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300 Cards in this Set
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1(1). For cross-country, out and backs, and training flights using out bases, aircrews will review the AHAS/BAM for the out locations prior to departure from home field. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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2(2). The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed wing) or _________ minutes, whichever is greater. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 30 B. 15 C. 20 D. 60 |
C. 20
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3(3). When computing required fuel reserves, turbine-powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. long range cruise at 10,000 MSL B. maximum endurance C. maximum range cruise at planned divert altitude D. maximum endurance at 10,000 MSL |
D. maximum endurance at 10,000 MSL
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4(5). When given clearance to taxi by ATC, pilots: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. do not have to hold short of intersecting runways. B. are cleared intersecting runways and onto the assigned runway. C. shall taxi to the assigned runway via the most expeditious route. D. will hold short of intersecting runways on the route of taxi until obtaining specific clearance to cross. |
D. will hold short of intersecting runways on the route of taxi until obtaining specific clearance to cross.
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5(6). Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go or low approach unless: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. at least 400 ft above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation. B. at a safe airspeed C. specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a local procedure. D. past the end of the runway (if visible) E. all of the above. |
E. all of the above.
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6(7). The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statute miles visibility. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 1,000, 3. B. 1,500, 3. C. 2,500, 3. D. 3,000, 3. |
B. 1,500, 3.
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7(8). USAF fixed-wing aircraft must fly under IFR when: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. operating in Class A airspace. B. operating in excess of 180 KTAS within a federal airway. C. operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR. D. all of the above. |
D. all of the above.
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8(10). If a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after the FAWP: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. Descend no lower than MDA, proceed to the MAWP, and execute a missed approach B. Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach C. Initiate a climbing turn back to the FAWP D. Immediately switch to backup non-precision approach |
B. Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach
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9(11). In formation, you notice your wingman holds his or her hand at the top of the canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joined. He or she moves his or her hand forward and down. He or she is trying to tell you: (Ref: AFI 11-205)
A. Descend to lower altitude. B. He or she desires to land. C. He or she needs to land immediately. D. He or she must land on your wing. |
A. Descend to lower altitude.
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10(12). A visor must be worn during all phases of flight (including at night). (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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11(13). While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the canopy with the thumb extended downward. He or she then moves his or her arm up and down rapidly. (Ref: AFI 11-205)
A. He or she wants to land immediately. B. He or she is HEFOE with an oxygen problem. C. He or she needs to descend. D. He or she wants to lower their gear. |
A. He or she wants to land immediately.
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12(14). The formation signal for attention in the air is to: (Ref: AFI 11-205)
A. large wing rock. B. execute rapid, shallow wing rock. C. execute a series of porpoising maneuvers. D. turn the anti-collision strobe lights off then on. |
B. execute rapid, shallow wing rock.
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13(15). G-suits are required on all sorties when planning to exceed 2 G's during any portion of a sortie. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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14(16). Maintain a taxi interval of ____ feet when staggered and ____ feet when in trail. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 60,150 B. 150,300 C. 100,200 D. 75,150 |
D. 75,150
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15(17). Normal recovery fuel (the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate) is the higher of what is established locally or ____ pounds: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 250 B. 200 C. 150 D. 100 |
B. 200
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16(18). Minimum runway length for normal T-6 operations is ____ feet: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. Heavyweight, no-flap landing distance plus 1000 B. 4500 C. 4000 D. 3000 |
C. 4000
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17(19). When conducting OCF recoveries over clouds, plan to complete all OCF recoveries (to include dive recoveries) at least _____ feet above the clouds. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 1000 B. 3000 C. 5000 D. 7000 |
B. 3000
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18(20). Which of the following maneuvers is prohibited at night: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. aerobatics B. stalls C. visual circling maneuver portion of an instrument approach D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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19(21). Flying formation at night is prohibited. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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20(22). The maximum crosswind for formation wing takeoffs and landings is _____ knots. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 |
C. 15
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21(23). When leading fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to 120 knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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22(24). When flying a low level route over terrain with varying height, minimum altitude is 500 feet above the highest terrain within 2,000 feet of the aircraft. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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23(25). Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds ___ knots. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 5 B. 10 C. 13 D. 15 |
B. 10
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24(26). With operations group commander approval, aircrews may conduct operations at non-towered, public-use airfields, with the following restrictions: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. single ship only B. at a maximum airspeed of 150 knots C. with no more than 3 total aircraft in the pattern D. a and b only |
D. a and b only
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25(27). The minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations is _____ ft. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 150 B. 100 C. 50 D. 75 |
D. 75
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26(28). Minimum weather for flying aerobatics and extended trail levels I, II, and III (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. Clear of clouds with 3 NM in-flight visibility B. 1000 below clouds with 5 NM visibility C. 1500/3 D. Clear of clouds with 1 NM visibility |
A. Clear of clouds with 3 NM in-flight visibility
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27(29). Taxi spacing will be a minimum of ____feet and on the taxiway centerline at night. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 75 B. 150 C. 300 D. 200 |
C. 300
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28(30). Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ____ knots. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 35 B. 25 C. 50 D. 30 |
A. 35
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29(31). After beginning a penetration or published approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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30(33). Planned formation low approaches will________. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. be initiated no lower than 100 ft AGL B. not descend below 100 ft AGL at any time C. go around no lower than 300 ft AGL D. are not allowed |
A. be initiated no lower than 100 ft AGL
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31(34). Minimum fuel is _____ pounds (_____ pounds on all solo student syllabus sorties). (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 110, 150 B. 150, 250 C. 150, 200 D. 110, 200 |
C. 150, 200
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32(35). The minimum altitude for VFR, non-local, point to point navigation missions dictated by operational or training requirements is _________ feet AGL. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 1500 B. 3000 C. 5000 D. Not specified |
B. 3000
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33(36). Do not file to a destination unless the ceiling and visibility for the estimated time of arrival (plus or minus 1 hour) is at or above the appropriate PWC or suitable published minimums, whichever is greater. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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34(37). Limit close trail maneuvering to turns and modified lazy eights, using _______knots minimum airspeed, approximately_______ degrees of bank, and _______ Gs. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 120, 90, 2 to 3 B. 110, 90, 2 to 3 C. 120, 60, 1 to 2 D. 100, 90, 2 to 3 |
A. 120, 90, 2 to 3
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35(40). Minimum altitude to fly extended trail, aerobatics, stalls, or slow flight is _______. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 5,000' AGL B. 6,000' AGL C. 6,000' MSL D. Not specified |
B. 6,000' AGL
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36(41). Primary flight instrumentation must provide: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. Full-time attitude, altitude, and airspeed information B. immediately discernable attitude recognition capability C. unusual attitude recovery capability D. complete fault indications E. All of the above. |
E. All of the above.
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37(43). The glide slope signal is usable to a range of _____ NM. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 18 |
B. 10
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38(44). On IAPs with dead reckoning (DR) courses, pilots are expected to fly the depicted ground track by correcting for wind. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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39(45). ATC should issue holding instructions at least ______ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Pilots are expected to start a speed reduction when an aircraft is ______ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below __________. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 10, 5, max endurance airspeed B. 5, 2, minimum holding airspeed C. 5, 3, maximum holding airspeed D. 3, 5, 150 KIAS |
C. 5, 3, maximum holding airspeed
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40(46). Before taxi, crews should set their altimeters to the airport QNH. Both primary altimeters must agree within _________ feet of field elevation. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 3)
A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 35 |
B. 75
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41(48). An emergency safe altitude is normally developed only for military procedures and will provide _____ feet of obstacle clearance ( _____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within _____ NM of the facility. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 1,000, (3,000), 25 B. 2,000, (3,000), 100 C. 1,000, (2,000), 25 D. 1,000, (2,000), 100 |
D. 1,000, (2,000), 100
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42(49). Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) is the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing surface. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 1,500 B. 2,000 C. 2,500 D. 3,000 |
D. 3,000
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43(50). The VDP is normally identified by DME and is computed for the ____________ on the IAP. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. precision approach with the highest DH. B. precision approach with the lowest DH. C. non-precision approach with the highest MDA. D. non-precision approach with the lowest MDA. |
D. non-precision approach with the lowest MDA
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44(51). When checking the VOR at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. +/-2 B. +/- 4 C. +/-5 D. 0 |
B. +/- 4
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45(52). A standard holding pattern consists of ________ turns. The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg is _________ at or below 14,000 feet MSL and __________ above 14,000 feet MSL: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. left, 1 minute, 1 ½ minutes B. right, 1 ½ minutes, 1 minute C. right, 1 minute, 1 ½ minutes D. left, 1 minute, 2 minutes |
C. right, 1 minute, 1 ½ minutes
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46(53). When determining bank angle for holding, unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at ___________ , whichever requires the least bank angle. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 3 degrees per second B. 30 degree bank angle C. bank angle commanded by the flight director system D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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47(55). Pilots shall perform the missed approach when the missed approach point, decision height (DH), or decision altitude (DA) is reached and any of the following conditions exist: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. runway environment is not in sight B. unable to make a safe landing C. directed to execute missed approach by the controlling agency D. a and c only E. all of the above |
E. all of the above
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48(56). Before reaching the IAF, pilots must: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. recheck the weather (if appropriate). B. review the IAP C. check the heading and attitude systems. D. obtain clearance for the approach. E. all of the above. |
E. all of the above.
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49(57). While being vectored, pilots will repeat all: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. headings. B. altitudes (departing and assigned). C. altimeter settings. D. all of the above. |
D. all of the above.
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50(58). The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from the__________ unless the IAP specifies otherwise: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. the procedure turn fix. B. the runway. C. final approach fix. D. the IAF. |
A. the procedure turn fix.
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51(60). The localizer signal typically has a usable range of at least 18 miles within _______ degrees of the course centerline. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 10 B. 12 C. 18 D. 20 |
A. 10
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52(61). When the final approach fix is the NAVAID for an approach, a course change of up to _______ degrees may be required and the approach still be considered a straight-in approach. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 20 B. 30 C. 35 D. 40 |
B. 30
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53(62). If you are more than one dot (half-scale) below or two dots (full-scale) above glide slope on an ILS: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. do not descend below localizer minimums. B. execute the missed approach immediately C. a descent to DA/DH may be continued if the glide slope is recaptured. D. either a or c above. E. none of the above. |
D. either a or c above.
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54(63). Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 1 minute while being vectored to final. B. 15 seconds on final for an ASR. C. 5 seconds on final for a PAR. D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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55(64). When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with___________. The controller will then issue the circling MDA: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. your weather minimums. B. your aircraft category. C. your final approach airspeed. D. none of the above |
B. your aircraft category.
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56(65). When issued a departure clearance instructing you to "fly runway heading" by ATC: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. maintain the extended runway centerline ground track using wind drift corrections. B. do not apply wind drift corrections. C. a diverse departure is authorized with this clearance D. the weather must be greater than 1500/3 |
B. do not apply wind drift corrections.
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57(67). Pilots may circle out a precision approach, but must use extreme caution to ensure their aircraft is within the appropriate circling radius before abandoning the precision glideslope. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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58(69). Any abnormal indications experienced within ____ degrees of the published front or back course centerline of an ILS localizer should be reported immediately. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 35 B. 10 C. 5 D. 14 |
A. 35
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59(70). In order to use GPS for the terminal area, all procedures (DPs, STARs, IAPs) must be retrieved in their entirety from a current, approved navigation database. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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60(71). Terminal CDI scaling during a GPS approach is _____ nm; approach sensitivity (within 2NM of the FAWP) is ____ nm. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 5, 1 B. 1, .3 C. 5, .3 D. 2, 1 |
B. 1, .3
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61(72). The aircraft commander (AC) of a single-ship mission or the flight lead (FL) of a formation may adjust joker or bingo fuels during flight to accommodate mission conditions. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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62(73). Bingo fuel is established and briefed _____________. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. on contact and formation missions only B. optionally, at the discretion of the aircraft commander C. only when the WX requires an alternate D. for every mission |
D. for every mission
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63(74). A slip is caused by ________________ bank angle in relation to the turn rate of the aircraft. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. too little B. too much C. sufficient D. insufficient |
B. too much
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64(75). An emergency route abort altitude (ERAA) for the planned portion of a low level route should be computed to provide _____ ft (_____ ft in mountainous terrain) clearance from the highest obstacle within ____ nautical miles either side of the route. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 1,000; 2,000; 5 B. 1,000; 2,000; 25 C. 500; 1,000; 10 D. 500; 1,000; 5 |
B. 1,000; 2,000; 25
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65(76). Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400 feet AGL, or per local directives, before the first turn after takeoff. The 400 foot restriction does not apply to the VFR pattern. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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66(77). Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and ______ knots. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 80-85 B. 85-90 C. 90-95 D. 95-100 |
C. 90-95
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67(78). Perform a G-awareness exercise or AGSM demonstration before accomplishing any maneuver that may require 3 Gs or more. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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68(79). In a typical MOA, optimum energy for aerobatic maneuvering is ______ KIAS at _________: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 150-200, 8000 MSL B. 100-200, 10000 MSL C. 190-210, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits D. 180-200, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits |
D. 180-200, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits
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69(80). A visual reference for proper no-wind spacing (0.7 to 1.0 NM) on inside downwind (Flaps TO), is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the _______ and the ________. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. fuel filler cap, white/blue color change B. fuel filler cap, wingtip C. mid-point of wing, wingtip D. AOA vane, wingtip |
B. fuel filler cap, wingtip
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70(82). ____________________ are the top priorities of Number 1 in formation. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. Radio discipline and planning B. Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2 C. Monitoring Number 2 and clearing D. Communication, planning, and providing a stable platform |
B. Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2
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71(83). Applying ORM 3-2-1 guidance in a forced landing (FL) engine-out situation, pilots will not descend below the minimum controlled ejection altitude of 2,000' AGL unless the aircraft is: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land B. On profile, gear confirmed down, on centerline C. Descent checklist completed, on profile for intended landing field, runway in sight D. On profile for field of intended landing, runway OBS course set in GPS, and in a position to safely maneuver to land |
A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land
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72(84). During an instrument trail departure, until join up or level off, both number 1 and number 2 will call: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. passing every 5,000 ft. B. when passing thousands of feet (1000, 2000, etc.). C. when passing even thousands of feet (2000, 4000, etc.) and when initiating heading changes. D. passing every 5,000 ft and when initiating all heading changes. |
C. when passing even thousands of feet (2000, 4000, etc.) and when initiating heading changes.
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73(85). Normal holding airspeed in the T-6 is ___ KIAS. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 150 B. 160 C. 180 D. 125 |
A. 150
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74(86). When preparing a chart for low-level navigation, choose an initial point (IP) about _____ minutes from the target. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 1-3 B. 1-5 C. 3-5 D. 3-7 |
A. 1-3
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75(87). The AGSM cycle should last from 10 to 15 seconds with at least 4 to 5 breathing cycles. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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76(89). Maximum abort speed calculations allow for a ___ second reaction time to select idle power and a ___ second period to apply the brakes after idle is selected. Speed may increase up to _____ knots during this period. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 3, 2, 10 B. 2, 2, 15 C. 4, 4, 20 D. 3, 3, 20 |
D. 3, 3, 20
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77(90). Add _______feet to charted take off distance for formation wing take offs, assuming lead is using no less than ______% torque. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1000, 85 B. 85, 100 C. 1000, 80 D. 1000, 75 |
A. 1000, 85
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78(91). Although there is no time limit for operation at maximum continuous power, sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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79(92). Critical altitude is defined as ________. This occurs at approximately _________ feet MSL on a standard day with the PCL at MAX. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. The altitude where delta-P begins to increase / 8,000 B. The altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available with the PCL at MAX / 16,000 C. The altitude at which the power curve is non-linear / 10,000 D. The optimum cruise altitude / 16,000 |
B. The altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available with the PCL at MAX / 16,000
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80(93). If the PCL is placed in cutoff with the PMU in OFF and the PROP SYS circuit breaker pulled, the propeller will not rapidly feather and may not fully feather until after landing. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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81(94). The engine data manager (EDM) monitors engine operating parameters and____________. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. governs propeller RPM B. illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary C. is activated by a weight-on-wheels switch D. allows near linear power response with PCL position |
B. illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary
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82(95). The engine has been flat-rated to produce ______ shaft horsepower. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 900 B. 1100 C. 1300 D. 1500 |
B. 1100
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83(97). If the rate of change of propeller RPM exceeds the PMU sensor validity check limit, the PMU will assume a sensor failure has occurred, and dashes will be displayed for Np and Torque. If the dashes were caused by a propeller RPM rate limit exceedence: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. smoothly advance the PCL until normal indications appear B. a reset is not possible C. cycling the PMU switch will restore the displays D. cycle the PROP SYS circuit breaker |
C. cycling the PMU switch will restore the displays
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84(98). Placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position automatically: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. energizes the battery bus B. engages the starter C. energizes the spark ignition system D. both b and c |
D. both b and c
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85(99). During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to ______, the PMU will energize and deenergize the igniters as required. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. ON B. NORM C. AUTO D. AUTO/RESET |
B. NORM
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86(100). When the ignition control toggle switch is set to ON, or when the igniters are activated in AUTO mode, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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87(101). the reduction gearbox (RGB) is driven by the power turbine, which is driven by hot gases from the gas generator section. There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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88(102). The PCLs are interconnected with a push-pull rod so that movement of one PCL moves the other. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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89(103). The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______rpm (100% Np) during most flight conditions. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 30,000 B. 3000-5000 C. 2000 D. None of the above |
C. 2000
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90(104). The PCL in each cockpit contains switches for activating which of the following components: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. rudder trim B. speed brake C. UHF communications D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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91(105). When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly ________ the wind. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. flat against B. opposite of C. straight into D. diagonal to |
C. straight into
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92(106). Propeller feather may be selected to minimize drag during engine failure by placing the ______ to ______. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. PCL, OFF B. PROP, FEATHER C. PCL, IDLE D. None of the above |
A. PCL, OFF
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93(107). With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below _____ percent. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 100 B. 103 C. 106 D. 110 |
C. 106
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94(108). Power for the engine/systems/NACWS display (ENG SYS DIS) is provided through the _________ bus. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. battery B. generator C. aux battery D. AC |
B. generator
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95(109). In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is ______% and in the flight mode, idle is approximately _____%. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 67,40 B. 60,67 C. 40,60 D. 67,60 |
B. 60,67
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96(110). Power setting is linear with PCL position throughout the operating envelope of the aircraft. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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97(111). Engine starts are NOT recommended with the PMU in the manual mode. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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98(112). If faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits, or the pilot switches the PMU OFF, the system will revert to the manual mode. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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99(113). During a normal (auto) start, the PMU can automatically abort the start if necessary to avoid a hung/hot start or if any engine start parameter is exceeded. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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100(115). During an normal (auto) engine start, the PMU: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. activates the starter B. activates the boost pump C. activates the igniters D. adds fuel at the proper N1 E. all of the above |
E. all of the above
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101(116). The PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is at or above ______. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 60% B. 70% C. 50% D. 30% |
A. 60%
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102(117). After the PCL has been advanced past the start ready position, the PMU will not cut off fuel to terminate a start. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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103(118). The start may be manually aborted by: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. placing the PCL back to OFF B. reselecting the STARTER switch to AUTO/RESET (if PCL is not past idle gate) C. de-energizing the PMU D. either a or b above |
D. either a or b above
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104(119). If a start attempt is automatically or manually aborted: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. advance the PCL past the idle gate B. immediately attempt a restart to burn any residual fuel C. wait 10 minutes to allow residual fuel to evaporate D. perform the Abort Start Procedure |
D. perform the Abort Start Procedure
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105(120). Illumination of the fire warning light accompanied by one or more of the following indications is confirmation of an engine fire: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. smoke B. engine vibration C. unusual sounds D. fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure E. all of the above |
E. all of the above
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106(121). Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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107(122). During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides _______ fuel supply, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. a limited B. a minimum 15 seconds C. a maximum 30 seconds D. an unlimited |
B. a minimum 15 seconds
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108(123). The fuel auto balance system (provided by the EDM) detects fuel imbalances: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. using actual fuel quantity B. using indicated fuel flow C. as displayed on the fuel gauge D. as calculated using the fuel control |
C. as displayed on the fuel gauge
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109(124). Selecting the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to L will: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the right tank. B. drain fuel from the left wing. C. add fuel to the left wing. D. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank. |
D. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.
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110(125). The generator provides 28 volts DC, which is sufficient to power: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. all equipment on the generator bus B. the battery bus equipment C. charge the battery D. all the above E. only a. and b. |
D. all the above
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111(126). If the generator control switch (GEN) has been set to on in either cockpit, and the occupant of the other cockpit selects ON: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. generator function is interrupted momentarily, then B. it trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF C. generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON D. all of the above E. b and c above |
E. b and c above
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112(127). While the PMU should normally abort a hot/hung/no start, the pilot should manually abort a start in the following situations: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. Normal N1 increase is halted B. No rise of ITT is evident within 10sec after fuel flow indications C. BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during the start sequence D. PCL is moved or the ST READY annunciator extinguishes during the start sequence E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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113(128). Preflight testing of the auxiliary battery power level is accomplished: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. prior to application of battery power B. using the AUX BAT switch and making a radio call C. using the AUX BAT test switch and light D. both a and b above E. both a and c above |
E. both a and c above
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114(129). In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, backup UHF radio, standby instrument lighting and FIRE 1 fire warning system for approximately ________. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 3-5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 1 hour |
C. 30 minutes
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115(130). The hydraulic system consists of one engine-driven pump with approximately a ________ capacity. The hydraulic pump pressurizes the normal system and emergency accumulator to ________ psi. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1 gallon, 3000, +/- 150 B. 5 quart, 3000 +/- 120 C. 1 gallon, 1800 D. 5 quart, 1800-3000 |
B. 5 quart, 3000 +/- 120
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116(131). A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately ______ seconds. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 5 B. 6 C. 10-15 D. 30 |
B. 6
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117(132). The wheel brake system ______ affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. is B. is not |
B. is not
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118(133). The pilot applying the most wheel brake pedal force determines the amount of braking being used. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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119(134). Flap position is controlled by a three-position flap selector marked: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. UP, TO, LDG B. UP, 50%, 100% C. UP, HALF, FULL D. UP, TO, DN |
A. UP, TO, LDG
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120(135). Normal flap operation and indications are NOT available whenever: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. the battery bus has failed B. when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power C. the generator bus has failed D. either a or b above E. either b or c above |
D. either a or b above
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121(136). Emergency flap extension is enabled: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. after selecting EMER using hydraulic system switch B. after the emergency landing gear extension handle has been pulled C. when the aux battery is the only source of electrical power D. none of the above |
B. after the emergency landing gear extension handle has been pulled
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122(137). During flap deployment or retraction, the flap position pointer moves: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. with flap movement to indicate flap position in transit B. to the selected flap position to indicate flap handle position C. only when the flaps have reached the selected position D. to an intermediate position between the placarded settings to indicate flap motion |
D. to an intermediate position between the placarded settings to indicate flap motion
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123(138). The speed brake ______ be stopped at an intermediate position. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. may B. may not |
B. may not
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124(139). If the flaps are extended, the speed brake will not extend. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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125(140). Pressing and holding the trim interrupt button: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. interrupts radio traffic to allow the student to trim B. interrupts power to rudder trim, and centers the rudder C. interrupts front cockpit input to allow IP intervention D. interrupts power to all trim actuators and causes the TAD to disengage. |
D. interrupts power to all trim actuators and causes the TAD to disengage.
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126(141). Actuating the TRIM DISCONNECT switch will: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. remove power from the trim system B. illuminate green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciators C. cause the trim aid device (TAD) to disengage D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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127(142). _________ provides indication of takeoff trim setting. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. A green band on each trim indicator B. A green light near the top of the glare shield C. A green stripe on the fuselage D. A green T/O TRIM annunciator |
A. A green band on each trim indicator
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128(143). The aileron trim actuator moves: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. the ground adjustable trim tab B. the aileron trim tab on the left wing C. the entire aileron D. the control stick centering mechanism |
C. the entire aileron
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129(144). The pitch trim actuator moves: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. the pitch trim tab on the right side of the elevator B. the entire elevator C. the control stick centering mechanism D. none of the above |
A. the pitch trim tab on the right side of the elevator
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130(145). The ______ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. trim computer B. PMU C. air data computer D. trim aid device (TAD) |
D. trim aid device (TAD)
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131(146). The standby instruments are normally powered by the battery bus. In the event of a battery bus failure, the standby instruments are powered by the ____________. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. battery direct bus B. auxiliary battery C. generator bus D. avionics bus |
B. auxiliary battery
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132(147). The ________ sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis when the trim aid system is switched on after engine start. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. pilot manually B. crew chief manually C. TAD automatically D. T/O TRIM button |
C. TAD automatically
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133(148). Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. the pilot moves the rudder out of trim B. the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS C. there is no weight on the wheels D. b and c above E. all of the above |
D. b and c above
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134(150). The manual override (MOR) handle on the ejection seat is provided to initiate seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails or if seat/pilot separation is desired above: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 15,000 AGL B. 14,000 MSL C. 14,000 AGL D. 20,000 MSL |
B. 14,000 MSL
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135(152). As AOA approaches stall angle (approximately _____ units on the gage), the AOA computer activates the ________, (15-16 units) providing stall warning. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 10, spoilers B. 18, speed brake C. 10, pitch limiter D. 18, stick shaker |
D. 18, stick shaker
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136(153). If an inverted or power-on departure from controlled flight is encountered, land as soon as conditions permit. The pilot should suspect: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. possible engine damage B. loss of torque information C. No greater than 102% D. PMU FAIL annunciation |
A. possible engine damage
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137(154). If HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminates and hydraulic pressure indicates 0 psi, check the HYD SYS circuit breaker on the battery bus circuit breaker panel (left front console). If the circuit breaker is open, it may be reset. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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138(155). Engine bleed air is used for: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. canopy seal, emergency gear extension, OBOGS B. environmental control system (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system C. ECS, anti-G system, fuel system pressurization D. OBOGS, anti-G system, rain removal system |
B. environmental control system (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system
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139(156). If the PMU is activated with the IOAT above ___° C, IOAT and the ITT data will be invalid (amber dashes in the counter display and missing ITT pointer) and EDM FAIL will be displayed in the bottom of the primary engine data display. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 96 B. 93 C. 121 D. 80 |
A. 96
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140(158). With the PMU off (manual mode), the PCL schedules fuel directly to the engine through the FMU and the pilot must exercise care to ensure N1, temperature, and torque limits are not exceeded. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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141(159). The fuel system provides approximately_____ pounds of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. Approximately _______ pounds of additional fuel is available if manually filled to the base of the filler neck in each wing tank using over-the-wing/gravity refueling. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1000, 100 B. 1100, 100 C. 1100, 50 D. 2000, 100 |
B. 1100, 100
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142(160). Normal operation of landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering should be considered unavailable when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated and pressure is below _______ psi: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2400 B. 3000 C. 1800 D. 800 |
C. 1800
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143(161). Anti-ice heat is provided to both the pitot tubes and the static ports. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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144(162). A suitable landing area is a hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on an unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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145(163). The AOA heat is controlled through a switch labeled: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. AOA heat B. Defog C. Inflow D. Probes Anti Ice |
D. Probes Anti Ice
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146(164). For high altitude ejections, an altitude sensing device and G-limiting device delay seat/pilot separation an parachute deployment until the seat and pilot are between _______ and _______ ft MSL and a safe parachute deployment speed. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 13,000 to 17,000 B. 11,500 to 15,500 C. 11,000 to 16,000 D. 14,000 to 16,000 |
D. 14,000 to 16,000
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147(165). Operation of the Manual Override (MOR) Handle will fire a cartridge to operate: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. upper and lower harness locks B. upper and lower bridle locks C. the headbox deployment unit D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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148(166). Execute the Emergency Engine Shutdown On The Ground checklist for the following: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. engine fire B. prop strike C. if the aircraft appears likely to depart the prepared surface D. any other serious ground emergency E. all of the above |
E. all of the above
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149(167). Approximately _______ feet of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at best glide speed of 125 KIAS. Approximately _______ seconds will be required to complete the starting sequence & usable power is available. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1350, 30 B. 1200, 60 C. 1200, 40 D. 1000, 40 |
C. 1200, 40
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150(168). Non-precision approaches, DPs and STARs are automatically deleted from the Flight Plan 0 page (active flight plan) in non-volatile memory _____ minutes after GPS is turned off. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 |
B. 5
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151(169). When the OBOGS is turned on, a BIT is initiated and the system enters a system warm-up period which lasts approximately ___ minutes, during which time the OBOGS FAIL annunciator is inhibited. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
C. 3
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152(170). When receiving radar vectors to final for a GPS approach, select OBS mode and set the FAF as the active waypoint. Select the inbound course to the FAF in the EHSI. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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153(171). Due to the sensitivity of the signal conditioning unit, a single, momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is possible but may not indicate a malfunction. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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154(172). When testing the cockpit lamps using the lamp test switch, the landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated only in the cockpit that activates the lamp test switch. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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155(173). Essential steps or items which are to be checked in both cockpits, if occupied, are indicated by _______ following the step. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. an asterisk (*) B. (COMMAND RESPONSE) C. (BOTH) D. (CHALLENGE) |
C. (BOTH)
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156(174). With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject if the handle is pulled: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. unless the other ejection seat handle safety pin is installed B. even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed C. even if both ejection seat handle safety pins are installed D. none of the above |
B. even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed
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157(175). If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. have maintenance personnel service the system B. the system requires servicing after the flight C. the system is fully serviced D. the system requires immediate servicing |
C. the system is fully serviced
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158(177). When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat B. activate OBOGS from the front seat C. eject from the front seat D. select EMER oxygen from the front seat |
A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat
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159(178). During the anti-suffocation valve check, if the valve is functioning correctly, it will be _________ to breathe through the valve when you inhale deeply. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. impossible B. possible C. easy D. none of the above |
B. possible
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160(179). When checking the fire detection system, both fire test positions must check good (all four bulbs) in both cockpits (if occupied). (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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161(180). Before engine start, if PMU FAIL or PMU STATUS annunciators are illuminated: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM B. press PMU reset button C. abort the aircraft and notify maintenance personnel D. start engine with PMU switch OFF |
A. set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM
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162(181). To preclude unnecessary wear to nose wheel steering and tire, ________ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. disengage B. engage C. fully deflect D. none of the above |
A. disengage
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163(182). Do not connect external power if battery voltage is below _______ volts. Connecting external power in this case could cause damage to the aircraft battery. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 22.0 B. 23.5 C. 19.0 D. 28.0 |
A. 22.0
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164(183). Any fault discovered during the ________ check is reason for a ground abort. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. BEFORE TAKEOFF B. OVERSPEED GOVERNOR C. BERFORE EXTERIOR D. COCKPIT |
B. OVERSPEED GOVERNOR
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165(184). If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to _____ nose high on takeoff and accelerate to best rate of climb speed of _____ KIAS using normal procedures. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 25, 125 B. 25, 140 C. 15, 140 D. 8-10, 160-180 |
C. 15, 140
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166(185). If the flaps are set to LDG and the gear is raised, the gear warning horn: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. is inaudible B. will sound momentarily C. will sound and cannot be cancelled D. will sound when the flaps are raised from LDG |
C. will sound and cannot be cancelled
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167(186). If Delta P readings other than _____ psi are encountered at or above 18,069 feet, notify maintenance. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 3.9 to 4.0 B. 3.2 +/- .6 C. 3.0 +/- .6 D. 3.6 +/- .2 |
D. 3.6 +/- .2
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168(187). Before stalling, spinning and aerobatics verify caution and warning annunciators are extinguished and fuel imbalance is less than ____ pounds. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 160 B. 70 C. 50 D. 10 |
C. 50
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169(188). The recommended missed approach attitude is ________ nose high. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 25 degrees B. 5 degrees above level flight C. as required D. 10-15 degrees |
D. 10-15 degrees
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170(189). When landing with a crosswind: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare B. land in a crab C. hold crab until just prior to touchdown D. hold runway alignment with rudder until just prior to touchdown |
A. maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare
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171(190). During the COCKPIT (ALL FLIGHTS) interior preflight checklist, the parking brake must always be positively reset, regardless of the initial position of the parking brake handle. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
|
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172(191). For most accurate results, check oil level ___to___ minutes after engine shutdown. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 10, 15 B. 15, 20 C. 20, 25 D. 25, 30 E. all of the above |
B. 15, 20
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173(192). During the Overspeed Governor Check, verify idle N1 stabilizes between_______ after turning the PMU switch OFF. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 55-60% B. 60-70% C. 62-80% D. 68-79% |
B. 60-70%
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174(193). During a normal takeoff, initiate rotation to ______ degrees nose high at rotation speed. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 7-10 B. 10-12 C. 12-15 D. 7-15 |
A. 7-10
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175(194). N1 will automatically reduce from flight idle (67%) to ground idle (60%) approximately _____ seconds after touchdown: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 7 B. immediately C. 10 D. 4 |
D. 4
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176(195). In the auto start mode, if a hot start, hung start, or no start is detected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence. The pilot must then perform a _______ second motoring run. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30 |
C. 20
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177(196). During gusty wind conditions, increase landing threshold and touchdown speeds by 50% of the gust increment up to a maximum increase of _______ knots. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 5 B. 10 C. 8 D. Do not increase speeds |
B. 10
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178(197). Airstart attempts are not recommended below ______ AGL, as primary attention should be to eject or safely recover the aircraft. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 6000 B. 5000 C. 2000 D. 3000 |
C. 2000
|
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179(198). If the standby attitude gyro off flag appears after the battery bus has failed, the indicator will continue to operate for at least _____ minutes. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 5 B. 9 C. 15 D. 30 |
B. 9
|
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180(199). If the battery fails, OBOGS will be inoperative. Emergency oxygen is recommended above 10,000 feet cabin altitude. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
|
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181(200). Maximum airspeed for flight with a shattered/damaged/unlocked canopy is: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 200 KIAS B. 185 KIAS C. 150 KIAS D. 120 KIAS |
C. 150 KIAS
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182(201). If safe gear-down indications are obtained at any point during LANDING GEAR MALFUNCTION checklist: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. discontinue the checklist and land as soon as practical B. cycle the landing gear handle to verify safe gear down indications C. pull the EMER LDG GR handle D. none of the above |
discontinue the checklist and land as soon as practical
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183(202). Illumination of the DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates that bleed air temperature in the environmental systems duct (at anytime) or in the defog duct (defog on) has exceeded _____ deg F. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 200 B. 500 C. 300 D. 100 |
C. 300
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184(203). During a trim system malfunction, if the rudder trim circuit breaker is pulled, automatic TAD correction inputs for power and configuration changes will be unavailable. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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185(204). Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _____ feet AGL for controlled ejection, and _____ feet AGL for uncontrolled ejection. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 2,000; 10,000 B. 2,000; 6,000 C. 6,000; 10,000 D. None of the above |
B. 2,000; 6,000
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186(205). For an engine failure, depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately __ seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 |
B. 5
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187(206). Full rudder deflection above ________ KIAS will exceed the limits for the rudder control system. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 150 B. 120 C. 180 D. 227 |
A. 150
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188(207). Holding a zero-G loading for over ______ seconds can cause engine damage and possible engine failure, regardless of oil pressure indications. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 15 B. 5 C. 10 D. 30 |
B. 5
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189(208). Engine operation with high pressure pump suction feeding is limited to ___ hours. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 |
D. 10
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190(209). You should attempt to manually balance a fuel load when the alternate engine data display is indicating FP FAIL. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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191(210). Which system operates independently from the primary hydraulic system: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. Landing gear normal extension B. Speed brake C. Nose wheel steering D. Wheel brakes |
D. Wheel brakes
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192(212). The extra drag during an airstart attempt will cause a descent rate greater than 1350-1500 feet/min. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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193(213). Increase approach speed by _______ KIAS when landing with ice accumulation. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 0 |
B. 10
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194(214). At idle power during aerobatics or spins, allowable transient oil pressure is _____ psi for a maximum of _____ seconds. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 15-90, 10 B. 15-40, 5 C. 40-90, 5 D. 40-130, 10 |
B. 15-40, 5
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195(215). Maximum oil pressure during start is _____ psi. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 3 B. 45-65 C. 105 D. 200 |
D. 200
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196(216). Oil temperatures up to _____ deg C are acceptable for ground operations at and below 20% torque: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 105 B. 110 C. 120 D. 132 |
B. 110
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197(217). Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below _____ volts. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 20 B. 23.5 C. 28 D. 22 |
B. 23.5
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198(218). Which of the following is NOT one of the four 20-second starter duty cycles: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. First - motor 20 seconds, then 30 second cooling period B. Second - motor 20 seconds then 2 minute cooling period C. Third - motor 20 seconds then 10 minute cooling period D. Fourth - motor 20 seconds then 30 minute cooling period |
C. Third - motor 20 seconds then 10 minute cooling period
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199(219). Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is ______ KIAS. The recommended airspeed in turbulent air is ______ KIAS. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 180, 160 B. 195, 180 C. 227, 200 D. 250, 230 |
B. 195, 180
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200(220). All of the following are prohibited maneuvers except: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. Intentional inverted spins B. Spins with the PMU OFF C. Tail slides D. Intentional spins with landing gear and flaps retracted |
D. Intentional spins with landing gear and flaps retracted
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201(221). For a clean aircraft, asymmetric (rolling Gs) acceleration limits are: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. +7.0 to -3.5 B. +2 to 0 C. +4.7 to -1.0 D. +4.7 to -3.5 |
C. +4.7 to -1.0
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202(222). Canopy defog must be off for takeoff and landing. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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203(223). The maximum permissible crosswind for a wet runway is ____ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25 |
A. 10
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204(225). The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed _____ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 17.5 B. 25 C. 40 D. 50 |
C. 40
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205(226). Ejection seats may be operated with the canopy open without injuring the user. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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206(227). Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is________ PSI. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 40-130 B. 90-200 C. 90-130 D. 90-120 |
D. 90-120
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207(228). Spins above ________ feet pressure altitude are prohibited: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 24,000 B. 20,000 C. 22,000 D. 25,000 |
C. 22,000
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208(229). Maximum ITT for starting is _____ degrees C (5 sec). (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 820 B. 750 C. 1000 D. 870 |
C. 1000
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209(230). Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is _____ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 15 B. 10 C. 5 D. 20 |
B. 10
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210(231). Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is the speed above which full or abrupt control movements in one axis can result in structural damage to the aircraft. Vo is ___ KIAS. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 240 B. 236 C. 227 D. 206 |
C. 227
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211(232). Aural tones are inaudible during engine start until the engine's gas generator (N1) is above: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% |
D. 50%
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212(233). The T-6 is permitted to transit through a _______ foot band of _______ icing. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2000, light rime B. 4000, trace C. 5000, moderate rime D. 5000, light rime |
D. 5000, light rime
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213(234). Illumination of the L or R FUEL LO annunciator indicates that approximately _______ pounds of usable fuel remains in the affected wing tank: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 150 B. 120 C. 110 D. 100 |
C. 110
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214(236). Natural stall warning, in the form of light aerodynamic buffet, occurs approximately _____ knots before the stall during unaccelerated, power-off stalls in all configurations. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10 |
B. 3
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215(238). In general, out-of-control flight (OCF) can be divided into three categories: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. Stall, Spin, Recovery B. Post-stall Gyrations, Incipient spin, Steady-State Spin C. Buffet, Steady-state spin, Spiral D. Post-stall gyration, Aggravated Spin, Developed Spin |
B. Post-stall Gyrations, Incipient spin, Steady-State Spin
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216(239). A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady state in that airspeed is increasing through ________ KIAS and motions are oscillatory. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 100 B. 140 C. 160 D. 200 |
C. 160
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217(240). The best response to a spiral is to reduce the power to IDLE and _______________ controls until motion stops. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. apply anti-spin B. apply pro-spin C. neutralize the D. None of the above |
C. neutralize the
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218(242). In a steady-state spin, rotation rates will stabilize between _____ to ____ seconds per turn, with altitude loss of _____ to ____ feet per turn. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1, 1.5, 400, 500 B. 1.5, 3, 300, 400 C. 4, 5, 300, 500 D. 2, 3, 400, 500 |
D. 2, 3, 400, 500
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219(243). Ailerons have a pronounced effect on spin characteristics. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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220(244). With ailerons held in the direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably oscillatory. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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221(245). An aggravated spin is caused by maintaining ____ -spin rudder while moving the control stick _____ of the neutral position. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. anti, forward B. pro, forward C. anti, aft D. pro, aft |
B. pro, forward
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222(246). Assuming the first 3 (boldface) steps of the IMMEDIATE AIRSTART (PMU NORM) checklist resulted in a restart, moving the PCL above IDLE before N1 stabilizes at approximately 67% will cause an increase in fuel flow which may cause engine failure due to a severe ITT overtemperature. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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223(247). When taking off in areas of suspected windshear, use the longest suitable runway, and delay rotation to Vrot plus up to _________ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10 |
D. 10
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224(248). The aircraft will recover from erect spins with controls free and the PCL at IDLE. However, the number of additional turns required for spin rotation to cease after releasing controls may increase significantly. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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225(249). A gear-up landing to a suitable landing area is preferred if any gear is confirmed UNSAFE. Fly a flat, power-on, straight-in approach while maintaining directional control with rudder.. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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226(250). Altitude loss during dive recovery is determined by four independent factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors? (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. Angle of dive B. Altitude at start of pullout C. Airspeed at start of pullout D. Acceleration maintained during pullout E. All of the above are pertinent factors |
E. All of the above are pertinent factors
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227(251). If a precautionary emergency landing (PEL) is being performed with IDLE power, add _______ feet to high, low, and base key altitudes to compensate for drag of unfeathered propeller. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 250 B. 300 C. 500 D. 1000 |
C. 500
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228(252). Landing on an unprepared surface is NOT recommended. However, if ejection is not possible or the ejection system malfunctions, _______________ to avoid causing the aircraft to tumble or cartwheel on touchdown. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. extend the speedbrake B. do not extend the landing gear or flaps C. extend the landing gear and flaps D. select full flaps |
B. do not extend the landing gear or flaps
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229(253). If windshear is encountered during an approach for landing, execute _____________. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. a full stop B. a go around/waveoff C. a missed approach and request a visual approach D. a level off |
B. a go around/waveoff
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230(255). The potential for lightning strikes increases near the ______. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. ground B. mountains C. troposphere D. freezing level |
D. freezing level
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231(256). The brakes will hold the aircraft on snow-covered or icy runways with the PCL at MAX. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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232(258). Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to 45 degrees of bank and 0-2G's normal acceleration, up to stall warning system activation. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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233(259). For best cockpit cooling below 7,500 feet MSL, set RAM AIR switch to ______ Set temperature controller as required. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. HIGH B. NORM C. OFF D. either a or b |
C. OFF
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234(260). During hot weather operations, higher than normal oil temperatures may be encountered during taxi. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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235(261). During takeoff in hot weather, the aircraft will accelerate _____ than normal and ground run will be _____ because the air is less dense. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. slower, longer B. faster, shorter C. faster, longer D. slower, shorter |
A. slower, longer
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236(262). During high temperature operations, radiant heat from the engine may heat soak the IOAT sensor, raising IOAT beyond ambient temperatures. To preclude start malfunctions, consider parking the aircraft into the wind and___________________. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. opening the left and right engine cowling doors to facilitate engine and IOAT sensor cooling B. hand-spinning the propeller during the walk-around C. using the PMU-OFF start procedure D. using an air conditioning cart for start |
A. opening the left and right engine cowling doors to facilitate engine and IOAT sensor cooling
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237(263). Authorized GPS approaches must be retrievable from the aircraft database and must include "or GPS", "GPS", or "RNAV (GPS)" in the title of the procedure. This does not prevent using the GPS for situational awareness on approaches that cannot be flown GPS-only. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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238(264). Pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the appropriate controlling agency when, in their judgment, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the minimum/emergency fuel reserve. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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239(265). During night flight, each crewmember must have an operable flashlight. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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240(266). When determining the suitability of an alternate, ensure that the worst weather forecasted (except TEMPO conditions for thunderstorms and snow/rain showers) meets or exceeds: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. a ceiling of at least 1000 ft above the lowest compatible approach minimums B. a ceiling of at least 500 ft above the lowest compatible approach minimums C. a visibility of at least 2 SM or published visibility minimums, whichever is greater D. a and c only E. b and c only |
E. b and c only
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241(269). Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by Air Traffic Control. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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242(270). A person must not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while suffering from the after effects of alcohol. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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243(271). Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are always responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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244(272). Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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245(273). If cabin altitude exceeds 18,000 MSL following the unintended loss of cabin pressure, aircrew and passengers must be evaluated by a flight surgeon or other competent aviation medical authority prior to further flight. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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246(274). When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other's _______ has the right-of-way. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. right B. left C. six o'clock |
A. right
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247(275). An overtaken aircraft has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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248(276). If suitably equipped, aircrews will monitor at least one emergency frequency (GUARD) at all times as mission and operational conditions permit. Immediately report distress or ELT transmissions to ATC. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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249(277). (In the NAS) The PIC will not allow their aircraft to exceed _____ KIAS below 10,000 ft. MSL unless the MAJCOM has approved a higher speed. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 200 B. 250 C. 275 D. 300 |
B. 250
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250(278). (In the NAS) The PIC will not allow their aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 200 B. 250 C. 275 D. 300 |
A. 200
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251(279). (In the NAS) The PIC will not allow their aircraft to exceed _____ KIAS in the airspace underlying Class B airspace area or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace area, unless required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 175 B. 200 C. 250 D. 275 |
B. 200
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252(280). Air Force pilots may operate their aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL, within US airspace, in excess of 250 KIAS within restricted areas or Military Operating Areas (MOAs). (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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253(281). Authorized IFR departure methods include: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. Published Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) B. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) C. Specific ATC Departure Instructions D. Diverse Departures E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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254(282). USAF pilots are prohibited from accepting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearances. Pilots of USAF aircraft may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance.) (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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255(283). Regardless of authorized Flight Duty Period (FDP), the PIC will restrict duty time, extend crew rest periods or terminate a mission/mission leg if safety may be compromised by fatigue factors. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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256(284). Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas (i.e., cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least ______ ft. above the highest obstacle within a ______ ft. radius of the aircraft. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 1000, 3000 B. 3000, 1000 C. 1000, 2000 D. 2000, 1000 |
C. 1000, 2000
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257(285). Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than _____ ft. AGL except over open water, in special use airspace, or in sparsely populated areas. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 500 B. 1000 C. 2000 D. none of the above |
A. 500
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258(287). If equipped, anticollision lights must be on from takeoff to landing. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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259(288). Pilots will not takeoff, land, or fly an approach at an airport where thunderstorms are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear, and (or) microbursts. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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260(289). Immediately report a windshear or microburst encounter on takeoff, approach, or landing to the most appropriate agency (e.g., control tower, approach control, etc.) and, if possible, include: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. Altitude of encounter B. Loss or gain in airspeed or altitude C. Type of aircraft D. Location of occurrence E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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261(290). When flying VFR, the PIC will utilize radar advisory, monitoring or control services when practical, and should ensure flight following by any means available (i.e., FSS or C2 agency). (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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262(292). For fixed-wing aircraft filing IFR, the weather for the ETA (+/-1 hour) at destination or recovery base must be at or above: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 1000/3 B. 500/1 C. 300/2 D. the lowest compatible published landing minimums (or PWC minimums, whichever is higher) |
D. the lowest compatible published landing minimums (or PWC minimums, whichever is higher)
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263(293). The destination weather requirements for fixed-wing aircraft filing VFR: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 1500/3 B. 5000/5 C. 1000/2 D. 1200/3 |
A. 1500/3
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264(294). An ATC clearance is not authority to deviate from the instructions in AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1. A PIC may only deviate from any flight rule or ATC clearance to protect life, for safety of flight, or when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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265(295). If the generator fails in flight, opening the bus tie switch will reduce the electrical load on the main battery by shedding the generator bus. This will permit main battery operation for at least ______ min. Battery voltage and ammeter cannot be directly monitored due to loss of the associated display. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 15 B. 20 C. 60 D. 30 |
D. 30
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266(296). For off-station engine starts, 24.0 to 29.5 VDC are acceptable external power voltage limits. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
True
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267(297). A difference of up to, but not including, 1 G (< 1 G) between the accelerometers in the front and rear cockpit is acceptable. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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268(298). The FCP windscreen is designed to withstand a 4lb birdstrike at airspeeds up to ______ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 200 B. 270 C. 300 D. 316 |
B. 270
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269(299). Failure to ensure the ST READY light remains illuminated for ___ seconds following PCL movement to the Auto Start range may result in engine damage from the start being conducted in manual mode. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9 |
B. 3
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270(300). When moving the PCL forward past IDLE following an engine start, verify travel past IDLE by hearing two audible clicks as the PCL is moved forward. Improper position of the PCL short of the two audible clicks could result in inadvertent engine shutdown. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
|
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271(301). Pilots may motor the engine with the canopy open. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
|
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272(302). If requesting High Key from initial and told "Negative High Key", or no response is given, pilots should: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. breakout B. continue to the break zone C. report "Low Key" D. climb to High Key and orbit |
B. continue to the break zone
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273(303). Do not request "High Key" when: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. an aircraft is between 5 and 2 nm on a straight-in B. an aircraft is orbiting at High Key C. an aircraft is in the chase pattern D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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274(304). The maximum number of aircraft in Hacker's pattern is: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 |
B. 8
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275(305). The VOR/DME-A can be flown only when the VFR traffic pattern is open (Restricted pattern or better). (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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276(306). When operating in Hacker's pattern, do not request High Key when an aircraft on a HAPL entry: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. has been told "Report 1 Minute" B. is between "Report High Key" and "Low Key" C. has been told "Unable direct High Key, report VFR entry" D. none of the above |
B. is between "Report High Key" and "Low Key"
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277(307). When flying under Alternating Instrument status, pilots will be on final approach for a full stop landing no later than _________ after the last scheduled takeoff time for the T-6 block. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 1+00 B. 1+10 C. 1+15 D. 1+20 |
C. 1+15
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278(308). The minimum altitude when transiting between approved Non-Towered Airfields is: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 1500' AGL B. 2000' AGL C. 2500' AGL D. 3000' AGL |
D. 3000' AGL
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279(309). For IFR departures to local low-level navigation routes, if unable to maintain VFR approaching the lateral limits of the NAV route, coordinate with RAPCON for a descent to _____________ (MVA). (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 2400' MSL B. 2500' MSL C. 2600' MSL D. 2700' MSL |
D. 2700' MSL
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280(310). ELPs conducted at Lawton (LAW) or Henry Post Army Airfield (FSI) should be flown using right-hand turns. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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281(311). The use of the Formation Full-Stop and Taxi-Back (FFSTB) procedure for student training requires the permission of the Operations Supervisor (OPS SUP). (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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282(312). During all breakouts at night, climb to ___________ MSL, squawk normal, remain south of the Red River, and contact arrival on Ch7 for vectors to Bridge or Deans. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 2500' B. 3000' C. 3500' D. 4000' |
B. 3000'
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283(313). Aircraft experiencing an Over-G will be treated as an emergency. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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284(314). Planned two-ship formation around the pattern is authorized provided: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. pilots briefed this option prior to stepping B. the traffic situation permits its execution C. the approach and landing are required to complete syllabus or continuation training requirements D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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285(315). When recovering to the VOR/DME-E, pilots should plan to arrive at HOLDR with ________ lbs. of fuel greater than divert fuel to allow for holding and unplanned delays. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200 |
B. 100
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286(317). To minimize ground ops delays, once a student has demonstrated safe proficiency, IPs may perform a "split" walk around or strap into the aircraft while the student performs the walk around. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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287(318). To ensure minimum separation between aircraft while flying the departure, use ______ bank turns, and climb at ________ KIAS until established at an assigned cruise altitude, then cruise at ________ KIAS until within assigned area boundaries. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 45 deg, 160, 230 B. 30 deg, 140, 230 C. 30 deg, 160, 200 D. 45 deg, 140, 200 |
C. 30 deg, 160, 200
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288(319). The tops of the High Areas are capped at ________ MSL (19,000' MSL for Area 13) with a local altimeter setting less than 29.92. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 23,000 B. 22,000 C. 21,000 D. 20,000 |
C. 21,000
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289(322). ELP patterns to the east are prohibited at Hacker. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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290(323). For all local sorties, pilots will use _________________ as the primary forecast weather source. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. Flying Area Mission Execution Forecast (FAMEF) B. Terminal Area Forecast (TAF) C. NOAA generated Aviation Digital Data Service (ADDS) forecast D. A or B |
A. Flying Area Mission Execution Forecast (FAMEF)
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291(324). While in the night pattern, _______________ lights will remain on. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. navigation B. anti-collision strobe C. landing/taxi D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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292(325). T-6 aircraft in the Sheppard VFR pattern will squawk: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 0006 B. 0377 C. 1200 D. 4000 |
B. 0377
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293(326). The RSU will ensure _______ minute takeoff separation between aircraft entering NAV routes B and C or between the same route. ________ minute spacing will be used for different NAV routes. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 10, 5 B. 5, 3 C. 5, 1 D. 2, 1 |
C. 5, 1
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294(327). T-6 aircraft operating in Hacker's VFR pattern will squawk: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 0006 B. 0377 C. 1200 D. 4000 |
D. 4000
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295(328). When a runway change occurs at Hacker, all aircraft will depart the pattern. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
A. True
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296(330). Pilots will contact Sheppard Clearance Delivery to obtain an IFR clearance prior to takeoff for all ____________ missions. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. direct Lawton B. out-and-back and cross-country C. simultaneous or alternating instrument status D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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297(329). The standard Bingo to depart Lawton Muni / Henry Post AAF is ________ lbs. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 300 B. 400 C. 500 D. 350 |
A. 300
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298(316). The standard Bingo fuel to depart Hacker is ________ lbs. dual, ________ lbs. student solos. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 350, 450 B. 300, 400 C. 500, 600 D. 300, 300 |
D. 300, 300
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299(320). During Weather Recall all aircraft will fly _____KIAS to the VFR Pattern or ____ KIAS to an instrument approach. Recovery to RWY 17/35 will be flown at _____ KIAS. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. 200; 250; 250 B. 250; 200; 200 C. 200; 200; 180 D. 250; 250; 250 |
B. 250; 200; 200
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300(321). Low closed patterns are prohibited at Hacker. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3 80 FTW Sup 1)
A. True B. False |
B. False
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