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357 Cards in this Set
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1. Prior to opening or closing the main entry door
a. one of the pilots’ sliding windows will be opened approximately two inches. b. the No. 1 pin will be installed in both the navigator and radar navigator seats. c. the pressure bulkhead door will be closed and locked. d. ensure the outside operating handle is flush with the skin of the aircraft. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-19 |
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2. When using the CRU-73/A type oxygen regulator
a. the test position will not be used when preflighting the oxygen mask. b. do not select NORMAL position when supply shutoff lever is positioned ON. c. 100% oxygen is automatically supplied when smoke and fumes are present. d. do not force regulator diluter lever to NORMAL when the supply shutoff lever is positioned OFF. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-27 |
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3. The Instructor Navigator, designated to combat a pressurized compartment fire, is using the portable fire extinguisher. Crewmembers using an aircraft regulator will go on 100% OXYGEN immediately with the emergency toggle switch in the _________ position.
a. NORMAL b. EMERGENCY c. 30M d. 25M |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-36 |
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4. Halon 1211 has a _____________ level of toxicity.
a. weak b. high c. hazardous d. low |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-36 |
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5. On decomposition, Halon 1211 has a characteristic ____________.
a. sharp, acrid odor b. pungent odor c. toxic odor d. inert odor |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-36 |
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6. Removing an escape hatch without first disconnecting the _________ will fire the catapult safety pin pull initiator and leave the ejection seat catapult in an armed condition.
a. arming lanyard b. hatch release handle c. rotary latch hook d. arming link |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-42 |
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7. The battery will be depleted if the ______________ circuit breakers remain IN for an extended period without aircraft or external power.
a. airbrake b. ground egress c. interphone d. fuel pump |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-43 |
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8. The crew bunk is not stressed for high G loads and should ______________.
a. be stowed during ejection. b. not be occupied during crash landing or ditching. c. not be occupied during combat. d. removed before flight. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-46 |
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9. Utilizing a shock absorbing device and/or extra seat cushions in an ejection seat
a. creates a definite possibility of serious injury during ejection. b. provides comfort to the occupant during all hard landings. c. decreases the possibility of injury during flight in turbulence. d. is permitted on long flights when parachute wear is mandatory. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-52 |
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10. In the event either or both arming lever(s) have been rotated, the seat can be considered completely safe only after the
a. safety pin-pull pin has been reinserted into the arming initiator. b. No. 1 safety pins have been inserted, arming lever(s) stowed and armrests lowered (in this sequence). c. No. 1 safety pins have been inserted with the armrests lowered. d. arming lever(s) have been stowed, No. 1 safety pins inserted, and the armrests lowered (in this sequence). |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-58 |
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11. The catapult safety pin-pull pin cannot be reinserted into the ______________ initiator inflight.
a. catapult b. safety c. arming d. pin-pull |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-58 |
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12. Installation of the flight safety pins with the arming levers rotated to the UP position will
a. prevent the seat from firing if either trigger is squeezed. b. not prevent the seat from firing if either trigger is squeezed. c. deactivate the firing trigger. d. completely safe the seat. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-58 |
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13. If the arming lever is rotated on a stowed armrest, the
a. arming initiator will not fire. b. arming initiator will fire. c. seat will be in an armed condition. d. seat will fire the hatch and eject. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-59 |
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14. A full actuation in one direction should be followed by at least a 30-second rest. If another full actuation of that positioning motor is required after the 30-second delay,
a _______ rest must follow before another actuation of any degree. a. 20 seconds b. 1 minute c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-60 |
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15. To assure complete release of the integrated harness for manual bailout,
a. lock the inertia reel assembly before pulling the survival kit release handle. b. pull the integrated harness release handle prior to actuating the survival kit release. c. lock the inertia reel before actuating the integrated harness release handle. d. maintain a constant pressure on the release handle until all fittings are clear. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-61 |
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16. Should a downward ejection hatch be inadvertently dropped, the ejection seat at that station will be _______________.
a. fired b. armed and can be fired c. deactivated d. safe |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-69 |
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17. Pulling the survival kit release handle with the kit not installed in the seat will cause the lid to open. In an emergency, this could cause a ___________ delay in escaping from the aircraft.
a. serious b. prolong c. critical d. fatal |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-86 |
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18. Pilots will be alert to inadvertent life raft inflation and be prepared to _______________ the life raft.
a. immediately puncture b. deflate c. stow d. install |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-87 |
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19. Severe injury may be incurred if ejection is performed with
a. helmet chin strap fastened too tightly. b. any integrated harness attachment fitting disconnected. c. the landing gear extended when airspeed is above 250 KIAS. d. the landing gear retracted when airspeed is above 270 KIAS. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-87 |
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20. On the ground with the aircraft in a level attitude, the mid body tank is considered empty when the tank gauge is at or less than __________ pounds.
a. 300 b. 400 c. 1000 d. 1200 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-124 |
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21. During ground operations, do not operate the _____ tank boost pumps when these tanks are empty.
a. body or external b. body or outboard c. main or external d. main or body |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-124 |
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22. With the aircraft in a level attitude, the aft body tank is considered empty when the tank gauge reading is at or less than ______ pounds.
a. 400 b. 800 c. 1000 d. 1200 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-124 |
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23. During flight, the ______ tanks fuel control switches will be turned OFF when the gauge reads empty or the fuel flow indicator light indicates no flow condition.
a. mains and body b. auxiliary c. mains and external d. external and outboard |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-127 |
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24. Failure to accomplish prescribed fuel panel settings with the fuel level in main tanks 1 or 4 in the green band area or when any main tank is down to 5,000 pounds can
a. cause a lateral fuel imbalance that will make aircraft control difficult. b. provide a potential for engine flameout during a critical phase of flight. c. cause severe damage to the aircraft fuel supply system including fuel cells. d. provide a potential for catastrophic engine damage due to fuel starvation. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-130 |
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25. Do not use SIOP/Positive Control Launch fuel sequence for other than SIOP operations because _________________ has not been considered in the fuel sequence.
a. maximum CG b. abnormal CG c. aircraft structural life d. empty pylons |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-134 |
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26. During ____________ fuel panel operations, the master refuel switch will not be used by itself to control auxiliary tank fuel transfer operations.
a. high level b. low level or traffic pattern c. air refueling d. initial buffet |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-197 |
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27. The main refuel valve emergency control lever should be in the _______ position before the main refuel valve is actuated electrically.
a. CENTER b. OPEN c. CLOSED d. ON |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: -None- Page: 1-200 |
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28. If the master refuel switch is turned OFF before the slipway doors CLOSED-AND-LOCKED light illuminates,
a. the READY-FOR-CONTACT light will remain illuminated. b. damage to the doors will occur with possible hydraulic failure. c. the doors will move to the full open position. d. the doors will remain in an unlocked or intermediate position. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-202 |
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29. To prevent pump overheating, the ground service pumps are limited to _________ minutes continuous operation.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-300 |
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30. Maximum time that rudder/elevator hydraulic system can be operated without ground blower in operation is __________ minutes.
a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 10 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-301 |
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31. During retraction or extension of the landing gear by one system, do not actuate the other system while the gear is in motion since this procedure may ____________________.
a. interrupt electrical signals b. render any or all gear inoperable c. overtax hydraulic system d. rupture a hydraulic line |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-317 |
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32. Do not attempt to free a bomb door control (four-way) valve by _______ as this procedure may damage the bomb door system.
a. opening the bomb doors b. reducing hydraulic pressure c. pulling the affected circuit breaker d. using the Emergency Bomb Release System |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-349 |
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33. The _________ Switch should not be used with the Bombing System Switch in AUTO and the OAS in the bomb mode.
a. pilot's Missile Select b. Master Bomb Control c. FWD-RACK Select d. pilot's Bomb Door |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-352 |
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34. When the control column has been reengaged after ejection sequence has been initiated, the column will ______________ for subsequent ejection.
a. be manually stowed b. automatically stow c. disconnect d. disengage |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-356 |
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35. Whenever either control column is disengaged and subsequently reengaged in flight, ___________ will be confirmed.
a. disconnect lever position b. autopilot disengagement c. positive engagement d. control column position |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-356 |
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36. The autopilot will be used with caution during _____________.
a. instrument approaches b. low level c. air refueling d. any critical phase of flight |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-373 |
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37. During the preflight of the autopilot checks, do not allow the stabilizer trim to drive more than ___________ unit(s) at a time when operating on standby pumps.
a. 1/2 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-385 |
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38. The pilot should be prepared to immediately _____________ in the event of a hardover indication following engagement of the autopilot.
a. turn off the autopilot b. disengage the autopilot c. command ejection d. roll wings level |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-387 |
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39. The B-52 autopilot hold function does not have a G-limiting capability. Therefore, the pilots will engage the autopilot altitude hold on when the aircraft is ______________ .
a. in a dive b. in straight and level flight c. in a turn d. in a climb |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: 1-387 |
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40. If a constant large displacement of the control column indicates failure of the autopilot automatic trim system, ________ after autopilot disengagement and retrim.
a. maintain forward yoke pressure b. lower raised airbrakes c. maintain column position manually d. perform unusual attitude recovery |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-389 |
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41. Explosive danger in the air bleed system no longer exists above ____________.
a. 23,000 feet b. 25,000 feet c. 30,000 feet d. 40,000 feet |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-393 |
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42. Periodically during flight each crewmembers should check ducts, outlets, electrical wiring, and electronic equipment in his immediate area to see they are
a. free from combustible materials. b. operating in the correct manner. c. not producing noises or vibrations. d. correctly installed and stay that way. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-394 |
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43. Do not run the air conditioning pack (ACP) with the
a. air bleed select switch in EMERG RH INBD. b. heat exchanger ram air duct plugs in place. c. cabin pressure release switch in OPEN. d. engine manifold value switch OPEN. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-411 |
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44. For the cabin to be pressurized, the emergency cabin pressure release handle will be set positively to ______.
a. open b. intermediate c. closed d. inactivate |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-411 |
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45. The EVS window washing lines and pump will remain full of water until _____________.
a. RAM is selected b. above 12,000 feet c. cabin is pressurized d. cabin pressure is dumped |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-411 |
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46. If ice is inadvertently allowed to build up on the engine inlet, _____ should be reduced (if flight conditions permit) before anti-ice is activated to prevent or reduce engine damage.
a. altitude b. throttle setting c. airspeed d. OAT |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-418 |
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47. Indiscriminate or prolonged use of engine and nacelle anti-icing may cause cracking of ____________.
a. inlet guide vanes b. scoops c. nose domes d. nacelle ducts |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-418 |
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48. To prevent damage to the heated windows, operate on NORMAL _____ minutes before turning switch to HIGH position.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-419 |
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49. If it is determined that the altitude computer (CPU-66) has failed or is delivering erroneous data, place the MODE C enabling switch to the OUT position and
a. advise the ARTC center. b. continue the mission. c. IDENT the ARTC center. d. land as soon as practical. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-428 |
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50. If the altimeter's internal vibrator is inoperative, the 100 foot pointer may momentarily hang up. Pilots should be especially watchful for this failure when their minimum approach altitude lies within the ________ foot part of the scale.
a. 0 to 300 b. 300 to 500 c. 500 to 700 d. 800 to 1000 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-429 |
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51. When the altimeter is operating ____________ , the appropriate altimeter correction card for the current aircraft configuration will be used to fly corrected altitude for traffic separation.
a. in RESET mode b. with failure warning light illuminated c. with servos engaged d. in standby mode |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-429 |
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52. The ___________________ OFF flag does not indicate all failures of this system.
a. indicated airspeed b. Mach indicator c. AHRS d. radar altimeter |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-433 |
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53. When centering the bank steering bar, the initial bank angle of _____ (+0°/-5°) will be indicated.
a. 20° b. 30° c. 35° d. 45° |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-448 |
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54. It is possible that a malfunction of the attitude indicator portion of the attitude-director indicator might be determined only by cross-checking it with the
a. standby gyro and engine instruments. b. accelerometer and other remaining flight instruments. c. turn and slip indicator and other remaining flight instruments. d. bank steering bar, pitch steering bar, and other remaining flight instruments. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-449 |
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55. Periodic manual comparison of the ADIs with the standby attitude indicator is required when
a. both attitude select switches are in the normal position. b. both attitude select switches are in the alternate position. c. the attitude comparator warning system is operative. d. either attitude select switch is in the alternate position. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-453 |
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56. While intercepting the localizer course for ILS approach, the flight director will command up to a ________ angle of intercept without regard to the location of the outer marker, and/or glide slope intercept point.
a. 25° b. 30° c. 45° d. 60° |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-456 |
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57. If the range-indicator warning flag comes into view during a TACAN approach or the TACAN TEST light comes on, ________________________________.
a. change TACAN channel b. confirm TACAN reliability with ARTCC c. abandon the approach and change to a reliable instrument approach system d. initiate a go-around |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-464 |
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58. The GPS receiver is not certified for instrument procedures. Do not accomplish a ________________ penetration and/or approach with the navigation mode selector in the GPS position.
a. ILS b. TACAN c. PAR d. LOC |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-465 |
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59. The ________ MRT and NRT values are not for inflight use. They are OAS derived and are not accurate.
a. IU TACAN b. round dial gauge c. 1B-52H-1CL-1 d. inflight guide |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: 1-480B |
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60. Except ______ , all crewmembers must be on interphone at all times.
a. when cleared by an evaluator or an instructor b. when specifically cleared by the aircraft commander c. during operations in the local terminal area d. during normal high altitude cruise conditions |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-504 |
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61. VHF AM transmissions from _____ to ______ MHz using the ARC-210 radio will be avoided during peacetime operations due to possible jamming of navigation signals.
a. 100.00 - 199.00 b. 121.50 - 175.00 c. 108.00 - 118.00 d. 107.50 - 120.50 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-524 |
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62. Keep personnel clear of the [KY-100] antenna during operation. Do not key the transmitter during ________________ or when oxygen is being serviced. Personnel injury or aircraft damage could result.
a. takeoff b. fueling operations c. air refueling d. high level cruise |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-560 |
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63. Unless ground transmission restrictions are met for the AN/ARC-190(V) liaison radio, do not
a. utilize the receiver function. b. turn the radio on. c. initiate a transmit self-test. d. apply power to the dummy load. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-583 |
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64. Hazardous RF voltages can exist between the aircraft skin and ground when transmissions are being made on the
a. liaison radio. b. UHF radio. c. SATCOM equipment. d. AN/APX-64 Interphone system. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-584 |
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65. Ground transmissions of the AN/ARC-190 (V) liaison radio are prohibited on aircraft __________________________ of unloaded nuclear weapons or warheads, or aircraft with external weapons with nuclear warheads installed, or Nuclear weapons loaded in an aircraft (transmitting or adjacent) with its bomb bay doors open.
a. within 200 feet b. within 500 feet c. unless within 500 feet d. within visual range |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-584 |
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66. The Miniature Receiver Terminal (MRT) will only be operated with ____________ available to the MRT receiver.
a. aircraft power b. aircraft cooling air c. external cooling air d. hydraulic pressure |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-634 |
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67. During operation of the EVS on the ground, precautions should be taken to eliminate stationary sources of high intensity illumination from within the field of view prior to continued operation of ________.
a. the FLIR in the operate mode. b. either sensor in the operate mode. c. the FLIR in the standby mode. d. the STV in the operate mode. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-689 |
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68. Do not install the external glare filter (green) over the green CRT screen as ____________ would be required.
a. too high a gain control setting b. brighter settings c. reduced lighting d. profile 6 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-692 |
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69. If STV mirror breakage is suspected, the radar navigator will place the STV turret air switch and the mode switch on the STV control panel to
a. OFF and OFF respectively. b. STBY and OFF unless required for mission completion. c. OFF and STBY until the monitor cools down. d. STBY until the crew has egressed the aircraft. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-693 |
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70. If the EVS monitor overheat light cannot be extinguished by providing increased cooling air within _________, the monitor should be turned off.
a. 5 minutes after initial illumination b. 120 seconds after the second illumination c. 3 minutes after the initial illumination d. 120 seconds after the initial illumination |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-702 |
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71. The EVS ___________ should only be used while the aircraft is on the ground while stopped or during a slow speed maneuver such as taxiing, etc. since disorientation may result.
a. narrow field of view switch b. vector stabilization switch c. crab stabilization switch d. manual steering knob |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-703 |
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72. Do not operate windshield wipers ______________.
a. on the ground b. in flight c. on dry glass d. on high speed |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-729 |
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73. The B-1 hot cup will not be operated without
a. first informing the pilot. b. being cleaned. c. all generators operating. d. liquid or semi-solid food. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-735 |
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74. The Crew Bunk is not stressed for crash landing or ditching. Therefore, it should not be occupied during
a. taxi or take-off. b. take-off or air refueling. c. air refueling or landing. d. take-off or landing. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 1-736 |
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75. The upper deck sliding hatch will be opened and locked prior to _________.
a. taxiing b. transition c. starting engines d. cruise |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-8 |
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76. When wearing the chemical defense ensemble, including the plastic boots and overcape, aircrew members will _______entering the aircraft due to possible static electricity buildup.
a. remove the ensemble before b. don the ensemble after c. ground themselves on a grounding cable before d. not touch any grounding device after |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-11 |
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77. While accomplishing the EW Officer Not Flying Checklist, Before Exterior Inspection, ensure all systems are
a. in the standby mode prior to the application of power to ensure a proper warm-up sequence. b. in the warm-up mode after the application of aircraft power to ensure proper operation. c. deactivated after the application of aircraft power to prevent dispensing of expendables. d. completely deactivated to prevent inadvertent jamming with the application of ground power. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-12 |
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78. During preflight of your ejection seat, you discover a maintenance safety pin has been inadvertently left installed. You should ________.
a. ascertain the status of the seat prior to removal of the pin. b. immediately remove the pin and report it in the AFTO Form 781. c. not proceed further with your preflight. d. not move the seat until the pin is removed. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-16 |
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79. When inspecting the ejection seat during preflight, carefully check to see no streamer
a. is missing from the storage box after counting the required number of pins. b. has been torn from a maintenance safety pin, thus inadvertently leaving the pin installed. c. is left in the maintenance EGRESS vehicle. d. is longer than 2 feet but less than 4 feet long. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-16 |
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80. Failure to attach the parachute arming lanyard anchor to the seat will
a. not affect the automatic operation of the parachute. b. cause the parachute to open above the preset altitude. c. result in failure to separate from the seat. d. necessitate manual operation of the parachute after ejection. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-17 |
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81. When preflighting the survival kit, care must be taken to ensure the survival kit attachment straps are
a. as loose as possible. b. disconnected and loose. c. properly threaded through the safety belt. d. properly attached to the seat. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-17 |
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82. If signs of hypoxia occur at high altitudes, ensure the oxygen system _________ are properly connected.
a. masks b. converters c. Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection equipment d. quick disconnect fittings |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-18 |
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83. Regarding the AERP system, ________________________.
a. failure to properly configure the system may result in injury or aircrew member while operating in a contaminated environment b. aircrew member failure to hold breath during changeover from blower air to the aircraft oxygen system may result in inhalation of toxic chemicals c. if signs of hypoxia occur at high altitude, ensure the oxygen system quick disconnect(QD) fitting are properly connected. d. all of the above |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-18 |
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84. Crewmembers using upward ejection seats will ensure the [AERP] blower hose is _________________ before hooking it up to the PIHM manifold.
a. over the seat armrest b. properly connected to the aircraft oxygen system c. under the seat armrest d. properly routed over the aircraft oxygen hose |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-19 |
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85. Prior to hookup of the oxygen mask hose with the aircraft oxygen systems, the crewmember must ensure
a. the oxygen regulator pressure gauge indicates approximately 300 PSI. b. the oxygen supply hose is under the ejection seat armrest. c. oxygen can be drawn through the mask during the diluter valve check. d. the interphone cord is attached to the oxygen supply hose. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-19 |
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86. To prevent inadvertent movement of the wing flaps after the desired position is obtained, the wing flap lever will be left in the _____ position at all times when full flap extension is desired.
a. UP b. 100% c. extended d. DN |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-34 |
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87. Before pushing engine ignition circuit breakers in, assure that ground crewmembers are clear of __________________.
a. bomb doors b. turbine destruct area c. engine exhaust area d. engine starter exhaust area |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-37 |
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88. During engine start, oil pressure will be _____ PSI minimum within thirty seconds.
a. 42 b. 40 c. 37 d. 35 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-42 |
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89. If external power is lost during an engine start and engines ______ are below approximately 35% RPM, immediately retard the throttle to CLOSED and discontinue the start until electrical power is restored.
a. 3, 4, 5 or 6 b. 1, 2, 7 or 8 c. 1, 3, 5 or 7 d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 or 7 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-42 |
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90. During engine start, whenever combustion fails to occur wait at least _____ for fuel drainage before attempting a restart.
a. 30 secs b. 2 mins c. 10 mins d. 15 secs |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-45 |
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91. Periodic ground engine run-ups can minimize ice buildup. Such run-ups should approximate 10 to 20 seconds duration at a maximum of _____ minute intervals.
a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-47 |
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92. Ensure the parachute arming lanyard is
a. hooked to the zero delay. b. fastened to the ripcord T-handle. c. not entangled in the parachute harness. d. properly threaded through the safety belt. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-50 |
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93. To prevent the safety belt from inflicting facial injuries during ejection,
a. make certain the helmet visor is down and locked prior to bailout. b. ensure the survival kit attachment straps are not routed through loops on the safety belt. c. tighten the parachute-survival kit attachment straps as tight as possible. d. disconnect the survival kit attachment straps by pulling up on the kit release handle. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-50 |
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94. Maximum ground turning speeds with full rudder travel is _____ knots with the steering ratio selector lever in TAXI.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 27 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-53 |
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95. Steering Ratio in TAXI Position: When taxiing at gross weights above 450,000 pounds, taxi speed should be limited to _____________ knots for turns requiring less than 20 degrees of forward gear steering.
a. 27 b. 15 c. 10 d. 5 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-53 |
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96. Maximum ground turning speeds with full rudder travel is ______ knots with the steering ratio selector lever in TAKEOFF LAND.
a. 30 b. 27 c. 25 d. 10 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-53 |
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97. Additional protection such as flight line crew helmets is required in areas greater than _____________.
a. 60 dBs b. 140 dBs c. 90 dBs d. 170 dBs |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-54 |
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98. During cartridge starts, the starter exhaust is 850 degrees F. Therefore, remain clear of _____ the cartridge starter exhaust directly below the nacelles.
a. the area 25 feet to the front of b. a 4-foot radius area around c. an area to the sides of the starter turbines near d. the area 25 feet to the sides of |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-55 |
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99. The engine inlet danger area is ______ feet to the front of the engines.
a. 35 b. 45 c. 50 d. 75 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-55 |
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100. The starter turbine disintegration area exists
a. around the cartridge starter exhaust directly below nacelles of all engines. b. 35 feet in front of each engine. c. to the side and aft of the starter turbine area. d. 200 feet to the side and behind each engine. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-55 |
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The exhaust blast danger area limit is_______ feet to the rear of all engines without a blast deflector.
a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 365 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-55 |
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If wheel shudder of ________ magnitude occurs during taxi operations, stop immediately.
a. extreme b. severe c. significant d. moderate |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-57 |
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Do not attempt to use either steering or crosswind crab when aircraft is not rolling as ______ loads would be applied to tires and landing gear.
a. maximum b. medium c. severe d. hazardous |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-57 |
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Any time during critical phases of flight, the pilot not flying will ______ his flight instruments and _____ them against the other pilot's instruments.
a. observe/check b. monitor/cross-check c. cross-check/set d. set/cross-check |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-59 |
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If tire failure is suspected on takeoff before decision speed is reached, _____________.
a. the takeoff should be continued b. do not raise the landing gear c. the takeoff should be discontinued d. do not apply brakes |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-63 |
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Failure to set the stabilizer correctly for takeoff could result in
__________________________. a. An accelerated stall if set too nose-up b. Takeoff abort c. Longer that predicted takeoff ground run if set too nose-down. d. A and C. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-66 |
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The warning horn sounds and the master caution lights come on as the throttles are advanced beyond approximately _________ and the flaps are not 100% down.
a. 88% RPM b. 82% RPM c. 35 degrees from closed d. 45 degrees from closed |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-72 |
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Extended operation of the engines at full thrust reduces ________________.
a. elevator service life b. wing trailing edge service life c. flap motor service life d. wing structural integrity |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-72 |
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Exceeding ____________ and/or charted takeoff______ values can cause structural damage to the engine causing rapid engine deterioration.
a. MRT, EPR b. EPR, EGT c. TRT, EPR d. TRT, RPM |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-72 |
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If any gear fails to indicate up and locked, to prevent system damage do not recycle the landing gear system prior to _______________________.
a. pulling appropriate circuit breakers b. initiating abnormal procedures c. confirming normal hydraulic pressure d. turning off emergency switches |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-78 |
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If flaps fail to start moving within _______ seconds, discontinue flap operation.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-78 |
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_________ is not to be used as a means of setting climb thrust.
a. NRT b. EPR c. RPM d. EGT |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-79 |
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Except __________, air refueling operations will not be conducted when communications capability is lost between tanker and receiver.
a. with pre-briefing on the ground b. for ORI/BUY NONE flights c. during an emergency fuel situation d. for annual check requirements |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-87 |
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During air refueling, approaching ______________ at a relatively high velocity can cause structural damage as a result of an inability to disconnect due to binding action of the nozzle.
a. the 5 degree point of right or left boom deflection b. the 8 degree point of right or left boom deflection c. the boom limits d. any point in the boom envelope |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-92 |
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When the boom operator is operating in manual operation the ______ are deactivated.
a. director lights b. limit switches c. IFR release buttons d. autopilot |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-92 |
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Receiver(s) required to accelerate and climb on the refueling heading will maneuver either left or right a minimum of ______NM of the tanker(s)/ remaining receiver(s) prior to accelerating and climbing.
a. 1/2 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-93 |
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In the event weather conditions may affect the accomplishment of the rendezvous, a capable ______ will be specifically designated to maintain radar weather watch.
a. pilot b. tanker c. radar navigator d. receiver |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-99 |
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If the receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time after overrunning, the receiver shall _______ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker.
a. establish a positive rate of climb to the top of the refueling block b. maneuver either left or right of track and maintain a minimum of 1 NM separation c. establish a positive rate of descent to 1,000 feet below the air refueling altitude d. terminate air refueling operations and contact ARTC for further clearance |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-105 |
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To help ensure safe separation of airplanes during descent when the range to the tanker is not known, descent will
a. be delayed until radar contact is established. b. not be unnecessarily delayed. c. be delayed until radio contact is established. d. not be started until visual contact is made. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-105 |
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A ______ attitude must be assumed by the receiver to maintain level flight as it is flown into the downwash of a tanker.
a. level b. positive c. nose low d. nose high |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-105 |
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Any time it becomes apparent that closure overrunning will occur, ______________.
a. a breakaway will be called b. descend to the bottom of the altitude block c. maintain visual separation d. start a 1000 fpm descent |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-105 |
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The best and most positive means in obtaining vertical and horizontal separation is to _____________.
a. extend airbrakes 6 b. lower airbrakes c. lower the receiver landing gear d. reduce throttles to idle |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-105 |
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When close interval stream operations are being conducted, do not use _______ to control timing.
a. orbit delays b. airspeed and double drifts c. differential airspeed d. All of the above |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-106 |
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The receiver ________ and attain a zero rate of closure when ready for contact.
a. will stabilize b. will stabilize in the precontact position c. reduce power d. a breakaway |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-115 |
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Low pressure areas created by an overrunning receiver flying under the tanker will affect static ports. The tanker autopilot may initiate _______.
a. a climb b. a bank into the lower plane c. a descent into the lower plane d. a breakaway |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-115 |
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To preclude damage to the tanker boom ice shield and/or receiver slipway doors, do not make ________ correction when the receiver director lights indicate UP and AFT.
a. DOWN b. LEFT c. RIGHT d. UP |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-116 |
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If the receiver director lights fail to illuminate when contact is established, the ______ will inform the boom operator if refueling operations will continue.
a. receiver pilot b. boom operator c. tanker pilot d. receiver co-pilot |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-116 |
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Extreme azimuth disconnects should be avoided at all times. This may cause damage to _________.
a. the boom b. slipway doors c. the nozzle d. the slipway doors and slipway lights |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-116 |
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Any contacts during loss of any air refueling lighting will be at the discretion of the ____________.
a. boom operator b. receiver pilot c. tanker pilot d. receiver co-pilot |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-116 |
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If a breakaway is initiated by any airplane, the airplane flying in the observation position will __________.
a. initiate a breakaway b. climb away from the formation c. accompany the tanker d. descend with the receiver |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-117 |
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During air refueling, when either a planned or inadvertent disconnect occurs, remain stabilized in the contact position until the
a. boom operator visually confirms a disconnect. b. disconnect light comes on. c. receiver pilot not flying the aircraft visually confirms a disconnect. d. a or c |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-127 |
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Should the receiver pilot initiate a disconnect while in air refueling mode, the IFR button should be held in the depressed position until _____________.
a. visually clear b. well clear of the tanker c. co-pilot confirms a disconnect d. stabilize in pre-contact position |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-127 |
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During air refueling, a possibility exists that fuel may enter the vertical fin air scoop and form a combustible mixture in the
a. forward equipment compartments. b. aft equipment compartments. c. crew compartment. d. forward wheel well. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-128 |
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During air refueling, place ECM transmitters in standby 15 minutes prior to initial contact. This procedure is applicable to
a. only the aft transmitters. b. all contacts wet or dry. c. only unpressurized aircraft. d. wet contacts only. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-128 |
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Prior to refueling, if the cockpit is not pressurized,
a. all unnecessary electrical equipment should be turned off. b. return to base, do not air refuel. c. delay using FLIR until visual contact with the tanker is made. d. do not use FLIR, land as soon as practicable. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-130 |
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To prevent damage to the air refueling slipway doors, do not exceed _______ when the slipway doors are open.
a. 250 KIAS b. 275 KIAS c. 290 KIAS d. 300 KIAS |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-131 |
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To eliminate potential fire hazards, the OAS should not be operated in RADIATE during air refueling if any of the following conditions exists.
a. radar operating in full scan b. radar antenna tilt is a negative value c. radar is on d. a radar malfunction is occurring |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-131 |
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During air refueling contact, if _____________ is noted in the slipway, an immediate disconnect should be made.
a. no fuel spillage b. excessive fuel spillage c. light turbulence d. light fuel spillage |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-132 |
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The receiver pilot must be prepared to initiate a disconnect or breakaway before the receiver gets into a position _________________.
a. that is low b. that is high c. where nozzle binding could occur d. which is out-of-trim |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-132 |
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If FUEL IN MANIFOLD Light fails to go out after _______ minutes of scavenge operation, turn the FUEL SCAVENGE SYSTEM switch OFF and annotate in AFTO 781A.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-134 |
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When notified that a KC-10 boom flight control system failure has occurred,
a. do not make rapid control movements. b. perform an immediate breakaway maneuver. c. manual boom latching must be used. d. do not initiate a disconnect unless directed by the boom operator. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-135 |
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During KC-10 refueling operations, do not transmit on ________ when in contact with or when in close proximity to the air refueling boom.
a. UHF radio b. secure radio c. HF radio d. interphone |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-135 |
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During low level the primary duty of the pilot not flying the aircraft is to
a. visually monitor for other aircraft. b. closely monitor his flight instruments. c. visually monitor the terrain clearance of the aircraft. d. ensure route corridor limits are maintained. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-161 |
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Care should be taken to retrim between each ______ increment of airbrake operation.
a. unit b. two unit c. three unit d. four unit |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-168 |
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The ____________ is not certified for instrument procedures.
a. ILS receiver b. GPS receiver c. TACAN receiver d. OAS Radar |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-169 |
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The master refuel switch will not be used by itself to control auxiliary tank fuel transfer operations during ______________.
a. air refueling operations b. traffic pattern operations c. low level or traffic pattern fuel panel operations d. instrument approaches |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-175 |
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With any antiskid indicator lights not on, when the gear are down and locked and the test switch in FLT, ________ during landing may cause skidding and/ or a blown tire on the wheel corresponding to the unlighted indicator.
a. large steering corrections b. slight braking c. changing airbrake positions d. hard braking |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-176 |
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With ILS APP mode selected, the loss, or reduction in strength, of the glide slope signal will normally cause the glide slope warning flag to appear. Simultaneously with the warning flag appearance, the glide slope indicator and pitch steering bar may
a. remain at or slowly move toward a center position. b. provide erroneous information to the AHRS. c. still be followed to safely execute the approach. d. disappear from view in the ADI. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-179 |
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All altitudes referred to concerning airborne radar approaches except _________ are absolute altitudes above the terrain.
a. minimum descent altitudes b. missed approach altitudes c. penetration altitudes d. low key altitudes |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-190 |
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If the airplane becomes unstable on final approach due to wind shear and the approach profile cannot be promptly reestablished,
a. a change to another approach should be accomplished. b. select airbrake position 6 to improve aircraft control. c. increase airspeed 20 knots to counter wind shear. d. a go around should be immediately accomplished. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-194 |
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If the wheel brakes are applied immediately before and held during touchdown when the main gear is turned more than ______ degrees the aircraft will land with the wheels locked.
a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-195 |
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The drag chute should be considered only an aid to braking and ___________.
a. a means of reducing tire and brake wear b. should not be installed c. used only above 270,000 pounds d. a means of reducing landing distance |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-197 |
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During prevailing surface winds of ______ or greater, do not turn more than 90 degrees away from the wind while the drag chute is deployed.
a. 10 knots b. 15 knots c. 20 knots d. 25 knots |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-197 |
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Jettison the chute at the lowest taxi speed that will keep the chute inflated to minimize ___________.
a. disconnect link damage b. blow off distance c. damage to aircraft structure d. chute drag time |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-209 |
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If ______________ were carried, the flight crew must visually check the bomb bay prior to opening bomb doors.
a. internal weapons b. external weapons c. live weapons d. BDU-48s |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-215 |
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The OAS, radar, and all EVS subsystems must be OFF to prevent power surge damage when
a. switching from an external power source to aircraft power. b. flying in areas of static discharge or St. Elmo's Fire. c. switching from aircraft power to external power or if aircraft power is interrupted. d. flying through unavoidable thunderstorms. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-216 |
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If an engine has been operating at above 85% rpm for a period exceeding one minute after landing, allow the engine to idle __________ before shutting down.
a. at least 30 seconds b. at least 1 minute c. at least 5 minutes d. at least 15 minutes |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-216 |
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Before entering the bomb bay, with power applied to the aircraft,
a. ensure the bomb door actuator struts are connected. b. ensure the bomb door actuator struts are disconnected. c. remove the flare door streamer. d. ensure the downlocks are not installed. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 2-225 |
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If engine fire occurs after closing the _______ , they must be reopened to supply bleed air for the engine motoring in a nacelle in which engines have been shut down.
a. throttles b. fire shut off switches c. air bleed manifold valves d. main fuel tank switches |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-12 |
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In case of an engine fire on the ground, HALON may be directed into the _______________.
a. engine air inlet or tailpipe b. starter turbine area c. air bleed manifold d. EGT sensor areas |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-12 |
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If engine fire occurs after starter dropout, it will be necessary to turn the starter switch to ___________ in order to motor the engine.
a. CARTRIDGE and back to START b. OFF and back to START c. OFF d. FLIGHT and back to PNEUMATIC |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-12 |
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A ground loop should not be attempted at heavy gross weights since structural failure may occur at speeds above ______ knots.
a. 15 b. 20 c. 30 d. 70 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-15 |
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Crash landing or ditching: Immediately after takeoff, if unable to sustain controlled flight, ______ is imperative and offers the best chance for survival.
a. secured equipment and a locked shoulder harness b. lowering the landing gear (up for ditching) c. immediate bailout of all possible crewmembers d. jettisoning of the upward escape hatches |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-18 |
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During runaway or unscheduled stabilizer trim, caution should be exercised not to ______ airbrakes during a nose up trim condition.
a. retract b. disengage c. extend d. adjust |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-20 |
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Under takeoff power conditions with low temperature selection, fog or vapor resembling smoke can occur. Reporting this vapor as smoke or fire
a. at a critical point of takeoff could create a hazard. b. at a critical point of takeoff will not create a hazard. c. is required in order to safely abort the takeoff. d. will result in an uncontrolled egress after takeoff. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-23 |
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During smoke and fumes elimination, do not depressurize the aircraft until all crewmembers are on oxygen and
a. all required electrical equipment is off. b. the controlling ARTCC center is notified. c. the cabin altitude is 42,000 feet or below. d. the aircraft is 42,000 feet or below. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-24 |
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While at FL250, you discover smoke emerging from the 'wine cellar' section of the crew compartment. Suspecting an electrical short, you connect to a portable oxygen bottle and proceed to investigate. Giving consideration to the aircraft altitude, the oxygen bottle regulator setting should be set to
a. 30M. b. 25M. c. EMERG. d. NORMAL. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-25 |
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The supply in the portable oxygen bottle will last a minimum of 4 minutes depending on
a. diluter lever setting, cabin altitude, and physical activity. b. regulator setting, cabin altitude, and physical activity. c. diluter lever setting, aircraft altitude, and physical activity. d. regulator setting and aircraft oxygen supply pressure. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-25 |
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When fighting a fire with the fire extinguisher, Halon 1211, the supply of extinguisher agent is depleted in approximately ________ seconds of continuous use.
a. 12-15 b. 2-3 c. 22 d. 4 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-25 |
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In the event of fire in the crew compartment,
a. the lower deck, then, extra crewmembers should egress first b. the air conditioning master switch must be placed to EMERG RH INBD. c. the revised order of bailout would be N, EXTRA CREWMEMBERS, RN, G, EW, CP, and P. d. the jettisoning of an escape hatch will dissipate smoke and flames. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-26 |
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In the event of fire in the forward wheel well area, the jettisoning of an escape hatch will
a. result in a rapid dissipation of smoke in the crew compartment. b. result in a rapid dissipation of smoke in the crew compartment. c. cause smoke and flames to be drawn into the crew compartment. d. be delayed in an attempt to control the fire. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-26 |
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If bird ingestion is known or suspected,
a. shut down the engine unless its operation is necessary to maintain safe flight. b. retard the throttle to idle. Do not shut down the engine unless it is vibrating seriously. c. monitor the EGT, fuel flow, and oil pressure for the remainder of the flight. d. shut down both engines in the pod unless needed for safe flight. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-27 |
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Vibration from an internal engine failure can be severe. If such vibration continues in a nacelle after shutdown of both engines,
a. avoid flight over populated areas. b. increase IAS and/or altitude. c. increase windmill RPM. d. pull the hydraulic shutoff valve CB. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-27 |
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Except on engine(s) shutdown for fire or fuel leak, when windmilling above 25% RPM, have fuel available to the firewall fuel shutoff valve, push the engine fire shutoff switch in, and advance the throttle to IDLE for three minutes out of every hour to
a. provide fuel for lubrication of engine bearings. b. prevent overheating the fuel control unit. c. prevent overheating the engine driven oil pressure pump. d. provide cooling for the fuel shutoff valve. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-28 |
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During an emergency engine shutdown, ______ will occur regardless of throttle position if the firewall fuel shutoff valve circuit breaker is out and the starter switch is placed to START.
a. engine restart b. overheating of the fuel control unit c. continuous ignition d. illumination of engine fire warning light |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-29 |
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When fuel is available to an engine, even with some failures of the fuel control unit, restart could occur if the starter switch is placed to START and the throttle is moved out of the _____ position.
a. IDLE b. START c. OPEN d. CLOSED |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-29 |
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After engine flameout, with RPM above 65%, the pilots may obtain an engine relight by
a. placing the starter selector to PNEUMATIC/GROUND START. b. placing the throttle to CUTOFF for 30 seconds, then moving it to IDLE. c. checking fuel flow and placing starter selector to FLIGHT START. d. retarding the throttle to IDLE and placing the starter switch to START. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-35 |
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The use of engine starters for ______ is restricted to emergencies only.
a. air starts b. anti-ice operation c. ground starts d. cartridge starts |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-36 |
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Air start _______ should be monitored closely and regulated by manipulation of the throttle as necessary until the desired power setting is restored.
a. RPM and fuel flow b. RPM and EGT c. EGT and fuel flow d. EPR and fuel flow |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-36 |
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Nonzero lateral trim resulting from inoperative engines
a. must be compensated for by fuel manipulation. b. must be countered by pulling the outboard spoiler circuit breaker on the side opposite the inoperative engine. c. must not be compensated for by fuel manipulation. d. should be zeroed if possible to increase range. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-38 |
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Inflight loss of the nose radome will cause an extreme increase in noise level, accompanied by
a. primary structural failure. b. loss of all pitot static instruments. c. a severe pitchup. d. possible buffeting. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-39 |
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Inflight loss of the nose radome will cause _______ during all flight conditions.
a. airspeed to fluctuate 2 or 3 knots b. complete loss of airspeed and MACH indications c. a minor increase in noise level and moderate buffeting d. primary structural failure |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-39 |
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Due to variations in engines, aircraft and RPM lag due to engine inertia, the actual airspeed could be _____ when using engine RPM to maintain target airspeed for letdown during an airspeed indicator failure.
a. considerably higher b. unstable c. unstable d. considerably lower |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-41 |
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(Fuel flow for airspeed failure) Below ______ feet, NRT may accelerate the aircraft past structural speed limits.
a. 30,000 b. 25,000 c. 23,000 d. 20,000 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-43 |
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UNSCHEDULED AUTOPILOT INPUTS. Pilots will disconnect the autopilot immediately if unscheduled autopilot inputs are observed. Autopilot disengagement by means of the autopilot release button will be confirmed by
a. checking the rudder engage switch is disengaged. b. placing the autopilot power switch to the OFF position. c. placing the ROLL and PITCH ENGAGE switches to OFF. d. checking the altitude hold switch OFF. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-44 |
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If an unscheduled autopilot input places the aircraft in or near an unusual position, structural loads will be less if the controls are _____________during autopilot disengagement.
a. manually returned to neutral position b. manually held in their displaced positions c. rapidly moved to level flight d. released to move freely |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-44 |
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After experiencing a bird strike, static discharge or a lightning strike maintain _____________ or less for the remainder of the flight.
a. 250 KIAS or Mach .70 b. 270 KIAS or Mach .75 c. 250 KIAS or Mach .77 d. 390 KIAS or Mach .84 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-45 |
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Known bird strikes, static discharges, and lightning strikes should be considered to have caused ____________ .
a. some damage b. at least secondary structural damage c. at least primary structural damage d. little or no damage |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-45 |
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When any controllability check is made due to doubtful control characteristics of the aircraft, the speed should not be reduced below
a. the estimated minimum touchdown speed for the aircraft configuration. b. 150 KIAS or best flare speed plus 10, whichever is higher. c. minimum directional control speed. d. best flare speed plus 10. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-46 |
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If an explosive decompression occurs at 44,000 feet, descend immediately to (at least) ______ feet or below.
a. 10,000 b. 25,000 c. 38,000 d. 42,000 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-49 |
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During an emergency descent, severe ______ will be encountered at any altitude if nose down stabilizer trim is not started prior to raising airbrakes.
a. buffeting b. spoiler blowdown c. pitchup d. pitchdown |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-50 |
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Pilots should ____________ at the first indication of a serious aircraft emergency that could result in bailout/ejection.
a. remove flight suit b. remove NVGs c. remove helmet with NVGs d. not remove NVGs |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-52 |
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During low level in mountainous terrain, the aircraft encounters severe turbulence. The pilot claims difficulty in maintaining control of the aircraft and alerts the crew over interphone to prepare to abandon the aircraft. Immediately following this alarm you should
a. make sure your safety belt is fastened, seat safety pins are removed, and emergency equipment is ready. b. fasten your helmet and parachute, and immediately eject from the aircraft. c. delay your ejection until the copilot confirms the difficulty in maintaining control. d. tighten your parachute straps, check seat pins are removed, and emergency equipment is ready. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-52 |
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When the aircraft is below ________ feet above the terrain or if aircraft control is lost at any altitude, crewmembers occupying ejection seats should eject immediately upon receiving the bailout command by either interphone or abandon signal.
a. 2,000 b. 3,000 c. 10,000 d. 14,000 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-52 |
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Immediately following a bailout alarm, crewmembers not occupying ejection seats should
a. ensure safety belt is fastened and emergency equipment is in readiness. b. prior to depressurization, proceed to the lower deck in the order briefed. c. ascertain that emergency equipment is immediately available. d. check equipment and proceed to the lower deck after depressurization. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-52 |
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Ejection of other crewmembers will not be delayed while pilots _________.
a. call command post b. prepare for ejection c. remove night vision goggles d. confirm ejection parameters |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-52 |
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Manually pull the ripcord T-handle
a. as soon as stable in the chute to lessen impact shock. b. immediately following seat separation. c. for all ejection seats not equipped with a man-seat separator. d. for all ejections below 14,000 feet. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-54 |
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If possible, ejection should be started at or above ___________ feet above the terrain, as chances for a successful ejection decrease rapidly below this altitude.
a. 250 b. 800 c. 1,000 d. 2,000 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-54 |
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If the parachute automatic opening device has obviously failed, pull the _______________ to open the parachute.
a. survival kit release handle b. parachute arming lanyard c. ripcord T-handle d. integrated harness release handle |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-54 |
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To insure survival during extremely low altitude ejections,
a. disconnect the zero delay lanyard and use the T-handle to bypass the parachute time delay. b. pull the parachute arming knob prior to ejection. c. the automatic features of the equipment must be depended on. d. eject at the lowest practical airspeed below 120 KIAS. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-56 |
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Maximum airspeed for manual bailout from the navigator's escape hatch is _____ KIAS gear up.
a. 250 b. 275 c. 285 d. 300 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-57 |
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Maximum airspeed for bailout from the navigator's escape hatch is _____ KIAS for gear down.
a. 285 b. 275 c. 250 d. 230 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-57 |
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To avoid personal injury or loss of life, ____________ prior to ejection.
a. do not pull the bailout bottle release b. do not manually open the safety belt c. position seat full down and aft d. pull the survival kit release handle |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-57 |
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If the control column fails to latch automatically in the stowed position during ejection, it can be latched by
a. rotating the arming lever. b. manually repositioning the control column disconnect lever to the up and stowed position. c. fully depressing the control column disconnect lever. d. squeezing either of the pilot/copilot's ejection trigger. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-65 |
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During ejection bailout, if the hatch does not jettison,
a. pull the catapult initiator pin-pull release handle. b. attempt to manually release the hatch. c. stow and again rotate the arming levers. d. proceed with non-ejection (manual) bailout. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-65 |
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If the seat fails to eject, proceed with non-ejection manual bailout as follows:
a. Safe the seat, release the survival kit, and open the safety belt after unlocking the inertia reel. b. Pull the survival kit release handle, lock the inertia reel, then open the seat belt. c. Disconnect the arming lanyard, lock the inertia reel, and pull the integrated harness release handle. d. Pull the survival kit release handle, lock the inertia reel, then pull the integrated harness release handle. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-66 |
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You have ejected, are stabilized in the parachute, and the survival kit does not deploy. You should
a. pull the survival kit arming knob. b. release the left side of the survival kit. c. pull the survival kit release handle. d. manually detach the survival kit after impact. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-66 |
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The first step immediately after ejection is to
a. release the arming levers. b. kick free of the seat. c. attempt to open lap belt. d. pull the integrated harness release handle. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-66 |
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If during upward ejection the trigger(s) fail to fire the catapult and the crewmember has ascertained his escape hatch has jettisoned, his next action would be to unsqueeze the trigger and then _______________________.
a. withdraw the pin from the catapult initiator. b. withdraw the arming initiator safety pin. c. proceed with manual bailout. d. reposition for ejection and rotate arming levers. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-66 |
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After ejection, if the integrated harness fails to release, pull the integrated harness release handle then
a. kick free of the seat with positive action. b. immediately deploy the survival kit. c. rely on automatic features of the parachute. d. pull the bailout bottle release knob. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-66 |
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Do not pull the survival kit release handle while in the aircraft with
a. the kit installed in the seat. b. the kit not installed in the seat. c. the inertia reel unlocked. d. the inertia reel locked. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-66 |
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For a manual bailout, detachment of the survival kit is necessary because the bulk of the kit would hamper or prevent egress. Be sure to pull the release handle
a. on the left side of the seat. b. while sitting on the kit. c. with the kit suspended. d. after rolling forward and downward. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-68 |
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Manual bailout from the downward escape hatches with the body in an extended position
a. greatly reduces parachute opening shock. b. is the recommended alternate bailout procedure. c. would result in bodily injuries even at moderate airspeeds. d. is the recommended procedure when bailing out with the survival kit attached. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-71 |
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During hatch jettison, unrestrained crewmembers
a. will preposition themselves aft of the navigator's seat prior to depressurization to expedite bailout. b. will remain in position until all lower deck ejection seats have fired. c. should experience no difficulty if in bailout position prior to depressurization. d. are subject to injury due to air currents caused by depressurization. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-71 |
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Bailout from the navigator's open escape hatch will not be attempted
a. head first. b. from the side of the hatch. c. by rolling forward and downward. d. with arms and legs close to your body. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-71 |
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If overrunning does occur, under no conditions should _______ until positive separation has been attained.
a. climb be made b. turn either right or left be made c. descent be made d. radio call be made |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-72 |
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The use of ________ is hazardous because the resultant pitch up cannot be controlled with stick alone at refueling altitudes and speeds.
a. airbrakes position 4 b. excessive power c. more than airbrakes position 2 d. aft trim |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-72 |
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________ disconnect will only be accomplished as a last resort.
a. Idle power and speed brakes b. Controlled tension c. Receiver pilot initiated d. Manual |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-74 |
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Placing the toggle latching switch in _________ position before the boom nozzle is in the bottom of the air refueling receptacle during manual boom operations, it is possible for the boom nozzle to damage or break the extended toggles, preventing any further air refueling.
a. hold b. release c. on d. normal |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-74 |
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During reverse flow air refueling, transfer from main wing tanks can expose the fuel control units and engines to damage due to _________ which might be generated in the manifold.
a. overpressure b. surge pressures c. cavitation d. zero fuel pressure |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-77 |
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Actuation of the landing gear emergency switch for more than ten seconds without gear movement may result in complete loss of the ________ body hydraulic system fluid.
a. right b. left c. primary d. opposite |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-83 |
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Due to the hazards involved, installation of the downlocks in flight is
a. recommended. b. not recommended. c. prohibited. d. not necessary. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-84 |
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If main landing gear malfunction is associated with loss of hydraulic fluid, anticipate loss of _________________ and possible loss of braking and steering on the extended gear which operates on the same hydraulic system as the malfunctioning gear.
a. one-half rate of lateral trim capability. b. stabilizer trim capability. c. outboard spoilers which operated off the affected system. d. one-half rate of stabilizer trim capability. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-85 |
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A 120 cubic inch automatic reset fuse is installed in the emergency tip gear system upstream of the emergency extend control valve. One cycle of the fuse will not deplete the system to such an extent that normal _______ operation will be impaired.
a. spoiler b. body system c. rudder/elevator d. landing gear |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-86 |
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Using the parking brake hydraulic pump in flight _______ due to the location of the hand pump.
a. is prohibited b. should be considered as a last resort c. is relatively easy but somewhat difficult to get to d. is allowed any time |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-91 |
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With no body hydraulic pump operative, do not pump the brakes. Pumping will deplete the brake accumulator pressure causing _______________.
a. the loss of antiskid protection b. the brakes to lock c. a longer stopping distances d. the loss of all braking action |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-91 |
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When landing with one main gear retracted _______ during ground roll.
a. maintain full lateral control b. do not move the steering ratio to TAXI c. make only large radius turns d. turn the anti-skid off |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-92 |
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If an emergency requires taxiing after landing with one tip gear retracted, make only large radius turns and make all turns away from the ______ if possible.
a. downwind wing b. upwind wing c. retracted gear d. extended gear |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-94 |
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When landing with a failed tire condition (blown out, flat, or chunk loss), do not attempt retraction of the affected gear by the emergency retraction system when
a. the affected gear is the left AFT. b. the affected gear is fully extended. c. an overpressure condition exists in either body system. d. main gear hydraulic system damage is suspected. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-95 |
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When motoring number 5 engine, the RPM must be at least ten percent higher on the number _______ engine.
a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. b or c |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-97 |
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In order to keep the aircraft on the runway with failed forward gear steering but operable rear gear crosswind crab, only a ________ turning correction should be applied.
a. very large b. wide angle c. manually centered d. very small |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-97 |
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When landing with left and right body hydraulic system failure, the ________________ will receive pressure from the standby pumps.
a. left front and left rear brakes b. airbrakes and stabilizer trim c. right front and left rear brakes d. left front and right rear brakes |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-97 |
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Prior to landing, crosswind crab should ___________ if steering has failed on both the forward gear.
a. never be set b. be computed on 50% of tower reported winds c. be set to 70% of the normal setting d. be set only in an emergency |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-97 |
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The crosswind crab centering button will not center the gear properly since the centered signal originates from the ______ gear.
a. left forward b. right rear c. left rear d. right forward |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-98 |
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Consideration should be given to _______________since a cocked flap is subject to buffeting and vibration, and may fall from the aircraft
a. raising the flaps to the full up position. b. landing the aircraft when practical c. lowering the flaps to the full down position d. aligning the segment by reducing aerodynamic loads |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-107 |
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When flap damage exists with flaps in an intermediate position, reduce speed until __________.
a. estimated minimum touchdown speed b. one-half lateral control authority is required c. initial buffet d. A or B, whichever is higher |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-107 |
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After wing flap stoppage, use caution in reactivating the flaps. ____ of flaps if the flap indicator needle becomes jerky or if the needles stop or become unsynchronized.
a. Reverse direction b. Continue extension c. Visually check movement d. Discontinue extension |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-107 |
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If visual observation reveals that one of the flap sections is damaged or cocked, or the condition of the flaps is unknown, a landing will be made with the flaps in the
a. full down position. b. full up position with airbrakes 2. c. same position in which they stopped. d. full up position with no airbrakes |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-107 |
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If wheel brakes are applied immediately prior to and held during touchdown when the main gear is turned more than 14 degrees, the aircraft will land with wheels locked because the antiskid system is inoperative. In this situation, ________ the antiskid system.
a. holding the brakes will reactivate b. releasing the brakes will activate c. activating the brakes will hold d. activating the brakes will hold |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-113 |
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During a flaps up landing, ______ will exceed the brake energy limit and may result in complete loss of brakes, rupture of hydraulic lines, and subsequent fire.
a. application of the brakes above maximum brake application speed b. delaying deployment of the drag chute until less than 150 knots c. releasing the brake too soon to activate the antiskid system d. application of the brakes with both main hydraulic pumps inoperative |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-114 |
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Center the rudder pedals before repositioning the steering ratio selector lever. Actuation of the lever is very difficult when the rudder pedals are deflected and could
a. split the forward main gear. b. result in a serious hydraulic leak. c. result in a dangerously abrupt change in steering angle. d. cause the crosswind crab centering mechanism to jam. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-114 |
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Even at slow speeds the aircraft forward gear can be folded or sheared with large steering inputs to the gear when
a. crosswind crab is introduced. b. landing on a slippery runway. c. the aircraft departs the prepared surface. d. heavy braking action is introduced. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-120 |
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If a ground emergency arises necessitating immediate abandonment of the aircraft under unplanned circumstances, all crewmembers __________ and then evacuate the aircraft.
a. free themselves of parachute and survival kit b. don emergency equipment c. remove helmet and gloves d. free themselves of parachute and safety belt |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-123 |
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If, after the alert signal has been given to standby for ditching or crash landing, the abandon signal is given, the crew should
a. acknowledge over interphone. b. assume a crash landing position. c. bail out immediately. d. remain in position. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-123 |
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Because of high noise level, air buffeting, and the circulation of foreign particles by turbulent air, the ______ should be jettisoned below 250 KIAS and at a low altitude, preferably not lower than 1,000 feet.
a. aft upper escape hatches b. pilot escape hatches c. lower escape hatches d. external stores |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-124 |
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During preparation for crash landing or ditching, if the aft upper escape hatch does not jettison when the arming levers are rotated,
a. immediately pull the manual catapult safety pin-pull lever and jettison the hatch manually. b. jettison the hatch manually if above 2,000 ft MSL and below 270 KIAS. c. do not attempt manual release until the alert signal is given. d. do not attempt manual release until the aircraft has come to a complete stop. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-124 |
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In a crash landing or ditching situation, do not shut engines down prior to touchdown. This would result in an immediate loss of
a. spoiler control. b. all primary electric power. c. airspeed indications. d. all primary flight instruments. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-125 |
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During an emergency egress, be sure to avoid the protruding objects on the sides of the fuselage by
a. breaking them off with a crash ax. b. pushing away from the fuselage with your feet. c. using them as handholds. d. jumping out and past the objects. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-125 |
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The crewmember is prevented from bending forward when the shoulder harness inertia reel is locked. Therefore, _________ not readily accessible should be positioned prior to locking the shoulder harness.
a. all equipment b. all switches c. personal belongings d. emergency equipment |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-125 |
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To prevent personal injury while using the escape rope, ________ before using it.
a. carefully grasp the knotted end b. carefully wrap it around your arm c. attach the loose end to the hatch frame d. ascertain it is fully extended |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-125 |
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The use of full rudder is mandatory to realize the charted minimum directional control speeds (MDCS). Failure to use full rudder can increase the MDCS for one inoperative outboard engine by approximately ________ knots.
a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 30 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-126 |
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In a ditching situation, it is recommended
a. all crewmembers bail out. b. all crewmembers remain with the aircraft. c. the aircraft be ditched in a slightly nose down attitude. d. only extra crewmembers bail out. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-126 |
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Whenever engine-out condition is simulated (or actually experienced), it is important that the engines not be retarded or accelerated suddenly. This will induce _____ and then any sudden application of rudder could exceed structural limits of the aircraft.
a. overpitch b. roll c. compressor stalls d. overyaw |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-133 |
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Loss of engines will require that deviations from the aircraft configuration fuel sequence be planned to maintain _______ whenever possible.
a. proper crew coordination b. proper differential/balance between paired main/auxiliary tanks c. proper differential/balance between paired body/auxiliary tanks d. airbrake control on final and antiskid use after touchdown |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-135/3-144 |
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Loss of engines will require close attention to fuel panel settings to control
a. lateral balance and desirable CG location. b. fuel panel sequence and switch location. c. throttle balance and fuel sequence. d. desired lateral imbalance and aft CG location. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-135/3-144 |
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If a flaps down, three or four engine out landing at gross weights above 270,000 pounds is necessary, final approach should be flown at ___________________ knots, whichever is higher.
a. no flap approach speed or best flare speed plus 10 b. best flare speed plus 10 knots or 180 c. best flare speed plus 10 knots or 150 d. best flare speed plus 30 knots or 180 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-145 |
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When landing with three or four engines inoperative on one side with the flaps down, a successful go-around cannot be assured when the aircraft descends below 2,000 feet AGL. If a go-around is required, it is recommended the climb back to traffic pattern altitude be accomplished at _______ knots IAS.
a. 150 b. 180 c. 220 d. 225 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-145 |
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While performing a go-around with one or more engines inoperative, the thrust must not be applied
a. faster than the fuel shift problems can be controlled. b. faster than any generated roll/yaw problem can be controlled. c. before full opposite direction rudder input can be applied. d. before full spoiler deflection has been achieved. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-150 |
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If full rudder is not used to oppose the yaw during a go-around with two outboard engines inoperative on the same side, spoiler deflection required to maintain control
a. will be insufficient at light gross weights. b. can reduce climb or acceleration capability at heavy weights to almost zero. c. will be sufficient at low speeds. d. may cause aircraft structural failure. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-150 |
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The decision to go around with one or more engines inoperative or following an engine pod loss should be made
a. before departing the Initial Approach Fix. b. as early as possible. c. prior to descending below 400 feet. d. prior to descending below 2000 feet. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-150 |
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The rudder pedal force required to achieve full rudder deflection during a flaps up go-around with three or four engines inoperative on one side is approximately 130 pounds. This force increases markedly when
a. fuel shift is not accounted for. b. rudder trim is used. c. rudder trim is not used. d. fuel shift is accounted for. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-152 |
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A go-around should not be attempted for a flaps up three or four engine failure on one side approach unless a gear down climb capability of __________ feet per minute exists.
a. 300 b. 400 c. 500 d. 600 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-152 |
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Go-around with 3 or 4 engine failure on one side and flaps up: Rudder will be applied as thrust is applied; the pilot should anticipate the bank angle requirement by rolling ______ the operative engines.
a. 10 degrees away from b. 15 degrees away from c. 15 degrees towards d. 10 degrees towards |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-152 |
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During a go-around with three or four engines out on one side, if go-around speed is not quickly attained and maintained the effects of _____________ can become critical.
a. spoiler deflection, gear up, and fuel unbalance b. winds and temperature c. spoiler deflection, gear down, and fuel unbalance d. excessive thrust, not banking into the good engines, and spoiler deflection |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-152 |
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Turbulence encounters with _______ disengaged and no yaw damping could result in structural damage.
a. yaw SAS b. autopilot c. pitch SAS d. powered elevator |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-160 |
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If a malfunction or erratic behavior is experienced in any mode of the autopilot,
a. the normal mode will be disengaged and will not be used for the remainder of the flight. b. the normal mode will not be used if the disengagement occurred due to turbulence or improper pilot technique. c. the air refueling, low level, and automatic approach modes can be used with caution during critical phases of flight. d. the air refueling and/or low level modes will not be used for the remainder of the flight. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-160 |
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When the bomb bay doors are operated with hydraulic power to only the forward bomb door actuators, aircraft speed should not exceed _______ KIAS.
a. 250 b. 275 c. 300 d. 325 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-162 |
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Unlatching the bomb doors using the aft bomb door latch release cable will ______ with power on the aircraft.
a. be accomplished on ALERT b. be impossible c. not be attempted d. be accomplished after parking |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-162 |
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If the popped circuit breaker is associated with the fuel flow indicators, fuel pumps, or fuel valves, do not reset the circuit breakers.
a. unless a fuel imbalance of 500 pounds or less exists. b. unless necessary for the safe recovery of the aircraft. c. unless volts and amps read correctly. d. unless the corresponding fuel tank will be used in flight. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-170 |
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Changing fuses located in power distribution boxes, load boxes and panels (excluding neon light indicating fuses on panels at crew stations) in flight
a. can be done safely, provided the crewmember wears flight gloves. b. is at the discretion of the crewmember, provided a proper amperage fuse is available. c. should be done one at a time only, to ensure the correct fuse is replaced. d. is extremely dangerous and should not be attempted unless a serious emergency exists. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-170 |
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Following a complete AC power failure or forward TR electrical failure, changes in ______ may cause main tank boost pumps to become uncovered allowing air to be drawn into the system causing engine flameout.
a. pressure altitude or temperature deviations b. flight attitude, acceleration forces, or unknown fuel quantity c. flap settings or fuel panel configurations d. airbrakes or crosswind crab settings |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-174 |
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It is essential that battery power be conserved to allow operation of _________.
a. airbrakes during final approach, antiskid after touchdown, and command radio b. interphone and antiskid after touchdown c. spoiler control, fuel boost pumps and flaps d. antiskid after touchdown, airbrakes during final approach, and ILS equipment |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-175 |
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If both battery charging TR units fail, battery power must be conserved to allow operation of the
a. airbrakes during final approach, antiskid after touchdown, and command radio. b. crosswind crab during landing, antiskid after touchdown, and command radio. c. airbrakes during final approach and liaison radio. d. fuel system crossfeed valves, battery charging circuitry, and liaison radio. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-188 |
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Continued generator operation after decoupling failure at higher than 25% windmill RPM may result in extensive damage to _____ and adjacent components.
a. generator b. CSD gearbox c. hydraulic pump d. fuel control unit |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-192A |
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To prevent engine stall, avoid rapid throttle retardation, particularly during deceleration above ____________________.
a. 20,000 feet b. 23,000 feet c. 40,000 feet d. 45,000 feet |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-195 |
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Steering in TAXI during high speeds produces excessive steering when small amounts of rudder displacement are induced which can
a. produce rapid turns without crosswind crab. b. render the rudder/elevator controls inoperative. c. produce critical side loads on aircraft structure. d. uncover boost pumps causing engine flameout. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-200 |
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When operating on one rudder/elevator auxiliary pump only, flight control power will be reduced during
a. airbrake and spoiler operation. b. stabilizer trim and landing gear operation. c. flap extension or retraction. d. autopilot operation. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-201 |
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During a routine station check the number 29 fuel valve circuit breaker is found to be open. In this case the crew may
a. attempt to reset the circuit breaker at least once. b. not attempt a reset under any condition. c. reset the circuit breaker if necessary to safely recover the aircraft. d. properly position valve 29, then momentarily reset the circuit breaker. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-203 |
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If any fuel quantity gauge malfunction occurs,
a. pull the applicable fuel quantity indicator circuit breaker. b. land as soon as practical. c. replace the malfunctioning gauge. d. do not use fuel from the applicable tank. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-203 |
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In event of complete loss of right body hydraulic system pressure the bomb bay doors should not be operated at aircraft speeds in excess of __________KIAS.
a. 390 b. 350 c. 325 d. 300 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-208 |
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If a hydraulic line failure has occurred downstream of the launcher power pump, continued operation in the ON PRIMARY position will result in depletion of the
a. right body system hydraulic fluid. b. left body system hydraulic fluid. c. main rudder/elevator system hydraulic fluid. d. standby pump system hydraulic reservoir. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-211 |
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Actuation of the landing gear emergency switch for more than ________ seconds without gear movement may result in complete loss of opposite body hydraulic system fluid.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-213 |
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If the air conditioning pack (ACP) shuts down as a result of an ACP compressor overtemperature switch shutdown, the manifold temperature gage ____________.
a. will be accurate b. may be destroyed c. will be inaccurate d. will oscillate |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-216 |
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To prevent excessive bleed air temperature following a precooler malfunction and the ACP OFF, do not actuate the _________ under normal flight conditions.
a. airbrakes b. stabilizer trim c. anti-icing d. temperature selector |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-217 |
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Outboard nacelles should not be considered an alternate source of emergency bleed air since inaccurate manifold temperature readings can result in overheating of the _________________.
a. main manifold b. outboard air bleed manifolds c. air bleed system d. air ducts |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-220 |
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Failure of the cabin temperature control system resulting in a full cold situation (or the modulating valve in the full cold position) is cause
a. for abort at altitude. b. for an immediate landing. c. to abort the mission and land as soon as practical. d. to develop a continuous monitoring plan of the cabin temperature. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-221 |
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All crewmembers should avoid possible harmful effects of breathing the powder resulting from an air conditioning filter failure by
a. going on NORMAL OXYGEN and EMERGENCY. b. closing all air conditioning outlets. c. going on 100% OXYGEN and EMERGENCY. d. going on 100% OXYGEN. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-222 |
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In the event the Bleed Selector Switch is to be placed in the EMERG RH INBD position, all crewmembers will confirm
a. all unnecessary electrical equipment is off. b. emergency equipment is in readiness for ejection. c. they are on oxygen, regulator diluter lever 100%. d. all hot air outlets are free from combustible materials. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-222 |
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The ______ when the cooling airflow is stopped by turning off the air conditioning system.
a. crewmembers must fully extend outflow knobs b. crewmembers must go on 100% oxygen c. OAS radar must be turned OFF d. OAS equipment will be turned OFF |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 3-223 |
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Whenever a change in crew position is necessary, ______ before the change is made.
a. do a taxi-back landing and stow the seat pin(s) b. abort the low level route and climb to a safe altitude c. a complete oxygen/station check must be accomplished d. climb to a safe altitude and area |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 4-3 |
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When moving around an ejection seat, care will be taken
a. not to actuate the ankle trip restraints. b. to install the flight safety pin(s). c. not to actuate the ejection mechanism. d. not to actuate the seat positioning motors. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 4-3 |
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The upper deck sliding hatch will be ______ when any crewmember is required to move about or conduct activity in the area of the hatch.
a. closed only b. closed and locked c. open and locked d. open only |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 4-3 |
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When stowing equipment aboard the aircraft, do not
a. position it near electrical wiring. b. tie it down at an unoccupied position. c. put it behind ejection seats. d. put it near cold air ducts. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 4-3 |
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To prevent accidental firing of an upward ejection seat, install the arming lever safety pins prior to leaving the seat during flight. Upon returning to the seat
a. remove pins after donning the parachute and fastening the safety belt. b. fasten parachute and shoulder harness and remove arming lever safety pins. c. fasten parachute and survival kit and remove arming lever safety pins. d. immediately remove the arming lever (number 1) safety pins. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 4-3 |
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To provide access to the lower crew compartment, the upper deck sliding hatch will be open and locked prior to
a. takeoff, landing, cruise, low level activity, planned unusual maneuvers, penetration, and turbulence. b. engine start, takeoff, air refueling, low level activity, planned unusual maneuvers, penetration, and landing. c. planned unusual maneuvers, low level activity, ground taxi operations, transition, and turbulence. d. takeoff, air refueling, celestial navigation, low level activity, and landing. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 4-3 |
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Extreme caution must be exercised when moving around and stowing equipment near upward ejection seats to avoid
a. inadvertent actuation of the integrated harness release handle. b. inertia reel activation. c. inadvertent actuation of the integrated harness release trip. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 4-4 |
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The 30 minute time limit at MRT includes acceleration time and the ______ minute(s) allowed for the EGT to stabilize.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-8 |
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If during flight, the RPM cannot be controlled, the engine should be shut down as soon as possible if the engine RPM exceeds
a. 102% . b. 102.7% . c. 108% . d. 108.7% . |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-8 |
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For acceleration from idle to MRT or TRT, the _____ temperature limit applies.
a. TRT b. MRT c. air start d. acceleration |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-8 |
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Military rated thrust (MRT) is limited to ______ minutes.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-8 |
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Inflight, if the EGT cannot be controlled, the engine should be shutdown as soon as possible if the EGT exceeds ______ degrees C for any length of time.
a. 760 b. 730 c. 660 d. 600 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-8 |
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For the purpose of engine starting on the ground, operation of the engine ignition system with the Starter Switch in the START position is limited to 2 minutes followed by a _____minute cooling period.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-9 |
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Not more than __________ cartridge start(s) shall be made in any 60 minute period.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-9 |
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The time limit for maximum continuous operation of the pneumatic starter is ___ minute(s).
a. 5 b. 4 c. 2 d. 1 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-9 |
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Not more than three pneumatic starts shall be made in any period of _______ minutes.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-9 |
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Except in an emergency, engine operation is prohibited when a ____________cartridge is installed in the starter.
a. live or misfired b. live or hangfired c. fired or misfired d. misfired or hangfired |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-10 |
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Continuous inflight use of START position of the ignition system for a period in excess of ______ minutes without an interim cooling period may damage the ignition system.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-10 |
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If an airspeed calibration has been made, the aircraft may be flown to 400 KCAS and 0.91 MACH true under conditions allowing ______ KIAS/MACH.
a. 400/0.89 b. 395/0.80 c. 390/0.84 d. 400/0.77 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-16 |
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If dummy boxes are not installed in lieu of ECM transmitters, the aircraft should not exceed _________________knots IAS.
a. 300 b. 285 c. 270 d. 250 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-17 |
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Maximum airspeed to start flap extension is _______ knots IAS.
a. 190 b. 220 c. 225 d. 235 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-17 |
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Airspeed limitation with less than 7,000 pounds of fuel in either outboard wing tank and any main tank above the green band is _____ IAS/MACH.
a. 270/.75 b. 250/.70 c. 270/.77 d. 390/.84 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-17 |
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The aircraft positive maneuvering limit is _______ 'Gs' at all gross weights up to 450,000 pounds.
a. 1.5 b. 1.67 c. 1.8 d. 2.0 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-19 |
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After landing, the drag chute may be deployed at _____________ knots IAS, maximum.
a. 70 b. 125 c. 130 d. 135 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-19 |
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The maximum altitude for use of the oxygen regulator and oxygen mask combination is _________ altitude.
a. 42,000 feet cabin b. 42,000 feet aircraft c. 45,000 feet cabin d. 45,000 feet aircraft |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-20 |
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A maximum of _______ minutes flap motor operation is allowed in any 30 minute period.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 10 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-27 |
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Noticeable bomb door failure damage (loose rivets, cracked skin and ribs, etc) can be expected after the doors have been open for five minutes at _______ KIAS.
a. 390 b. 375 c. 350 d. 325 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-27 |
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Ground operation of the terrain clearance light should not exceed __________continuous minutes without allowing a 5-minute cooling period before a subsequent operating period.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-27 |
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Maximum speed with the bomb doors open is
a. 390 KIAS. b. .93 Mach. c. 490 KIAS. d. 390 KTAS. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-27 |
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When brake energy is charted in the danger zone, tire explosion and hydraulic fire are _____________.
a. likely b. imminent c. possible d. probable |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-29 |
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When brake energy is charted in the caution zone, tire explosion and hydraulic fire are ___________.
a. likely b. imminent c. possible d. probable |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-29 |
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After a refused takeoff or braked landing, before a second takeoff is attempted, the possibility of a refused takeoff must be considered. The cumulative effect of energy absorbed in prior braking and energy required for a refused takeoff
a. may cause the antiskid to lock. b. may cause the wheel brakes to lock. c. may exceed brake energy limits. d. may be disregarded to light takeoff gross weights. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-30 |
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To prevent main gear tire casing failure, all takeoffs and landings will be limited to a maximum ground speed of ______ knots.
a. 197 b. 200 c. 217 d. 220 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-30 |
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Landings performed above _________ pounds must be reported on the AFTO FORM 781 so the landing gear and support bulkheads can be inspected.
a. 270,000 b. 290,000 c. 325,000 d. 400,000 |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-34 |
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For other than SIOP missions, the maximum inflight gross weight is ____________
a. 290,000 lbs b. 488,000 lbs c. 450,000 lbs d. 500,000 lbs |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-34 |
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Bank angles should not exceed ______ degrees for gross weights in excess of 488,000 pounds.
a. 12 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-39 |
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The aircraft will not be moved with its own power with the CG outside of the
a. taxiing limits. b. towing limits. c. negative load factor aft CG limit. d. negative load factor forward CG limit. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 5-43 |
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If, at any time, abnormally stiff controls are encountered and icing is suspected,
a. descend to a warmer altitude. b. climb out of icing conditions. c. land as soon as possible. d. climb with airbrakes in position two. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-10 |
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328. During malfunctions of the Q - Spring system, either due to the inlet being plugged by icing or loss of ram pressure for other reasons, ______ can be encountered.
a. loss of the autopilot b. loss of control forces c. erratic rudder control d. erratic yaw inputs |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-10 |
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While operating in icing conditions after autopilot disengagement, check ______________.
a. SAS engagement b. autopilot test c. elevator and rudder systems (for artificial feel) d. rudder trim |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-10 |
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Full airbrake extension at speeds up to 250 KIAS requires approximately ________________ units of nosedown stabilizer trim.
a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 3.5 d. 5.5 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-18 |
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Do not select greater than airbrakes 4 at speeds above _____ knots IAS.
a. 250 b. 300 c. 305 d. 325 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-19 |
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If airbrakes are not lowered at the initiation of a go-around, the aircraft may ________________.
a. pitch down into the ground b. buffet c. accelerate above maximum flap speed d. experience noseup trim changes |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-28 |
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Recovery from a nose high attitude immediately after takeoff can best be accomplished with full forward control column, retracting extended airbrakes, continuous application of nosedown trim and
a. decreasing thrust as necessary. b. maintaining takeoff thrust. c. applying bank as necessary to reduce lift. d. retracting the landing gear. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-37 |
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During recovery from unusual positions, pilots must be alert to prevent improper recovery action since the _______________is not a precise or easily read instrument.
a. turn and slip indicator b. attitude directional indicator c. accelerometer d. airspeed indicator |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-37 |
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Do not use _____________ for recovery from nose-high attitudes.
a. MRT b. a push-over maneuver c. airbrake extension d. a steep turn maneuver |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 6-37 |
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Caution must be observed to avoid areas of known or suspected icing conditions when flying with complete AC power failure since no ______ is available.
a. radome anti-icing b. pitot anti-icing c. engine ignition d. static port anti-icing |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-3 |
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Ice formation in the Q-spring system ______ with the anti-icing system on.
a. is not possible b. is probable c. is possible d. is usual |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-3 |
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With the gear extended during descent, it is possible for ice to build up on the landing gear doors. This could result in damage to the ______________________if the gear were retracted.
a. gear b. hydraulic lines c. crosswind crab d. gear doors |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-4 |
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Never climb above ______ to clear turbulence.
a. the best endurance altitude b. 35,000 feet c. 50,000 feet d. the maximum range cruise altitude |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-12 |
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The turbulent air penetration speed is ________ KIAS or .77 MACH, whichever is less.
a. 270 b. 250 c. 230 d. 150 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-12 |
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If the aircraft has been trimmed for the turbulent air penetration speed, disregard momentary airspeed changes and do not
a. raise the airbrakes beyond position 2. b. place anti-ice ON with throttles out of idle position. c. change the stabilizer trim setting. d. change altitude by more than four thousand feet. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-12 |
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During deicing and for a period of ______ minutes maintain 8 units nose down stabilizer trim.
a. 5-15 b. 5-10 c. 10-15 d. 10-20 |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-16 |
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In cold weather, check for sluggish instruments ______________.
a. prior to engine start b. after engine start c. prior to takeoff d. during taxi |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-17 |
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When landing on a water covered runway in excess of 0.3 inch depth, _______ may occur even though a low RCR reading has not been reported.
a. improper braking b. hydroplaning c. anti-skid loss d. runway departure |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Page: 7-17 |
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The __________ must be used to maintain corrected altitude/flight level.
a. proper altimeter settings b. altimeter correction card c. altimeter calibration card d. autopilot |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: A1-10 |
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Takeoffs should not be attempted when runway is covered by water and/or slush in excess of _______ inch depth.
a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 1.0 |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: A2-5 |
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If aborted takeoff considerations are to be disregarded, do not takeoff if depth of water and/or slush exceeds 0.4 inch because of _____________.
a. hydroplaning b. brake loss c. extreme performance loss d. possible engine flameout |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: A2-5 |
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If takeoff is aborted after 70 knot IAS with RCR 5, it is ________ the aircraft will stop in remaining runway.
a. not possible b. probable c. unlikely d. extremely doubtful |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: A2-9 |
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If the computed minimum allowable RCR is greater than the local dry runway RCR (23 is maximum)
a. 70 Knots will be used as the decision speed. b. takeoff data must be recomputed using a greater decision distance. c. takeoff data must be recomputed using a lesser decision distance. d. the S-1 speed will be adjusted to 135 Knots. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: A2-9 |
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During takeoff,_______ will be negligible due to full airbrake extension up to the decision speed.
a. drag b. spoiler control c. lift d. lateral control |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: A2-12 |
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The speed check at the termination of acceleration check time will not show when the takeoff run will be excessively long due to such things as
a. retracted flaps or extended airbrakes. b. extended flaps or extended airbrakes. c. engine loss or extended flaps. d. engine loss or retracted flaps. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: T.O. 1B-52H-1-1 Page: A2-12 |
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The Barksdale visual traffic pattern altitude is:
a. 2,000’AGL b. 1,200’MSL c. 1,000’MSL d. 1,200’AGL |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: BARKI 11-250 Page: 35 |
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An emergency can be declared by:
a. Pilot. b. Supervisor of Flying (SOF). c. Control tower watch supervisor/senior controller. d. All of the above. |
Correct Answer: D
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: BARKI 11-250 Page: 45 |
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The primary IFR/VFR external stores and weapons jettison area for Barksdale is:
a. Barksdale TACAN 116º radial, 2.4 DME fix. b. Weapons Storage Area (WSA). c. Abeam the departure end of runway 33. d. All of the above. |
Correct Answer: A
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: BARKI 11-250 Page: 49 |
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The Controlled bailout for all aircraft will be on the:
a. BAD TACAN 116º radial, 2.4 DME fix, heading 327. b. BAD TACAN 152º radial, 91 DME fix on a 152º heading. c. Coast of Florida toward the Gulf of Mexico d. Over the area east of the runway. |
Correct Answer: B
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: BARKI 11-250 Page: 49 |
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While performing transition at Barksdale, the tower calls Bird Watch Condition (BWC) - MODERATE, you will (917WG):
a. Contact approach for holding instructions until BWC is LIGHT. b. Continue transition, AFRC aircraft are only affected by BWC - SEVERE. c. Accomplish a full stop if the arrival route avoids the bird activity. d. Contact the SOF for permission to complete your sortie duration. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: AFI 11-2B-52, Vol 3, 917WG SUP 1 Page: 14 |
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During engine running crew changes (ERCCs), crews will NOT depart the aircraft until _____.
a. the oncoming crew has arrived. b. cleared by the SOF. c. maintenance has chocked the wheels. d. they have donned ear plugs or a headset. |
Correct Answer: C
Last Change Date for Question: 1 Feb 2010 Reference Document: AFI 11-2B-52, Vol 3, 917WG SUP 1 Page: 5 |
