of skeletal muscles is

Back 269

muscular dystrophy

Front 270

A cord of connective tissue that attaches a skeletal muscle to the periosteum of bone is a

Back 270

tendon

Front 271

A sustained partial contraction of portions of a skeletal muscle is called

Back 271

muscle tone

Front 272

the ability of muscle tissue to receive and respond to a stimulus is referred to as

Back 272

excitability

Front 273

a patient with a very high fever who is experiencing involuntary tetanic contractions of whole groups of skeletal muscles most likely has

Back 273

convulsions

Front 274

Uncoordinated contractions of individual muscle fibers that cause an incoordinated contraction of the entire muscle are called

Back 274

fibrillation

Front 275

The ability of a muscle to return to its original shape after contraction of extension is called

Back 275

elasticity

Front 276

the external surfaces of the abdominal viscera are covered by

Back 276

subserous fascia

Front 277

The ability of a muscle to return to its original shape after contraction of extension is called

Back 277

elasticity

Front 278

the term motor unit is applied to

Back 278

a motor neuron and the muscle fibers stimulates

Front 279

The connective tissue component of skeletal muscle that surrounds fasciculi is called the

Back 279

perimysium

Front 280

The layer of connective tissue around the outside of a muscle is called the epimysium. A student of anatomy would also know this tissue as the

Back 280

muscle fascia

Front 281

According to the all or none principle

Back 281

muscle fibers do not partially contract

Front 282

Muscle tissue

Back 282

shortens when stimulated

Front 283

The death of a muscle or other body tissue that results from almost complete interruption of its blood supply is referred to as

Back 283

gangrene

Front 284

ALmost all muscles of the body develop from

Back 284

mesoderm

Front 285

Which of the following is characteristic of slow muscle?

Back 285

presence of myoglobin

Front 286

Myofilaments are stacked in definite compartments partitioned by z lines. Such compartments are known as

Back 286

sacromeres

Front 287

A triad is an association of

Back 287

T-Tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum

Front 288

When an arm or leg is encased in a cast, there is usually a certain amount of skeletal muscle atrophy. This

Back 288

decrease in muscle size is due to muscle inactivity

Front 289

A substance calle ACh is

Back 289

secreted by neurons at the myoneural junction

Front 290

The layer of fibrous connective tissue that covers the entire muscle is

Back 290

epimysium

Front 291

one of the most distinguishing histological features of cardiac muscle tissue is its

Back 291

intercalated discs

Front 292

The portion of a sarcomere that contains thick myofilaments on is the

Back 292

H zone

Front 293

WHich of the following tpes of muscle tissue is/are subject to our conscious control

Back 293

striated

Front 294

There is a heavy sheet of fibrous connective tissue by which the edge of the rectus abdominis attaches tot eh external oblique and another by which the diaphragm attaches to teh lower margin of the rib cage. Such a spread out connection of a muscle is

Back 294

called an aponeurosis

Front 295

Which of the following is NOT an action resulting from contraction of muscle fibers

Back 295

movement of mucus along the mucos membrane of the trachea

Front 296

The following clinical symptoms-degeneration of muscle fibers, muscle atrophy, weakening of skeletal muscles and fat deposition are associated with

Back 296

muscular dystrophy

Front 297

WHich of the following grouping is incorrect

Back 297

cardiac, striated, voluntary

Front 298

An inflammation of muscle tissue is referred to as

Back 298

myositits

Front 299

According to the sliding-filament theory

Back 299

thin myofilaments move toward each other

Front 300

the muscle that is

Back 300

Used to shrug the shoulders and extend the shoulders and extend the head is the trapezius

Front 301

AN injection into the lateral side of the thigh is given in which muscle

Back 301

vastus lateralis

Front 302

A muscle in a group that performs the desired action is referred to as the

Back 302

agonist

Front 303

Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not tru

Back 303

During contraction the 2 articulating bones move equally

Front 304

Which of these muscles has one function to turn the eyeball to the side away from the nose

Back 304

lateral rectus

Front 305

All of the following are flexors of the knee except the

Back 305

rectus femoris

Front 306

Which of the following muscle names indicate the location of muscles

Back 306

pectoralis major, quadriceps femoris

Front 307

The muscle used to abduct the arm is the

Back 307

deltoid

Front 308

the muscle that turns the palm superior or anterior is the

Back 308

supinator

Front 309

which of the following is a group of muscles with about the same location on the body? (Pick groups that are closest together)

Back 309

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus

Front 310

The hamstring muscles

Back 310

are present on the back of the thigh

Front 311

the muscles that contract when clenching the hand into a fist

Back 311

on the front (volar) surface of the forearm

Front 312

WHich of the following is true

Back 312

syndergists are muscles that assist the agonist, antagonistic muscles relax when the agonists contract, the quadriceps femoris and the hamstring muscles are antagonists

Front 313

When the gluteus maximus contracts it pulls the thigh backward, straightening the thigh with respect to the trunk of the body. This actionn at the hip joint is called extension. WHich of the following muscles also cause extension

Back 313

triceps brachii

Front 314

The anatomical landmark wused for an intramuscular injection into the buttock is the

Back 314

iliac crest

Front 315

flecion of the vertebral column laterally is accomplished by the

Back 315

quadratus lumborum

Front 316

The facial muscle that is used to wrinkle the forehead is the

Back 316

frontalis

Front 317

the trapezius muscle is named on the basis of

Back 317

shape

Front 318

antagonistic action of muscles involves the

Back 318

contraction of one member of a pair of muscles

Front 319

All of the following flex the forearm except

Back 319

triceps brachii

Front 320

Damage to the abducens nerve would affect the contraction of which extrinsic eye muscle

Back 320

lateral rectus

Front 321

During a muscular contraction

Back 321

the insertion usually moves toward the origin

Front 322

Which of the following muscles is not classified as a flexor

Back 322

trapezius

Front 323

Depression of the clavicle is accomplised by the

Back 323

subclavius

Front 324

A first class lever that acts on the principle of a seesaw is best represented by which type of relationship

Back 324

EFR

Front 325

Because the biceps brachii muscle flexes the forearm when it contracts, most of the muscle lies

Back 325

anterior to the humerus

Front 326

In determining the midportion of the deltoid muscle for an injection, the anatomical landmark used is the

Back 326

acromion of the scapula

Front 327

FLexing the hand at the wrist is an example of which type of lever system

Back 327

Third class

Front 328

In the lever system that exsists between bones and muscles the resistance is

Back 328

something to be overcome

Front 329

Compression of the walls of the abdomen is brought about by the action of the

Back 329

external oblique and rectus abdominis muscles

Front 330

A muscle that stabilizes the origin of the prime mover is the prime mover is the

Back 330

fixator

Front 331

Which arrangement of muscle fibers in a fasciculus is characterized by oblique fasciculi that extend nearly the entire length of the muscle

Back 331

pennate

Front 332

WHich of the following muscle would be listed under the heading 'facial expression' muscles

Back 332

buccinator and orbicularis oris

Front 333

The linea alba is closest to the

Back 333

rectus abdominis

Front 334

which term does not belong with the others

Back 334

tragus

Front 335

The anatomical snuffbox is bordered by the tendons of the extensor pollicus brevis muscle and

Back 335

extensor pollicus longus

Front 336

WHich nerve can be palpated as a rounded cord in a groove behind the medial epicondyle

Back 336

ulnar

Front 337

the vein that crosses the cubital fossa and is frequently to remove blood is the

Back 337

median cubital

Front 338

Which triangle is bordered by the mandible, sternum, cervical midline and scm muscle

Back 338

anterior

Front 339

the wrist bone that can be palpated as a projection distal to the styloid process of the ulna is the

Back 339

pisiform

Front 340

The most reliable surface anatomy feature of the chest is the

Back 340

sternal angle

Front 341

The dimple located about 4 cm lateral to the midline just above the buttocks lies superficial to the

Back 341

posterior superior iliac spine

Front 342

the vertical groove of the medial aspect of the upper lip is the

Back 342

philtrum

Front 343

THe larygeal cartilage in the midline of the anterior cervical region that is known as the adam's apple is the

Back 343

thyroid

Front 344

Inflammation of which muscle is associated with stiff neck

Back 344

trapezius

Front 345

the anatomical term for the eyelid is the

Back 345

palpebrae

Front 346

The tendon of which muscle is in line with the 5th phalanx

Back 346

extensor digiti minimi

Front 347

The laryngeal cartilage that connects the larynx to the trachea is the

Back 347

cricoid

Front 348

which carpal bone can be palpated as a projection distal to the styloid process of the ulna

Back 348

pisiform

Front 349

the jugular notch and xiphoid process are associated with the

Back 349

sternum

Front 350

the projection of the distal end of the tibia that forms the prominence on one side of the ankle is the

Back 350

medial malleolus

Front 351

the superior margin of the hipbone is the

Back 351

iliac crest

Front 352

the skeletal muscle immediately on either side of the vertebral column is the

Back 352

erector spinae

Front 353

the lateral rounded contour on the anterior surface of the wrist formed by the muscles of the thumb is the

Back 353

thenar eminence