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105 Cards in this Set

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1. Pilots shall not exchange seats during flight if only two pilots are aboard the airplane.
A. True
B. False
True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 4-2, Warning
2. Verbal coordination between applicable crewmembers will be required when:
A. Control of the airplane is transferred between pilot and copilot or when an autopilot mode or axis is engaged or disengaged.
B. Repositioning fuel panel valves and switches or when an electrical source is changed.
C. A crewmember leaves position or leaves interphone or goes on or off oxygen.
D. Any of the above.
D. Any of the above.
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 4-2
3. Normal hydraulic pressure range is ____ to ____ psi.
A.    1000; 3000
B.    2400; 3050
C.    1500; 2800
D.    1971; 2469
B.     2400; 3050
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 5-7
4. Maximum EGT during engine start is ___°C.
A.    870
B.    905
C.    725
D.    930
C.    725
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 5-3
5. EGT between ________is limited to 5 minutes duration.
EGT between _____________ − Retard the throttle to bring EGT within limits. Operation is allowed until the next landing.
If the EGT exceeds _______ − shut engine down using the ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT checklist.
A.    725°C - 870°C; 871°C - 905°C; 906°C
B.    870°C - 905°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C
C.    725°C - 870°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C
D.    The green arc
B.    870°C - 905°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 5-8
6. Normal oil pressure limits are _______ psi.
Oil pressure fluctuations of not more than ___ psi total are allowable, as long as fluctuations remain within normal limits.
A.    5 – 100; 5
B.    11 – 92; 10
C.    20 – 85; 15
D.    30 – 60; 20
B.    11 – 92; 10
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 5-3
7. Moderate to severe airplane buffeting can occur with simultaneous use of speed brakes and flaps.
This buffeting can result in damage or loss of airplane surfaces.
A.    True
B.    False
A. True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 5-13
8. Because of possible damage due to sonic airflow at certain angles of attack, do not extend flaps above ______ feet pressure altitude.
A.    20,000
B.    15,000
C.    10,000
D.    5,000
A.    20,000
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 5-13
9. The takeoff and emergency procedures portion will be reviewed either just prior to _____________________.
A.    Stepping to Aircraft
B.    Engine Start
C.    Takeoff
D.    B or C
D.    B or C
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-2
10. Based on ________________________________, the aircraft commander may elect single pilot preflight operations where one
pilot proceeds to the aircraft with the boom operator to perform the exterior safety check and begin the interior preflight checks, while the other pilot accomplishes additional duties (obtaining weather brief, etc.).
A.    Operational Need
B.     Mission Requirements
C.     Personal Preference
D.    A or B
D.    A or B
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-2
11. Every effort is made to keep the Flight Manual current. Review conferences with operating personnel and a constant review of
accident and flight test reports assure inclusion of the latest data in the manual. However, we cannot correct an error unless we know of its existence. In this regard, it is essential that you do your part. Comments, corrections, and questions regarding this manual or any phase of the Flight Manual program are welcomed. These should be submitted on AF Form 847 through channels established by Major Commands as directed by AFI 11-215 to 827 ACSG/550 ACSS, Tinker AFB, Oklahoma 73145-3019.
A.    True
B.    False
A. True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page vii
12. All crewmembers will inform the pilot when checking off and/or on interphone and will be on interphone during:
A. All ground operations (including engine starts) except when accomplishing crew duties that preclude use of interphone.
B. Formation flying, rendezvous and air refueling.
C. Flight under weather conditions and all takeoffs and landings
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 4-3
13. Because of the magnitude of interrelated aerodynamic effects, flying two airplanes in close vertical proximity is ________.
A.    Fun
B.     Safe
C.     Not Safe
D.    You guys are Dangerous
C.     Not Safe
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 5-18
14. Speed brakes are NOT used during approach and landing flare.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 6-18
15. All snow and ice accumulations of any significant degree must be removed from the airplane surfaces prior to takeoff.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 7-14
16. If the ________________ is not down and in the detent, ensure that the _____________ is installed.
Notify the aircraft commander and maintenance personnel immediately. No further preflight actions will be accomplished until maintenance personnel correct the situation and confirm that the aircraft is in preflight configuration.
A.    Flap Handle; Override Crank
B.     Crew Entry Chute Grill; Crew Entry Ladder
C.     Landing Gear Lever; nose gear ground downlock and release handle
D.    Speed Brake Lever; Flight Control Snubbers
C.     Landing Gear Lever; nose gear ground downlock and release handle
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-7, Caution
17. The pilot will ensure that no personnel are standing near ____________ when pressurizing the left hydraulic system.
Sudden closing of these doors could cause serious injury to personnel who may be in the path of the doors.
A.    Cargo Door
B.     Wheel Well Doors
C.     Main Entry Door
D.    APU Exhaust Doors
B.     Wheel Well Doors
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-15, Warning
18. The copilot ANN DIM switch on the Copilot Overhead Light Panel must be out of the DIM (full ccw) position
for the _________ to operate. Ensure that the copilot ANN DIM switch is out of the DIM (full ccw) position prior to closing the crew entry/cargo door. Once the crew entry/cargo doors are closed the DIM switch can be adjusted as required.
A.    Co-Pilot’s Annunciator Panel
B.     Side Panel Lighting
C.     Engine Fire Lights
D.    FDR
D.    FDR
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-16, Note
19. Possible causes of a _____________ are engaging the pilot’s interphone (on the yoke or the tiller), pressing the pilot’s
FD ANN TEST button, a cold hydraulic system, the low-flow capability of the auxiliary hydraulic pump, and/or the use of other hydraulically-actuated systems during the EFAS test; in this case, the EFAS self-test is _____________ indicating a system failure.
A.    Failed EFAS test; correctly
B.     Failed EFAS test; incorrectly
C.     Failed SYD test; not applicable and
D.    Failed SYD test; correctly
B.     Failed EFAS test; incorrectly
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-22, Note
20. Speed Brake Warning horn sounds when lever is pulled back more than __ degrees out of the full forward position.
A.    5
B.     6
C.     2
D.    4
C.     2
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-31
21. Proper adjustment of the _______________________ is especially critical for takeoff, approach, and landing where full
deflection of control surfaces may be required for safe operation of the airplane. To prevent inadvertent movement of the seat, ensure that the __________________________ is in the down and latched position.
A.    Seat Belts and Shoulder Harnesses; shoulder harness inertial reel
B.     Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat fore and aft adjustment lever
C.     Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat horizontal adjustment lever
D.    Pilot’s Flight Boots and Flight Suit; main zipper of the pilot’s flight suit
C.     Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat horizontal adjustment lever
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-41, Warning
22. If an APU with an operable generator is not available, and external power is not used, the start can be made on battery power
only. During this procedure, all engine __________________ gages are inoperative until a generator is on the line and 28V AC power is available.
A.    Oil Pressure and Fuel Flow
B.     N1 and N2
C.     Oil Low Pressure Lights and EGT
D.    Instrument
A.    Oil Pressure and Fuel Flow
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-62, Notes
23. Copilot checks for initial fuel flow peak of _________ pph (before ignition) and approximately ___ pph after ignition.
If fuel flow exceeds ___ pph before lightoff, a hot start can occur.
A.    100; 1000; 100
B.     300-680; 900; 680
C.     725; 870; 930
D.    Within the Green Arc
B.     300-680; 900; 680
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-63, Note
24. For temperatures ________________, failure to set the engine start switch to IGNITION may result in engine flameout
when the throttles are retarded during taxi operations.
A.    Colder than normal
B.     At 0C (32F)
C.     Below 0C (32F)
D.    B and C
D.    B and C
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-64, Note
25. Items 17. thru 26. of the Starting Engines and Before Taxi checklist may be accomplished while waiting for the
ground crew report.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-65, Note
26. Minimum taxiway width is ______ feet.
A. 147
B. 74
C. 75
D. 100
B. 74
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 5.15.1
27. Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between
the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not taxi aircraft closer than feet to any obstruction.
A.    10, 25
B.     25, 10
C.     10, 10
D.    25, 25
B.     25, 10
Ref: AFI 11-218, Paragraphs 1.22.2., 1.22.3
28. When taxi clearance is doubtful, use ________________wing walkers.
A.    Three
B.     Two
C.     One or more
D.    Really short
C.     One or more
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 5.16.2
29. Make every effort to minimize the potential for engine FOD. Crews should:
A.    Carefully review airfield layout paying particular attention to taxi routes, turn requirements, and areas for potential FOD.
B. Minimize power settings during all taxi operations.
C. Where possible, avoid taxi operations that position an engine over an unprepared or un-swept surface. If unavoidable, leave the engine in idle (to the maximum extent possible) until the engine is over an improved surface.
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 5.16.3 and 5.16.3.1 - 5.16.3.3
30.  What is the minimum taxi spacing during formation:
A.    Safe interval
B.     150 feet
C.     75 feet
D.    69 feet
A.    Safe interval
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 18.6.3
31.  During night taxi operations, marshallers will have ______________ in each hand.
A. A Whistle
B. A Wand
C. An Illuminated Wand
D. Gloves
C. An Illuminated Wand
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 5.16
32. Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO
clearance). PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land or continue a touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has received a LAHSO clearance.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, Paragraph 5.9.1.4.1
33. When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?
A. At the pilot's discretion.
B. From sunset to sunrise.
C. From just prior to engine start until engine shutdown.
D. At all times when electrical power is available to operate anti-collision lights.
C. From just prior to engine start until engine shutdown.
Ref: AFI 11-218, Paragraph 1.4.1
34. You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?
A. Keep moving in the direction intended. You have the right-of-way and the other aircraft will move.
B. Alter course to the left to remain well clear, or stop.
C. Alter the course to the right to remain well clear, or stop.
D. Execute a 180 degree turn and return to parking.
C. Alter the course to the right to remain well clear, or stop.
Ref: AFI 11-218, Paragraph 1.20.1.1
35. If the PIC determines that taxi obstacle clearance is questionable and wing walkers are not available, __________.
A. continue to follow marshaling instructions as the marshaller is trained not taxi aircraft into obstacles.
B. if at a Navy/Marine airfield, continue to taxi since taxi obstacle clearances at these fields are waived.
C. deplane one or more crewmembers to maintain obstruction clearance and provide marshalling using AFI 11-218 signals
D. all of the above.
C. deplane one or more crewmembers to maintain obstruction clearance and provide marshalling using AFI 11-218 signals
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 5.16
36. In those situations where runway/taxi conditions or performance considerations are such that safety could be compromised,
A.    A static takeoff should be made.
B.     A rolling or static/rolling takeoff should be made
C.     Extreme care should be given to calculating takeoff data
D.    B with consideration to C
A.    A static takeoff should be made.
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-75, Caution
37. For a takeoff, approach or landing with fuel in any main tank below ______ pounds, open all tank to engine manifold valves.
Open the line valve for all takeoffs when gross weight is greater than _______ pounds. Ensure line valve is closed for all takeoffs when gross weight is at or below _______ pounds.
A.    Full; 322,500; 5,900
B.     5,000; 180,000; 8,800
C.     10,500; 200,000; 200,000
D.    10,500; 180,000; 235,000
C.     10,500; 200,000; 200,000
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-75, Step 2 and Warning
38. Exercise caution during throttle application to prevent asymmetrical thrust. Engine thrust should be stabilized at a
minimum of ________ prior to advancing throttles to the takeoff thrust setting.
A.    20% N1
B.     40% N1
C.     50% N1
D.    Ground Idle
B.     40% N1
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-75, Caution
39. Uncommanded stabilizer trim input is a safety-of-flight issue. Terminate the mission (and in flight, land as soon as
practicable) any time uncommanded stabilizer trim input is encountered.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-75, Warning
40. If any engine does not reach the charted N1 setting ____________________________, the engine is not providing the
required rated thrust, and the takeoff shall be aborted.
A.    Upon initial takeoff power setting
B.     Prior to 90 knots
C.     Before S1
D.    Between 40 and 80 knots
D.    Between 40 and 80 knots
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-77, Warning
41. Illumination of the amber EGT caution light near or after S1 indicates that EGT may be approaching the takeoff limit.
This indication is for crew awareness and does not indicate an engine operating limit has been exceeded. Continue normal operation and monitor EGT to prevent exceeding the takeoff EGT limit.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-77, Note
42. When _____ throttle is advanced near OPEN, the warning horn sounds if the speed brake lever is more than 2 degrees out of
the full forward position, if the flap lever is at or near the 0, 40, or 50 degree detent, or the leading edge flaps are not fully extended.
A.    No. 1
B.     No. 2
C.     No. 3
D.    No. 4
C.     No. 3
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-77
43. Takeoff flare begins at _______ and ends when reaching climbout speed at approximately ________.
A.    Rotate, 35 feet
B.     Unstick, 35 feet
C.     Unstick, 50 feet
D.    Rotate, 50 feet
B.     Unstick, 35 feet
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-82
44. If stabilizer trim has moved from setting selected during the TAXI checklist, _________.
A.    Abort the mission
B.     Reset to original setting
C.     Call maintenance
D.    Immediately place the stabilizer trim switch to the CUT-OFF position and manually trim throughout departure.
A.    Abort the mission
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-75, Step 1
45. When experiencing a loss shear on takeoff, anticipate a loss in indicated airspeed and altitude. This situation is potentially
dangerous if the airplane is close to the ground. If this loss is expected to be ___ knots or more, the takeoff shall be delayed, if possible, until more favorable conditions exist.
A.    10
B.     15
C.     20
D.    25
B.     15
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 7-7
46. When the airplane is definitely airborne and a positive rate of climb is established (vertical velocity pointer above zero),
retract the landing gear.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-84
47. Follow Dash One procedures for the climb mode selected until reaching _______________________________ or obstacle
clearance height, whichever is higher.
A.    Flap retraction height
B.     Departure end of runway
C.     2000 feet above the runway
D.    Level off altitude
C.     2000 feet above the runway
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-84
48. Do not climb at a speed more than the recommended three engine climbout speed.
A.    True
B.     False
B.     False
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-84, Warning
49. Maneuvering at speeds below three engine climbout speed plus ___ knots is not recommended. A bank angle of 30 degrees at
climbout speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability by as much as ____fpm.
A.    10, 200
B.     25, 300
C.     35, 300
D.    50, 400
D.    50, 400
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-84, Warning
50. If airplane is to remain in closed traffic after takeoff, thrust will be adjusted to climb out at the same speed to be used on the
downwind leg, and a rate of climb of approximately _____ feet per minute.
A.    500
B.     1000
C.     1500
D.    2500
B.     1000
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-84
51. If an engine failure occurs during climbout, continue to follow the command bars. With inoperative command bars, if an
engine failure occurs during or immediately after take-off, _________________________________________; if an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climbout speed, do not reduce airspeed but continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of engine failure.
A.    Increase thrust to accelerate to enroute climb speed
B.     Climb at Vco + 10
C.     Climb at recommended three-engine climbout speed
D.    Land immediately
C.     Climb at recommended three-engine climbout speed
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-85, Warning
52. Flap retraction in a turn is not recommended. Retracting flaps from 20 degrees to 0 reduces available lateral (outboard
ailerons) control and increases initial buffet speed considerably and rapidly as the trailing edge and leading edge flaps retract.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-87
53. Leave ignition on if engine anti-ice is on or will be turned on for the climb. If anti-ice is not required, turn ignition off after
_______________________ and after passing at least _________ above the runway or obstacle clearance height, whichever is higher.
A.    Establishing climb thrust
B.     2000 feet
C.     Both A and B
D.    Calling for After Takeoff/Climb checklist; 2000 feet
C.     Both A and B
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-88, Step 4
54. After setting climb thrust, no further throttle adjustment should be necessary during climb if the power management control
(PMC) system is NOT operating.
A.    True
B.     False
B.     False
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-87
55. A departure alternate is required if weather is below landing minimums for the lowest suitable approach (at departure
aerodrome). To qualify as a departure alternate, the airfield must meet be:
A.    Within 30 minutes flying time, the existing weather is equal to or better than the published approach minimums and forecast to remain so until 1 hour after takeoff.
B.     Within one hour flying time, better than published mins for the lowest suitable approach (to include a circling approach) for until end AAR time.
C.     Within two hours flying time, the existing weather is at least 500-1 above the lowest compatible published approach minimums, but not less than 600-2 (precision) or 800-2 (non-precision) and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after ETA at the alternate.
D.    A or C
D.    A or C
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, paragraphs 6.19.2.1 and 6.19.2.2
56. Pilots must use extreme care in those cases when the speed brakes are required for deceleration. Ascertain that the receiver
_________ prior to speed brake actuation.
A.    will be established on track
B.     is in the astern position
C.     is in the contact position
D.    will not overrun the tanker
D.    will not overrun the tanker
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-90D, Warning
57. For airplanes equipped with standard speed booms: If airspeed must be increased above _____ KIAS/.85 Mach, the pilot will
notify the boom operator to stow the boom.
A.    325
B.     330
C.     335
D.    340
C.     335
T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-90D, Caution
58. During any boom air refueling which requires the indicated airspeed to be less than 220 KIAS, __________ for dry contacts, to preclude fuel siphoning from the forward body tank, causing unexpected CG changes.
A.    place the A/R manifold to engine manifold valve to CLOSE
B.     minimize the number of requests
C.     keep the center wing to forward body tank valve switches closed
D.    keep the A/R line valve closed
D.    keep the A/R line valve closed
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-90R, Caution
59. When a receiver is in or near the contact position, the pilot __________________ at the first indication of autopilot
malfunction, including an inadvertent disconnect, if accompanied by out-of-trim control forces.
A.    will switch the autopilot attitude source from VG to INU-2
B.     should initiate a breakaway
C.     should start a gentle climb
D.    will initiate a breakaway
D.    will initiate a breakaway
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-90F, Warning
60. For all _____________ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within ½ NM; this includes datalink.
A.    USAF
B.     USN
C.     USAF&USN
D.    foreign aircraft
D.    foreign aircraft
Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 5 Annex ZE-4-1, Warning
61. The crew must closely monitor the airplane CG during reverse air refueling. The aft CG limit can be quickly exceeded in
airplanes operating at ________ gross weights.
A.    Light
B.     Heavy
C.     Medium
D.    Maximum
A.    Light
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 3-44C, Warning
62. Following an inadvertent brute force disconnect, air refueling __________.
A.    may be continued if the tanker and receiver air refueling systems function normally
B.     should be terminated
C.     will be terminated
D.    will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity
D.    will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 3-79, Caution
63.  No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a receiver is in contact or about to make contact
and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR when possible.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 2, Chapter 5, para 503b
64.  Air refueling for the receiver that required a controlled tension disconnect will be terminated except during fuel
emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 3-79, Caution
65. The position approximately 50 ft behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes with zero
rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called:
A.    Astern
B.     Pre-Contact
C.     Stabilized
D.    Either B or C
A.    Astern
Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 1, Annex 1A, page 1A-4
66. Tanker responsibilities during a Rendezvous Delta is (are) to:
A.    Be at the base AAR altitude.
B.     Enter the refueling holding orbit from any direction.
C.     Attempt to arrive at least 15 min before the RVCT and, normally, establish a left-hand holding pattern using the RVCP as an anchor point.
D.    All of the above
D.    All of the above
Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 2, Annex 1D, para 102D©
67. When planning to conduct a Rendezvous G, a common track length equivalent to ____ min flying time should be planned to
allow for tanker descent to RV FL/altitude/height, visual acquisition and timing corrections.
A.    5
B.     10
C.     15
D.    20
C.     15
Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 2, Annex 1G, para 102G(b)
68. Unless otherwise directed, an altimeter setting of _____ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or
when over water and operating in accordance with ICAO procedures. When not operating on standard pressure settings, tanker crews _____ to include the altimeter setting in the RV Initial Call.
A.    QFE, are
B.     29.92, are
C.     29.92, are not required
D.    QNH, are not required
B.     29.92, are
Ref: ATP-56(B), Part 2, Chapter 1, para 102a
69. The tanker will note the receiver’s distance when ________ through the turn back to the ARCP. This is the best time to
determine if an overrun condition exists and the best time for visual sighting. Except for overtaking point parallel rendezvous, the distance to the receiver should be approximately 1/3 of the turn range when _______ through the turn.
A.    1/3rd , halfway
B.     Halfway, 1/3rd
C.     Halfway, halfway
D.    Beginning, beginning
C.     Halfway, halfway
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, page 2-90C
70. Tankers will only refuel those aircraft listed in ATP-56(B) or specifically authorized by HQ AMC/A3V. Receiver aircraft not
previously certified for refueling operations (includes foreign variants of US-produced aircraft) must be certified for technical and operational compatibility in accordance with USAF regulations prior to refueling.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 15.11.1
71. Tanker pilots will notify _______________ when any axis of the autopilot is not used.
A.    Boom operator
B.     Other pilot(s) on board tanker
C.     Receiver pilots
D.    ATC
C.     Receiver pilots
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 15.2.3
72. After experiencing two-way communications failure while conducting aerial refueling, tanker aircraft will discontinue AAR
and continue by:
A.    Squawk code 7600 for at least two (2) minutes prior to exiting track or anchor,
B.     Exit the track or anchor at the highest altitude specified in the AAR clearance,
C.     Proceed in accordance with “Procedures for Two-Way Radio Failure IFR-VFR” set forth in the DoD Flight Information Handbook
D.    All of the above
D.    All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Para 15.3
73. Tanker aircrew will advise ATC of tanker and receiver end aerial refueling altitude requests at least five (5) minutes prior to
AREX.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Ref: JO 7610.4N, Para 10-1-6.10
74. Unless dictated otherwise by ATP-56(B) (Part 5, Annex ZE) or by mission requirements, tankers will establish the applicable
contact air refueling airspeed before the receiver reaches ______. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than _____ knots, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.
A.    1NM, 5
B.     1NM, 10
C.     Astern, 5
D.    Astern, 10
A.    1NM, 5
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-90D, Warning
75. Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle, 60nm long, 25nm wide with left turns. While established in
and awaiting their receivers, tanker aircraft:
A.    Are automatically cleared down to the IP, if needed for rendezvous.
B.     Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired.
C.     Can change direction of turn, if they wish.
D.    Must notify ATC if shortening leg lengths.
B.     Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired.
Ref: JO 7610.4N, Paragraph 10-2-5, Note
76. When checking the North Atlantic Track message (via either NOTAM page or IFM package), it is important to note Track
Message Identifier (TMI) and include this in their clearance read back. Normally, this equates to______________ in GMT.
A.    The calendar date
B.     The day of the week
C.     The Julian Date
D.    The co-pilots IQ
C.     The Julian Date
Ref: JCS NOTAM Web Page – NAT tab
77. While operating in Oceanic airspace, crews are reminded that clearance may differ from flight plan. In this case, always:
A.    Fly filed flight plan
B.     Fly your clearance
C.     Query the controller, if necessary
D.    B and C
D.    B and C
Ref: JCS NOTAM Page – NAT tab
78. Sometime prior to reaching the coastal fix of an oceanic flight plan, the crew will:
A.    Plot the oceanic portion on an appropriate chart
B.     Perform a gross error check using available NAVAIDS
C.     Annotate the position and time on the chart
D.    All of the above
D.    All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol 3, Para 11.5.1
79. While flying the oceanic route, crews will maintain situational awareness to include positional awareness and accurate fuel
readings. In order to assist with this, crews will:
A.    When approaching each waypoint on a Category I route, recheck coordinates for the next waypoints.
B.     Approximately 10 minutes after passing each oceanic waypoint, record and plot the aircraft position and time on the chart, and ensure compliance with courses and ETA tolerances (3 mins).
C.     If a revised clearance is received, record and plot the new route of flight on the chart.
D.    All of the above
D.    All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol 3, Para 11.5.1
80. Routing and altitudes(s) of aircraft established on an approved ALTRV shall not be changed except in the interest of safety of
flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO 7610.4N.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: JO 7610.4N, Para 3-3-8
81. If operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyond the AVANA time, rescheduling the ALTRV,
A.    Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule.
B.     Is at the discretion of the mission commander
C.     Can be in less than the time specified above, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF.
D.    A or C
D.    A or C
Ref: JO 7610.4N, Para 3-4-4
82.  The pilot should transmit an initial AFN logon:
A.    If departing from an airport located within an FIR that provides data link services:
- On the ground, no earlier than 45 minutes prior to ETD, using the logon address for the FIR that the departure airport is located within; or
- Airborne at any time after passing 10 000ft, using the logon address for the FIR in which the aircraft is currently operating, with the exception that an aircraft approaching an FIR boundary should logon to the next unit, rather than the current unit.
B.     Between 15 and 45 minutes providing prior to the FIR boundary estimate for an FIR providing data link services. If the aircraft is departing from an airport in proximity to the FIR boundary, this logon should not be sent until the aircraft has passed 10,000ft.
C.     When instructed by ATC for situations such as an unsuccessful data link transfer.
D.    Any of the above.
D.    Any of the above.
Ref: FAN-1/A Operations Manual, Para 4.3.4.1
83. ATS systems compare the registration number of the aircraft contained in Field 18 (Other Information) of the ICAO flight
plan with the registration contained in the AFN logon. The operator is responsible for ensuring that the correct aircraft registration is filed in Field 18 of the ICAO flight plan.
A.    True
B.    False
A.    True
Ref: FANS-1/A Operations Manual, Para 4.1.2
84. Pilots should request their oceanic clearance on VHF, HF or data link within ____ minutes of Oceanic entry point ETA.
A.    15
B.     30
C.     40
D.    60
C.     40
Ref: North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, Paras 5.1.2, 5.1.3
85. Experience has shown that many of the track-keeping errors in the NAT MNPS Airspace occur as a result of crews
programming the navigation system(s) with incorrect waypoint data. These are referred to as Waypoint Insertion Errors. They frequently originate from:
A.    Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, against the ATC cleared route;
B.     Failure to load waypoint information carefully; or
C.     Failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems.
D.    Any combination of the above.
D.    Any combination of the above.
Ref: North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, Para 5.7.3
86. Steep idle thrust approaches, or all approach angles and rates of descent requiring large changes in pitch attitude during the
landing flare, will be avoided.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-98, Warning
87. For approach purposes, the KC-135R is considered a Category __ airplane. In those cases where the speed for a circling
approach exceeds 166 knots, Category __ minima will be applied.
A.    C, D
B.     D, E
C.     D, D
D.    C, C
B.     D, E
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-94, Note
88. For all FMS approaches, at 2 NM prior to the final approach fix ensure system is in the __________ mode (as indicated by
the blinking _____________ CDU annunciation), or discontinue the approach.
A.    Terminal, <<terminal>>
B.     Enroute, <<enroute>>
C.     Approach, <<approach>>
D.    Message <<message>>
C.     Approach, <<approach>>
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-94, Note
89. If multiple instrument approach patterns are flown in the clean configuration, maintain a minimum of ___________ KIAS
until crossing the initial approach fix or turning base leg if receiving radar vectors.
A.    VREF
B.     VREF + 25
C.     VREF + 50
D.    VREF +70
D.    VREF +70
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-94, Note
90. Unless fuel consumption is a factor, hold at ________ for all gross weights up to 170,000 pounds. At gross weights above
170,000 pounds, use _______________________ knots as holding speed.
A.    220 KIAS, best endurance plus 10
B.     200 KIAS, 220 KIAS
C.     VREF +50, VREF +25
D.    220 KIAS, best range plus 10
A.    220 KIAS, best endurance plus 10
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-91
91. A speed brake lever position of less than ___ degrees is not recommended, due to a tendency to over-control at these settings.
A.    20
B.     30
C.     40
D.    50
C.     40
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-91, Note
92. Occupants of the pilot and copilot seats may remove the shoulder harness during cruise flight, but shall fasten them prior to
_________________________________________.
A.    Air refueling rendezvous
B.     Descent for landing
C.     A and B
D.    None of the above
C.     A and B
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-92, Note
93. As a minimum, the pilot flying the approach will brief the crew on the planned descent rate, DH/MDA/VDP, missed approach
procedures and assign crew responsibilities for backing up the pilot flying the airplane _____________________________________.
A.    During the full stop landing
B.     If windshear is encountered along the final approach course
C.     While accomplishing a touch and go landing
D.    If an unplanned go-around occurs
D.    If an unplanned go-around occurs
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-92, Item 2
94. During the descent checklist, an accurate check of the electric and hydraulic systems consists of each pilot checking their
brakes while monitoring the hydraulic gages for appropriate pressure changes.
A.    True
B.     False
B.     False
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-93, Item 9
95. One final check of the boom and/or MPRS hoses will be accomplished during the descent checklist to ensure proper stowage.
The pilot and the boom operator will coordinate this check over interphone.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-93, Items 14 and 15
96. When landing with less than full flaps, avoid excessive flare with resultant floating in an attempt for a smooth landing. Make
a normal flare and touchdown at _____________________________.
A.    Threshold speed minus 10 knots
B.     Threshold speed minus 5 knots
C.     Vapp for the applicable flap setting
D.    VREF
A.    Threshold speed minus 10 knots
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-99, Warning
97. Application of _______ brakes during landing ground roll may override the _______ antiskid brake system and lock the
airplane brakes resulting in possible blown tires or reverted rubber hydroplaning.
A.    Pilot, Co-Pilot
B.     Pilot, Pilot
C.     Co-Pilot, Pilot
D.    Co-Pilot, Co-Pilot
C.     Co-Pilot, Pilot
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-99, Caution
98. Touchdown with a crab angle and with wings level may result in a rapid rising of the _______ wing and may cause the
__________ engine nacelles to drag on the runway.
A.    Upwind, Upwind
B.     Downwind, Downwind
C.     Downwind, Upwind
D.    Upwind, Downwind
D.    Upwind, Downwind
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-99, Caution
99. Do not allow the bank angle at touchdown (4 to 6 degrees pitch attitude) to exceed ______ degrees due to possibility of
dragging an outboard engine nacelle.
A.    4
B.     6
C.     8
D.    9
C.     8
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-99, Caution
100. During landing ground roll, do not allow airplane to bank beyond ____ degrees due to possibility of dragging an engine
nacelle.
A.    4
B.     6
C.     8
D.    9
A.    4
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-99, Caution
101.    Prior to initiating turns, visually check for other traffic. The first turn should not be initiated until
______________________________________________________.
A.    Reaching minimum traffic pattern (maneuver speed)
B.     A safe altitude
C.     Passing the end of the runway
D.    All of the above
D.    All of the above
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-100, Warning
102. N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speeds will be recomputed when:
(1) Gross weight changes >/= ________ pounds
(2) Temperature changes >/= ___ (5F)
(3) Pressure altitude changes >/= ___ feet
(4) Airplane configuration changes
(5) Changes in wind conditions require an adjustment to the charted speeds

A.    5,000; 5C; 500 feet
B.     10,000; 3C; 250 feet
C.     10,000; 3C; 500 feet
D.    5,000; 2C; 500 feet
C.     10,000; 3C; 500 feet
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-104, Note
103.    Remove crab _______________, maintaining a slight wing low attitude into the wind, as necessary to counteract
drift.
A.    Over the threshold
B.     Prior to touchdown
C.     When pulling power
D.    Prior to the threshold
B.     Prior to touchdown
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-99
104.    During a go-around, the minimum airspeed for retracting flaps to ___ degrees is flaps 50 Vth speed.
A.    50
B.     40
C.     30
D.    20
C.     30
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-106, Step D
105.    Engine acceleration from ground idle to touch and go target thrust may require up to 20 seconds. Attempting a
go-around after the engines have decelerated to ground idle results in an extended ground run. Consider aborting the takeoff if the engines go to ground idle.
A.    True
B.     False
A.    True
Ref: T.O. 1C-135(K)R(II)-1, Page 2-107, Warning