T-1 Pilot Mqf 12 Og

Front 1

An Operating procedure or technique which is considered essential to emphasize is a ____?

Back 1

Note

Front 2

If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative.

Back 2

False

Front 3

Once TCAS announces "clear of conflict", the pilot should

Back 3

return to his/her ATC clearance or as directed by ATC

Front 4

Failure to properly set the decision height (DH) in the radio altimeter could result in

Back 4

nuisance warnings from the GPWS

Front 5

If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70 degree (approximate) compass segment

Back 5

True

Front 6

The weather radar system detects ________ along the flight path ahead of the aircraft. The radar antenna sweeps _____ to paint a full screen radar picture of the precipitation pattern along the flight path

Back 6

wet precipitation, +/- 60 degrees

Front 7

Due to weather radar system limitations, _____

Back 7

do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid adverse weather

Front 8

If the left engine fails while the synchronization system is on, there will be a maximum of 1.5% rpm spool down of the right engine. For this reason, the engine synchronization system should be off during takeoff and landing.

Back 8

True

Front 9

Avoid finger lift actuation to prelude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding the throttle toward IDLE

Back 9

true

Front 10

The weather radar system provides radar data for up to _______ NM

Back 10

300

Front 11

If the antenna on the WX radar is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within ____ of aircraft heading

Back 11

+/- 10 degrees

Front 12

Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. Throttle linkage cable failure usually results in an uncommanded ending shutdown, however, it is possible for the engine to remain at the power setting at the time of failure or retard to to idle. If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at high power settings, shut down the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the engine shutdown during flight checklist in section III

Back 12

True

Front 13

As oxygen cylinders become chill, the pressure is reduced. A temperature drop of 100 degrees F will reduce the pressure 20%. If the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, ______

Back 13

suspect an oxygen leak

Front 14

In the event of a hung start, advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased Fuel Flow could result in engine cooling.

Back 14

False

Front 15

After flossing the lavatory, _____ to prevent contents from overflowing

Back 15

leave the knife valve open

Front 16

The handheld HALON 121 extinguishers in the aircraft are more effective and less toxic than other types of fire extinguishers. Therefore, it is not necessary to ventilate the aircraft after their use.

Back 16

False

Front 17

Resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system is allowable.

Back 17

False

Front 18

During cross-side operations, pilots should cross-check ______ with other reliable instruments

Back 18

All of the above (Position, attitude and altitude)

Front 19

Asterisk (*) items in the checklist

Back 19

need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day

Front 20

While using the exterior inspection checklist, specific attentions hold be given to detect fluid leakage

Back 20

true

Front 21

The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle

Back 21

False

Front 22

Failure to stow the exterior door handle can result in damage to the door in flight

Back 22

True

Front 23

During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system

Back 23

True

Front 24

How many circuit breaker panels are in the aft compartment that are required to be checked?

Back 24

3

Front 25

The entrance door must be closed and locked prior to starting interior inspection

Back 25

False

Front 26

With respect to the door locking pins, ______ or the door may open in flight

Back 26

all eight must be white

Front 27

If pilot valves are inoperative, single point pressure refueling should not be attempted

Back 27

True

Front 28

An improperly installed escape hatch can result in loss of cabin pressure in flight

Back 28

True

Front 29

Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin will

Back 29

All of the above (Make hatch inoperable from the outside, inside and delay emergency ground egress form the escape hatch)

Front 30

To test the AHRS battery

Back 30

A & B (Hold for five seconds, and check the AHRS BATT TEST annunciator momentarily illuminates)

Front 31

After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to "EMER", check for operation of ___________

Back 31

RTU #1

Front 32

When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _______ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements

Back 32

1,000

Front 33

Turning the manual pressure control knob past its normal range __________

Back 33

could damage the threads or needle valve seat

Front 34

When the battery fee test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for

Back 34

A & B (FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated, STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated)

Front 35

Landing with brakes applied could result in

Back 35

All of the above (Blown tires, potential runway departure, damage to the aircraft)

Front 36

The H STAB DEICE TEST position will

Back 36

B & C (Check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions, allies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six)

Front 37

When checking the stall warning system ______

Back 37

A & B (the master test switch must remain in the L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice, check hat the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication)

Front 38

When testing the indicator lights, the flowing lights do not illuminate

Back 38

All of the Above (red landing gear unlocked indicator, starter DISENGAGE button, and ENG START buttons)

Front 39

When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate

Back 39

twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7

Front 40

AFter selecting the left tank during the fuel cross feed check, these lights will illuminate

Back 40

Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light

Front 41

When running the pitch or roll trim switch for ______ seconds continuously, the trim arming horn will activate.

Back 41

5

Front 42

During flight control checks, after the pilot checks the controls, the copilot must also physicaly check the flight controls.

Back 42

True

Front 43

If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the seconds engine until the first engine's load meter reads below ______ amps

Back 43

150

Front 44

For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at idle

Back 44

True

Front 45

The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position

Back 45

3

Front 46

While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for 1-2 seconds during the test

Back 46

True

Front 47

Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ________

Back 47

horizontal stabilizer

Front 48

If not monitored properly, the VNAV function of the FMS may result in terrain impact

Back 48

True

Front 49

Do not operate entine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above ______ degrees Celsius OAT/SAT

Back 49

10

Front 50

An external power cart is required for engines tart at ambient temperatures below

Back 50

5 degrees F

Front 51

The throttles should be set at ____ to ensure that the anti-ice vale is open when checking wing and engine anti-ice

Back 51

70 % N2

Front 52

When taxiing for takeoff through ice and snow, leave the flaps at ______ until approaching the runway to avoid accumulations of i.e. being cast off from the tires

Back 52

0

Front 53

An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is

Back 53

Caution

Front 54

During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of ____ minutes behind a large type aircraft. With and effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced

Back 54

2, 5

Front 55

For a wake turbulence takeoff

Back 55

a crosswind over 5 knots may reduce the required interval

Front 56

After the gar is retracted on a a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of _____ until reaching _______ feet above field elevation

Back 56

Vco + 10, 400

Front 57

Flaps are retracted after takeoff passing _____ feet above field elevation and a minimum airspeed of _____

Back 57

400, Vco + 10

Front 58

During takeoff and landing, to avoid obscuring visibility, the visors must be in the stowed position

Back 58

True

Front 59

For extended high altitude cruise, the windshield heat should be set at

Back 59

LOW

Front 60

Ignition switches should be on

Back 60

All of the above (whenever engine anti-ice is on, when flight is through turbulence and/or visible precipitation, for all takeoffs, approaches and landings)

Front 61

During the cruise check a temperature drop of ______F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____%

Back 61

100, 20

Front 62

With the pilot valves inoperative, which of the following is true concerning refueling?

Back 62

Use Gravity refueling

Front 63

Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at ______, enroute descent is flown at ______ and rapid descent is flown at _______

Back 63

230, 250, 330

Front 64

Maximum range descent is _________.

Back 64

Idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 feet, 230 KIAS below 35,900 feet

Front 65

During preflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve _____

Back 65

is acceptable

Front 66

Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear

Back 66

False

Front 67

Use of stabilizer trim for round out int he flare could induce strong pitch up tendency that would be difficult to control in the event that a go-around is attempted

Back 67

True

Front 68

In the event of a suspected hard landing:

Back 68

A & B (Make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed and RA/VSI, gear should remain down and the mission terminated

Front 69

Touchdown will normally be made at approximately Vapp minus ________ KIAS

Back 69

6

Front 70

The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to __________ knots indicated airspeed. higher speeds can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation.

Back 70

200

Front 71

The takeoff trim setting mark is small and can be hard to see under many conditions. Avoid fixating on this gage while resetting trim to maintain aircraft control.

Back 71

True

Front 72

Failure to properly reset the trim can result in

Back 72

All of the Above (Lower than normal yoke forces, over rotation and higher than normal yoke forces)

Front 73

If stopping distance is critical on slippery runways, turn EFCs off to further reduce engine thrust

Back 73

True

Front 74

Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously

Back 74

False

Front 75

After landing on a snow or slush covered runway

Back 75

do not retract flaps beyond 10 degrees

Front 76

If the parking brake is set from the copilots side

Back 76

A & C (binding could affect normal braking action from the pilot's side at a later time., temporary binding in the mixing valve could occur)

Front 77

During cross feed operation, the boost pump in the non-selected fuel feed chamber will not activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi

Back 77

False

Front 78

If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted.

Back 78

True

Front 79

If an emergency is experienced at or after S1 speed,

Back 79

The takeoff should be continued

Front 80

If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected

Back 80

False

Front 81

Which statements(s) are true?

Back 81

A & B (Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable at slow speeds (less than 5 knots), Landing should be accomplished beyond arresting cables)

Front 82

If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of cross feed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected

Back 82

True

Front 83

The base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 feet above the ground with the landing gear extended. Use caution when using this exit

Back 83

True

Front 84

With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5) be tuned?

Back 84

Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker

Front 85

If UHF guard mode was on when the dual RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available

Back 85

True

Front 86

Using the engine fire switch lights to close the fuel valve also closes the hydraulic valve

Back 86

True

Front 87

Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what?

Back 87

A & B (turns off the squelch, returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure

Front 88

NAV auto tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position

Back 88

True

Front 89

In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true?

Back 89

Both gauges' dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition

Front 90

Securing an engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to ______

Back 90

A & C (400 ft AGL (1500 optional), clear of obstructions)

Front 91

If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time

Back 91

False

Front 92

Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties

Back 92

True

Front 93

If a spin is entered:

Back 93

simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control

Front 94

During a starter assisted airstart, a relight should normal be obtained within _____ seconds after the throttle is moved to idle

Back 94

10

Front 95

During a windmilling airstart, should the temperature rise indicate a hot start, place the throttle to CUTOF and windmill the engine for __________ seconds before attempting another start

Back 95

30

Front 96

The FMS does not recognize step-down fixes between the FAF and the MAP and will not try o comply with them. If a given approach has any step-down fixes between the FAF and arrival at MDA, VNAV should not be used for this portion of the approach

Back 96

True

Front 97

During the flight control check of the rudder, ensure that both the PF and the PM independently observe a proportional displacement of their left and right rudder pedals and a proportional rudder control surface movement

Back 97

True

Front 98

The switch light in the fire protection group on the shroud panel is used to close the _________ on the respective engine

Back 98

A & B (main fuel line shutoff valve, hydraulic valve)

Front 99

The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure.

Back 99

False

Front 100

Rudder boost is provided bye the rudder servo of the autopilot.

Back 100

True

Front 101

In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft artery, placing the battery switch to EMER causes the battery to power the

Back 101

All of the above (emergency bus, standby battery, standby bus)

Front 102

If smoke or fumes are emanating from the air-conditioning vents, select L ENG or R ENG in an attempt to isolate the source. Bleed air source selector must remain in each position approximately ______ seconds to allow adequate purging.

Back 102

20

Front 103

With oil pressure below ______, execute engine shutdown

Back 103

40 psi

Front 104

If high oil temperature is experienced, _______

Back 104

increase affected engine throttle within N1 limits

Front 105

While truing to eliminate smoke or fumes from the inside of the aircraft, turning the manual pressure controller fully counterclockwise will decrease the cabin pressure to the absolute pressure regulator setting of

Back 105

12,500 +/- 1,500

Front 106

Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, entire oil temperature may exceed _______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling field through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than ____ minutes

Back 106

121 degrees C, 135 degrees C, 121 degrees C, 15

Front 107

If you have an EFC failure

Back 107

matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause over boosting of the other engine

Front 108

If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filters is purifying the fuel to the engine

Back 108

False

Front 109

Left or right fuel level low annunciator illumination indicates that approximately ____ pounds of fuel remains in the respective tank

Back 109

200

Front 110

If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0 degrees flaps and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended. Windshear conditions will quickly negate these minor performance enhancements.

Back 110

True

Front 111

If automatic starter dropout has not occurred by ______ % N2, press the starter disengage button.

Back 111

45

Front 112

Autopilot engagement is not possible with the pitch trim selector in the EMER position

Back 112

True

Front 113

An operating procedure or technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life is not carefully followed is a _____

Back 113

Warning

Front 114

What provides ground fault protection for external power?

Back 114

Battery protection circuits

Front 115

Air entering the cabin or pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will not still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off.

Back 115

True

Front 116

In the event of a bleed air duct failure, if the wing anti-ice switch is turned OFF and the annunciator extinguishes, flight may be continued if icing conditions are avoided.

Back 116

True

Front 117

If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically

Back 117

True

Front 118

If a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes upend landing, ___________

Back 118

Place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot's and copilot's position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.

Front 119

The emergency descent procedures are intended to be used for a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment

Back 119

True

Front 120

To execute an emergency descent

Back 120

All of the above (you man use up to 45 degrees angle of bank to aid in lowering the nose, lower the nose to approximately 20 degrees, and accelerate to 330 KIAS or 0.78 MACH whichever is slower

Front 121

The maximum zero fuel weight is

Back 121

13,000 pounds

Front 122

During a controllability check, the aircraft speed should be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight

Back 122

False

Front 123

Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30 degrees

Back 123

True

Front 124

To execute a forced landing with no power __________

Back 124

All of the above (arris at high key approximately 4000 ft AGL over the intended landing area, arrive at low key approximately 2000 ft AGL abeam landing area, gear should be lowered at high key or delayed if altitude is low to make low key on altitude

Front 125

Pushing the AV STBY BLO button isolates power to the failed blower system.

Back 125

False

Front 126

Pushing the AV STBY BLO button does not isolate power to the failed blower system. If an overheat condition occurs, isolate the circuit by pulling the GALLEY circuit breaker.

Back 126

True

Front 127

Electrical loads up to ______ amps are permissible for single generator operations above 32,500

Back 127

280

Front 128

If cruising below 32,500 feet, single generators operations load capacity is ______ amps

Back 128

400

Front 129

When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed to EMER, ______________

Back 129

both the battery feed emergency bus and DC standby bus are powered

Front 130

When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, the engine anti-ice valves will ______.

Back 130

open

Front 131

During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF, and reset them one at a time.

Back 131

True

Front 132

Illumination of the AC BUS SHED annunciator is advisory only and indicates a combination inverter/load bus malfunction that will result in the loss of flap position indicator and both oil pressure indicators

Back 132

True

Front 133

Which of the following will cause the BATTERY FDR FAIL lift on the overhead panel to illuminate?

Back 133

Failure of the emergency bus feeder

Front 134

When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery ________

Back 134

relay is open

Front 135

If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates in flight, the jump seat may check the security of the cabin door as long as he/she stays strapped in.

Back 135

False

Front 136

The DOOR UNLOCK annunciator indicates that

Back 136

a or b ( the cabin door pins are not fully seated, the aft fuselage door is not fully closed and locked.

Front 137

The CABIN PRESSURE LO warning annunciator will illuminate when the

Back 137

cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 +/- 500 feet

Front 138

If a thunderstorm or turbulence cannot be avoided, adjust power to establish a speed of ____ KIAS or _____ Mach.

Back 138

200, 0.58

Front 139

A difference of ______ knots or more indicates the presence of significant severe windshear and should be avoided

Back 139

15

Front 140

Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat can result in erratic operation or failure of the following pilot and copilot systems:

Back 140

All of the above (Mach/airspeed indicator, RA/VSI, Altimeters)

Front 141

If only two pilots are onboard, crew members will exchange seats only when the autopilot is engaged

Back 141

False

Front 142

The pilot flying must announce to the crew when the autopilot is engaged or disengaged

Back 142

True

Front 143

Only the pilot and copilot need to monitor UHF and VHF frequencies during descent when three crew members are aboard the aircraft

Back 143

False

Front 144

In the case of exceeding an aircraft limitation, you must annotate the _____ in the AFTO Form 781.

Back 144

A & B (Time interval the aircraft limit was exceeded, instrument reading of the limitation that was exceeded)

Front 145

Do not operate surface anti-ice systems inflight at ram air temperatures above 8 degrees Celsius.

Back 145

False

Front 146

The yaw damper must be disengaged by 200 feet AGL for al landings.

Back 146

False

Front 147

During ground aborts within a given stopping distance, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or a series of short applications.

Back 147

True

Front 148

Maximum Braking Speed is the maximum sped from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum brake energy limit (______ million foot pounds total)

Back 148

14.8

Front 149

When ______ million foot pounds of brake energy are absorbed per brake, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires

Back 149

4.05

Front 150

What should you do if braking effort puts you between the 8.1 million and 14.8 million foot-pounds range on the brake energy limits chart?

Back 150

All of the above (This should be regarded as hot brakes, park the aircraft, shut down engines)

Front 151

What mud you do if you suspect hot brakes

Back 151

All of the above (taxi only as necessary to clear the active runway, do not set the parking brake, do not approach the hot brakes for 30 minutes)

Front 152

Allowable asymmetric fuel conditions are:

Back 152

B & C (300 pounds imbalance for al phases of flight except takeoffs, 100 pound imbalance between wings for takeoff and touch and goes)

Front 153

For practice approach to stalls, what power setting should be used to recover?

Back 153

MCT

Front 154

During stall recoveries, fly the aircraft

Back 154

B & C (just prior to the stick shaker, at approximately 0.8 to 0.85 AOA)

Front 155

During windshear recovery the best pitch attitude is one which will nibble in and out of the stick shaker.

Back 155

True

Front 156

Accumulations of 1/2 inch of ice can add ______ pounds or more to the aircraft gross weight

Back 156

500

Front 157

Apply _____ % of the tailwind component to CFL, Vcef, Vr, Vb and take-off distance

Back 157

150

Front 158

After heckling flight controls during cold weather operations, the speed brakes may not fully retract due to lack of airflow across the wing surfaces.

Back 158

True

Front 159

The weather radar system will always detect volcanic dust

Back 159

False

Front 160

Take-of rated thrust is the maximum allowable thrust (determined by %N1) and varies with

Back 160

All of the above (pressure altitude, ram air temperature, engine bleed)

Front 161

Increase approach speed and touchdown speed by 50% of the use increment, not to exceed a _____ knot correction.

Back 161

10

Front 162

Vmcg is _____ KIAS, and is the minimum speed which (with one engine failed) will allow directional control without deviating more than _____ feet laterally

Back 162

88,25

Front 163

Center of gravity problems affecting longitudinal stability during flight should be considered prior to __________

Back 163

Personnel movement within the cabin area

Front 164

Deviations from any flight rule are authorized only when

Back 164

All of the above (An inflight emergency requires mediate, deviation is necessary to protect lives, when safety of flight dictates)

Front 165

When an alternate is required and the pilot uses the ceiling and visibility weather criterion to determine suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel

Back 165

need not include the fuel required for an approach and missed approach at the original destination

Front 166

When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel consumption rates for

Back 166

Maximum endurance at 10,000 feet

Front 167

Normally, an aircraft having the right of way will maintain its course and speed. However, if the danger of a collision exists, all pilots must:

Back 167

take the necessary action to avoid collision

Front 168

On climb out after takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, you may not begin a turn to heading until past the departure end of the runway (if visible), at least 400 feet AGL, and nat a safe airspeed unless

Back 168

Both A and C above (safety dictates otherwise, specifically cleared by the controlling agency or local procedures authorize it)

Front 169

When the "ANTI-SKID FAIL" annunciator is illuminated, anti-skid braking is not available and braking will be in the power brake mode.

Back 169

True

Front 170

Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" before _________.

Back 170

Runway Threshold

Front 171

The minimum weather to file VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and ______ statute miles visibility

Back 171

1,500, 3

Front 172

USAF aircraft must fly under IFR when

Back 172

All of the above (operating in class A airspace, operating in excess of 180 KTAS within federal airways, operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR)

Front 173

Aerobatics is defined as intentionally performed spins, vertical recoveries, and other maneuvers that require pitch and bank angles greater than ________ degrees

Back 173

90

Front 174

The control and performance concept procedural steps are (in order):

Back 174

establish pitch and power, trim off pressures, crosscheck, adjust

Front 175

In the event a formation is unable to maintain VMC while aborting a low level, lead will direct the route abort, giving base heading and ERAA at a minimum. Lead will set _____ and initiate a climb to ERAA at ______KIAS (unless otherwise briefed). The wingman will set ______, initiate a climb at ______ KIAS (unless otherwise briefed) to ERAA plus 1,0000 feet. While executing the climb, wingman will ensure lateral separation (wingman will normally execute lost wingman procedures while executing the climb to the directed altitude). Once obstacle clearance is assured, the wingman may set power as required to attain ______ mile spacing. WARNING: The wingman is responsible for avoiding obstacles while performing the lost wingman procedure.

Back 175

MCT, 250, MCT, 220, 1

Front 176

As a guide for instrument turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should be approximate -_____. For turns of more than 30 degrees, use a bank angle of _________

Back 176

The number of degrees to be turned, 30 degrees.

Front 177

Absence of an ILS identifier:

Back 177

indicates an unreliable signal

Front 178

Reliable DME signals may be received at distances put o 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of _____ mile or _____ percent of the distance, whichever is greater.

Back 178

1/2, 3

Front 179

The glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____ NM from the glide slope antenna unless otherwise depicted on the IAP

Back 179

10

Front 180

Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions, unless being radar vectored

Back 180

True

Front 181

When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes

Back 181

Homing

Front 182

When does the wingman maneuver to the stack level position for a formation tactical overhead pattern entry?

Back 182

Initial

Front 183

When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _______ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _______ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc

Back 183

5, 10

Front 184

When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is _____ feet

Back 184

75

Front 185

Normal braking can be used with emergency braking because the systems are independent

Back 185

False

Front 186

Which is a correct standard holding pattern,

Back 186

Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet

Front 187

Emergency braking has anti-skid protection

Back 187

False

Front 188

ATC should issue holding instructions at least ________ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within _____ minutes or reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not be received, reduce to holding airspeed

Back 188

5, 3

Front 189

Alternate air refueling rendezvous procedures in order of precedence are primary _____, Secondary ______, tertiary _____

Back 189

Use the computed backup timing; receiver calls miles from the ARCP (off FMS) every 2 NM;, Receiver calls DME off the NAVAID defining the ARIP/ARCP line every 2 NM (if applicable)

Front 190

If the holding course is NOT within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading (using the 70 degree method):

Back 190

Both B and C above (turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course, if this turn places you on the non-holding side, parallel or intercept holding course inbound)

Front 191

During an enroute descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should:

Back 191

maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach

Front 192

Prior to the IAF you must

Back 192

All of the above (recheck the weather, review the IAP, check the heading and attitude systems, obtain clearance for the approach)

Front 193

while being vectored, repeat:

Back 193

All of the above (all headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), all altimeter settings)

Front 194

Wen flying a non-DME high-altitude teardrop approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published:

Back 194

maintain altitude and proceed outbound 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft tis below the published altitude before starting the descent.

Front 195

As a technique, if the receiver is less than ______ of the computed turn range (half-way through the turn) or the bearing pointer is below the ______ degree index, an overrun can be expected.

Back 195

1/3; 45

Front 196

During cell, lead will fly ______ KIAS

Back 196

220

Front 197

The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from

Back 197

the procedure turn fix

Front 198

The parking brake should not be set

Back 198

All of the above (if the brakes are hot, during low temperatures, when a accumulation of moisture is present, using the copilots brake pedals)

Front 199

The localizer has a usable range of at least ______ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline

Back 199

18

Front 200

The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as _____ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach

Back 200

30

Front 201

If you a re more than one dot below or two dots above glue slope on an ILS, you

Back 201

either a or c above (should not descend below localizer minimums, may continue descent to decision height if the glide slope is recaptured

Front 202

In the event of flap system malfunction, the FLAP circuit breaker hold be pulled to prevent further flap actuation due to air loads or switch contact proximity

Back 202

True

Front 203

T F Virga poses a wind shear threat to aircraft

Back 203

True

Front 204

Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above _______ degrees Celsius OAT/SAT except for preflight check

Back 204

10

Front 205

Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than 200 feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval. The worst situation would occur if a 199-foot obstacle sat on terrain with an elevation just below the next higher contour. For a TPC (1:500,000) with a contour interval of 5000 feet, this results in an uncharted obstacle existing 698 feet above charted terrain.

Back 205

True

Front 206

Pilots must adhere to the following when entering Class C airspace

Back 206

Both A and B (Pilots must be in two-way communication with ATC, Unless otherwise authorized, when within 4 NM of the primary airport at or below 2,500 feet AGL do not exceed 200 KIAS

Front 207

In reference to the flap system, if the 26 VAC primary shed bus is lost _____

Back 207

A & C (flap asymmetry detection is not available, the flap position indicator will be inoperative)

Front 208

Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within ______ of the dew point, and the spread between the two is _______

Back 208

4 degrees F, decreasing

Front 209

USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class C, D, E (below 10,000') or G (below 10,000') airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of ______ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds and _____ feet horizontal.

Back 209

3; 500; 1,000; 2,000

Front 210

Class B airspace is generally from the surface to _____ feet MSL surrounding the busiest (primary) airports in the NAS. Pilots ______ obtain an ATC clearance to enter Class B airspace even when operating VFR. When departing VFFR from an airport within Class B airspace, _____ a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC

Back 210

10,000; must; obtain

Front 211

T F For frost to form, the dew point of the surrounding air must be colder than freezing

Back 211

True

Front 212

For unusual attitude recoveries, initiate recoveries above _____ KIAS and below ______ KIAS

Back 212

130, 270

Front 213

When conducting practice instrument approaches under VFR, OG/CC or equivalent is the approval authority to allow units to practice instrument approaches under VFR. Which of the following apply?

Back 213

All of the above (Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities, terminal radar service shall be used when available, aircrews must make all position reports IAW AFMAN 11-217 Vol 2, pilots must request ATC authorization to fly the published missed approach)

Front 214

USAF aircraft flying in FAA class C and D airspace must have a prevailing or flight viability of _____ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds, and _____ feet horizontal.

Back 214

3; 500; 1,000; 2,000

Front 215

Operation system checks will only be performed during student training sorties on a non-interference basis

Back 215

True

Front 216

Do not taxi with less than _____ feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless using a marshaller in injunction with a wing walker at the affected wingtip. Never taxi within ____ feet of any obstacle.

Back 216

25, 10

Front 217

The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is _________

Back 217

6,000 feet, critical field length, or distance required to reach reference zero, whichever is greater

Front 218

What will cause the speed brakes to automatically retract?

Back 218

A or B above (Flap extension beyond the 10 degree position, either throttle advance to approximately the "NORM T.O." position)

Front 219

The minimum runway length for full-stop landings is _____

Back 219

6,0000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater

Front 220

Single engine and no-flap tactical overheads are prohibited

Back 220

True

Front 221

Minimum runway length restrictions and operations where runway available is less than critical field length may be waived by the

Back 221

Operations Group Commander

Front 222

Declare minimum fuel as soon as it can be determined that your fuel at touchdown will be less than _____ pounds

Back 222

500

Front 223

For student syllabus sorties, minimum briefing times are determined IAW the syllabus. For all other sorties, the minimum brief time will be _____ prior to scheduled takeoff. The aircraft command will determine briefing requirements for off-station sorties.

Back 223

1 hour and 30 minutes

Front 224

Electronic flight bags are authorized

Back 224

False

Front 225

Failure to set the proper AOA value

Back 225

may cause erroneous on-speed indications

Front 226

T F Liquid water droplets can be observed in the atmosphere at temperatures much lower than the freezing point

Back 226

True

Front 227

The secondary flight controls are

Back 227

All of the above (flaps, speed brakes, all trim systems, A and C above)

Front 228

Maintain a minimum of ____ feet behind other aircraft while taxiing in daytime

Back 228

150

Front 229

Simulated single engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least _____ feet and _____ statute miles (SM) or circling minimums, whichever is greater. Visual or instrument glide path guidance (including global positions system (GPS) vertical navigation received from a published area navigation (RNAV) instrument approach) must be available and used for all off-station night landings

Back 229

2,000; 3

Front 230

Aircrew will fly a minimum of _____ feet above the highest unseen obstacle within _____ NM of the aircraft. Once the obstacle is visually acquired, aircrews will fly a minimum of _____ feet above, or laterally void the obstacle by a minimum of _____ feet.

Back 230

500; 2; 500; 2000

Front 231

Aircrews will obtain required flight weather support from one of the following sources (in priority order):

Back 231

Local military weather unit, Servicing Air Force OWS, another military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station.

Front 232

When reading a METAR, AUTO refers to an observation taken from

Back 232

an unattended Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS)

Front 233

Reported wind direction is in magnetic north because runways and aircraft instruments are oriented toward magnetic north

Back 233

True

Front 234

If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately rolling the letter "G" (on the METAR line) will be the gust speed or ______ speed

Back 234

peak eind

Front 235

USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA class B airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of _____ statute miles and be ______ below clouds, _____ above clouds and _____ horizontal

Back 235

3 miles vis, clear of clouds

Front 236

Class E Airspace (controlled) exists at _____ AGL unless designated otherwise. The lateral and vertical limits of Class E Airspace up to but not including 18,000 are shown by ______ on sectionals and TACs, magenta for 700' and blue for 1200' or other altitudes

Back 236

1200', narrow bands of vignette

Front 237

Regarding runway visual range (RVR), if reading a METAR reporting P5000FT, this means

Back 237

RVR is greater than 5,000 feet

Front 238

Which of the following is true with an engine shutdown due to a failed turbine rotor shaft

Back 238

A & C (A loud bang will be audible, engine restart is not possible)

Front 239

The aft fuselage door is designed such that the lower section must be opened prior to the upper section

Back 239

True

Front 240

You should never clean a dry window surface without using water or a mild soap solution

Back 240

True

Front 241

Discoloration or crazing will weaken the structural strength of the windows

Back 241

False

Front 242

During _____, to avoid obscuring visibility, the sun visors must be in the stowed position

Back 242

A & B (Takeoff, Landing)

Front 243

Cabin window shades are to be open for ________

Back 243

Takeoff and landing

Front 244

For the instrument cockpit check, it is not necessary to check the heading system for the correct direction of turns during taxi and the proper heading displayed during runway alignment.

Back 244

False

Front 245

All checklist items are to be read and the individual responsible for each item must reply with the appropriate response

Back 245

True

Front 246

During critical phases of flight, direct reference to the checklist is not required

Back 246

True

Front 247

Do not perform the after landing checklist until the aircraft is ____

Back 247

clear of the active runway

Front 248

Before takeoff, the PNF sets the airspeed marker on ____, the PF sets ____ and they memorize ____ if different than S1

Back 248

S1, Vco, Vrot

Front 249

Cross-check your ____ and ____ as the primary references for VFR recoveries, and general area orientation.

Back 249

chart, area landmarks

Front 250

Because the TCAS will not be able to display all air traffic, the pilot is still responsible to clear for other aircraft

Back 250

True

Front 251

Before starting traffic pattern stalls, set the yaw damper to off, set the AOA indexer to 1.3, set the proper approach speed on the airspeed indicator, compute and set the appropriate N1, and clear the area

Back 251

True

Front 252

Actual traffic pattern stalls or approach to stall situations frequently result from improper aircraft handling, maneuvering or configuration

Back 252

True

Front 253

When accomplishing rectangular patterns, fly the base turn to arrive at a ____ to _____ mile final

Back 253

1, 1.5

Front 254

Unless airspace is otherwise classified, Class G aAirspace (uncontrolled) within the US extends up to _____ MSL. At and above this is class E Airspace, excluding the airspace less than _____ above the terrain and certain special use airspace areas.

Back 254

14,500'; 1,500'

Front 255

Do not block air distribution system return air grates and openings int eh aircraft

Back 255

True

Front 256

When receiving your clearance from clearance delivery, you are informed that you are cleared as filed. This means the routes and altitudes in your flight plan have been approved

Back 256

False

Front 257

On final, tower clears you for the option. This means that you may

Back 257

Any of the above (touch and go, full stop, low approach)

Front 258

Class A airspace extends from ______ MSL to FL _______

Back 258

18,000, 600

Front 259

Height above airport (HAA) is associated with which of the following approaches?

Back 259

Circling

Front 260

When cleared for a descent at the pilot's discretion, you may temporarily level off at any intermediary altitude; however, once that altitude is vacated, you may not return to that altitude.

Back 260

True

Front 261

When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, pilots are expected to maintain that speed +/- ______ knots or +/- ______ Mach.

Back 261

10, 0.02

Front 262

On a sectional or TAC, Class B airspace is depicted by _____ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _____ indicating hundreds of feet.

Back 262

Solid blue lines, solid blue numbers

Front 263

On a Sectional or TAC, Class C Airspace is depicted by _____ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in ______ indicating hundreds of feet

Back 263

solid magenta lines; solid magenta numbers

Front 264

On a sectional or TAC, Class D Airspace is depicted by _____ indicating the lateral confines of the airspace, with the ceiling of the airspace depicted in ______

Back 264

dashed blue lines, blue dashed-boxed numbers

Front 265

On a sectional or TAC, Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA) are depicted by _______ indicating the various sectors within the area, with ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _____ indicating hundreds of feet.

Back 265

screened black lines, solid black numbers

Front 266

Normally, students will not perform duties in excess of a 12-hour duty day

Back 266

True

Front 267

CAP's objective is to focus supervisory attention on a student's progress in training, specific deficiencies, and potential to complete the program.

Back 267

True

Front 268

Operation of the engines with the EFCs off has no effect on the engine, as long as TRT is not exceeded

Back 268

False

Front 269

When throttles are advanced to _____ on he ground, the cabin is pressurized to a positive 80 o 120 foot differential

Back 269

takeoff position

Front 270

On a Sectional or TAC, airports depicted in ____ have control towers, while all those depicted in _____ do not

Back 270

blue, magenta

Front 271

Verbal coordination between the pilot flying the aircraft and the applicable crew member will be required when control of the aircraft is transferred, repositioning fuel control switches (other than preflight checks), a crew member leaves position or goes On or Off inter phone, a crew member goes On or Off oxygen, any electrical power source is changed (other than preflight checks), the autopilot is engaged or disengaged, the PF intends to perform any critical maneuver - takeoff or abort, landing, go-around or touch and go

Back 271

True

Front 272

When using the manual pressurization control, you should raise agin pressure

Back 272

slowly, to prevent injury to the ears

Front 273

PICS will ensure that the current copies of _____ are on board the aircraft

Back 273

All of the above (FLIP en route supplement and enroute charts, FIH, Appropriate arrival, approach and departure procedures)

Front 274

For stopover flights, the PIC will

Back 274

A & B (Ensure the entire flight is planned to its final destination in the greatest detail possible for the first leg of the flight, obtain the latest weather and NOTAM information available for the intended route, destination and alternate before departing each intermediate stop.

Front 275

When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when, in their judgment, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the required/emergency fuel reserve.

Back 275

True

Front 276

During night flight, each crew member must have an operable flashlight

Back 276

True

Front 277

A PIC may make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without re-filing provided:

Back 277

All of the above (The change ors not penetrate an ADIZ, the controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight, the PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change, the chafe complies with applicable national rules in an overseas area)

Front 278

If departing from a nonmilitary installation, pilots will file a flight plan with

Back 278

A or B (FSS, ATC facility)

Front 279

The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means of all of the following except

Back 279

The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight

Front 280

The PIC will ensure compliance with ATC clearances or instructions unless

Back 280

All of the above (An amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, deviation is required in response to a TCAS RA, Deviation is necessary to ensure safety of flight

Front 281

On AR614, traffic may be vetoed within 10 NM of the tankers squawk. Therefore, the tanker and receiver will remain within 1,000 feet vertically and 2 NM horizontally until Houston ARTCC establishes radar contact with both aircraft and authorizes the split up

Back 281

True

Front 282

The T-1 may be flown in formation in the RAN 4 MOA

Back 282

False

Front 283

At Randolph AFB, The T-1 low closed pattern altitude is 1,400 MSL

Back 283

True

Front 284

At Randolph AFB, during restricted straight-in pattern status, entry from QUARRY/ZEUHL is not allowed

Back 284

True

Front 285

12 FTW T-1 Takeoffs during bat procedures require 12 OG/CC approval. If approved for takeoff, T-1s will depart the pattern

Back 285

True

Front 286

When taxiing out of parking at Randolph AFB, if a vehicle is parked between the yellow dashed lines immediately in front of one of the aircraft you are taxiing past, there is at least ______ feet clearance and a wing walker is not necessary

Back 286

10

Front 287

If equipped, anti-collision lights must be on from takeoff to landing

Back 287

True

Front 288

Bat procedures will automatically be implemented from

Back 288

1 hour prior to sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise from 1 April to 31 October

Front 289

Photographing the exterior of the aircraft is authorized unless expressly prohibited

Back 289

True

Front 290

Automatic termination of IFR at Randolph AFB terminates IFR service

Back 290

5 NM from runway when pattern is RESTRICTED OVERHEAD

Front 291

A restricted low approach is defined as no lower than

Back 291

500 feet or as directed by the controlling agency

Front 292

The following are prohibited maneuvers:

Back 292

All of the above(Aerobatics maneuvers - bank angel exceeds 60 degrees or pitch attitude exceeds 30 degrees, spins, takeoff and landing on an unprepared surface)

Front 293

Additional training(AT) sorties may be graded as

Back 293

Both A and B (Unsat , No Grade)

Front 294

T F The flight commander, operations officer, squadron commander or designated supervisor may approve a student's removal from CAP

Back 294

True

Front 295

The normal landing zone for the T-1 is _______ down the runway

Back 295

500-2000 feet

Front 296

Do not execute practice single engine go-arounds __________________

Back 296

after selecting 30 degree flaps

Front 297

The maximum planned ground speed on military training routes is ____ knots

Back 297

270

Front 298

Approach to stalls, traffic pattern stalls, and slow flight must be completed above ______ feet AGL

Back 298

5,000

Front 299

For formation air top sorties, the planned drop altitude is normally ____ feet AGL or _____ feet above the planned route altitude

Back 299

1,000; 500

Front 300

During air refueling missions, do not fly pre contact or contact in conditions exceeding light turbulence

Back 300

True