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1599 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The Maximum Allowable Cost is usually (greater than or less than) the Usual and Customary (U&C) price.
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less than
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What are the 2 general types of products parenterals are packaged as?
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LVP-large volume parenteral solutions and SVP-small volume parenteral solutions
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What is meant by Maximum Allowable Cost or MAC?
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the maximum price per tablet (or other dispensing unit) an insurer or PBM will pay for a given product
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What are the 2 general types of products parenterals are packaged as?
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LVP-large volume parenteral solutions and SVP-small volume parenteral solutions
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What is meant by U&C or UCR?
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the maximum amount of payment for a given prescription, determined by the insurer to be a usual and customary (and reasonable) price
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What would be a visual sign of lack of stability in a parenteral solution?
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precipitation or crystallization in the solution
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What does the DAW code 0 indicate?
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No DAW
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What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
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the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
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What does the DAW code 1 indicate?
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DAW handwritten on the prescription by the prescriber
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What are aseptic techniques?
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techniques that maintain sterile conditions and prevent contamination
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What does the DAW code 2 indicate?
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Patient requested brand
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What would be a visual sign of lack of stability in a parenteral solution?
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precipitation or crystallization in the solution
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What does the DAW code 3 indicate?
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Pharmacist selected brand
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What are pyrogens?
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chemicals that are produced by microorganisms
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What does the DAW code 4 indicate?
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Generic not in stock
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What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
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the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
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What does the DAW code 5 indicate?
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Brand name dispensed but priced as generic
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Can pyrogens be removed by sterilizing or filtering the solution?
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no
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What does the DAW code 6 indicate?
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N/A
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What are aseptic techniques?
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techniques that maintain sterile conditions and prevent contamination
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What does the DAW code 7 indicate?
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Substitution not allowed; brand mandated by law
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What is meant by a pyretic reaction?
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fever
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What does the DAW code 8 indicate?
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Generic not available
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What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
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the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
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What does it mean when "Refills Not Covered" is the reason for a rejected claim?
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The patient has a mail order pharmacy for maintenance medications.
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What is the osmolarity of blood?
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about 300 mOsmol/L
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What are pyrogens?
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chemicals that are produced by microorganisms
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What is meant by isotonic?
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when a solution has an osmolarity equivalent to that of blood
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What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
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the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
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What is osmotic pressure?
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the characteristic of a solution determined by the number of dissolved particles in it
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Can pyrogens be removed by sterilizing or filtering the solution?
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no
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What is meant by hypertonic?
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intravenous solutions that have greater osmolarity than blood
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
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the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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What is meant by hypotonic?
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intravenous solutions that have lower osmolarity than blood
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What is meant by a pyretic reaction?
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fever
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What can hypertonic and hypotonic solutions do?
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may cause damage to red blood cells, pain, and tissue irritation
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
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the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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What constitutes as an LVP solution?
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intravenous solutions packaged in containers holding 100 mL or more
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What is the osmolarity of blood?
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about 300 mOsmol/L
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What are the 2 ports on LVP solutions called?
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the administration port and the medication port
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
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the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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What identifies the administration port from the medication port?
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the administration port has a plastic cover; the medication port is covered by a protective rubber tip
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What is meant by isotonic?
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when a solution has an osmolarity equivalent to that of blood
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How are medications that cannot be placed in plastic administered and packaged?
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glass IV bottles are used; they are packaged with a vacuum, sealed by a solid rubber closure, and the closure is held in place by an aluminum band
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What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
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the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
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What are the 4 most commonly used LVP solutions?
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sodium chloride solution, dextrose solution, Ringer's solution, and Lactated Ringer's solution
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What is osmotic pressure?
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the characteristic of a solution determined by the number of dissolved particles in it
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What is an ampule?
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an elongated sealed glass container with a neck that must be snapped off
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What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
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the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
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What are 4 names of Ready-To-Mix systems?
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Add-Vantage, Add-a-Vial, Mini-Bag Plus, CRIS Controlled Release Infusion System
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What is meant by hypertonic?
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intravenous solutions that have greater osmolarity than blood
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What is meant by lyophilized?
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freeze dried
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
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the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
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What is the lumen of the needle?
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the hollow bore of the needle
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What is meant by hypotonic?
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intravenous solutions that have lower osmolarity than blood
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What are Slip-Tip, Luer-Lok, eccentric, and oral referring to?
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different types of syringe tips
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
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the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
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How does a depth filter work?
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works by trapping particles as the solution moves through twisting channels
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What can hypertonic and hypotonic solutions do?
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may cause damage to red blood cells, pain, and tissue irritation
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How does a membrane filter work?
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consists of many small pores of a uniform size that retain particles larger than the pores
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
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the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
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What are 3 types of filters?
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membrane, depth, and final filters
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What constitutes as an LVP solution?
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intravenous solutions packaged in containers holding 100 mL or more
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What is commonly used in a depth filter?
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diatomaceous earth, procelain, and asbestos
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What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
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the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
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What is meant by laminar flow?
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continuous movement at a uniform rate in one direction
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What are the 2 ports on LVP solutions called?
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the administration port and the medication port
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What is a HEPA filter?
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a high efficiency particulate air filter
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What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
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USP, or NF
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Are TPNs hypertonic or hypotonic?
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hypertonic
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What identifies the administration port from the medication port?
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the administration port has a plastic cover; the medication port is covered by a protective rubber tip
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What is the source of protein in a TPN solution?
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an amino acid solution
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What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
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USP, or NF
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What is the source of carbohydrate calories in a TPN solution?
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a dextrose solution
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How are medications that cannot be placed in plastic administered and packaged?
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glass IV bottles are used; they are packaged with a vacuum, sealed by a solid rubber closure, and the closure is held in place by an aluminum band
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What is a TNA?
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Total Nutrient Admixture solution; a TPN solution that contains intravenous fat emulsion
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What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
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USP, or NF
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What are the 2 typical solutions for surgical irrigation and what is their purpose?
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Sodium Chloride or Sterile Water; used to bathe and moisten body tissues, moisten dressings, and wash instruments
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What are the 4 most commonly used LVP solutions?
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sodium chloride solution, dextrose solution, Ringer's solution, and Lactated Ringer's solution
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What are the 2 most commonly used Urologic Irrigation Solutions and what is their purpose?
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Glycerine Irrigation and 3% Sorbital Irrigation solutions; they maintain tissue integrity and remove blood to maintain a clear field of vision
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Why does drug distribution, metabolism, and excretion differ in neonates and infants?
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their organ systems are not fully developed, such as liver function and the blood-brain barrier
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What type of solution is used during operations to maintain tissue integrity and remove blood?
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urologic irrigation solutions
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What is an ampule?
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an elongated sealed glass container with a neck that must be snapped off
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A mole is the number of grams numberically equal to the ____ weight of the drug.
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molecular weight
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
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the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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What is molecular weight?
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the sum of the atomic weights of all the atoms that make up the drug molecule.
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What are 4 names of Ready-To-Mix systems?
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Add-Vantage, Add-a-Vial, Mini-Bag Plus, CRIS Controlled Release Infusion System
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What is the formula to find a drug's osmolarity?
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osmole = (molecular weight)/(# of ions)
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
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lowest
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What type of filter is used to filter solutions as the solution is expelled from the syringe?
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membrane filters
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What is meant by lyophilized?
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freeze dried
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
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lowest
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What is the lumen of the needle?
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the hollow bore of the needle
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
|
the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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What are Slip-Tip, Luer-Lok, eccentric, and oral referring to?
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different types of syringe tips
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
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Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
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How does a depth filter work?
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works by trapping particles as the solution moves through twisting channels
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
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lowest
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How does a membrane filter work?
|
consists of many small pores of a uniform size that retain particles larger than the pores
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
|
the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
|
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What are 3 types of filters?
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membrane, depth, and final filters
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
|
the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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What is commonly used in a depth filter?
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diatomaceous earth, procelain, and asbestos
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
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Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
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What is meant by laminar flow?
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continuous movement at a uniform rate in one direction
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
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Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
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What is a HEPA filter?
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a high efficiency particulate air filter
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What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
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Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
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Are TPNs hypertonic or hypotonic?
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hypertonic
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
|
the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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What is the source of protein in a TPN solution?
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an amino acid solution
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What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
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Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
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What is the source of carbohydrate calories in a TPN solution?
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a dextrose solution
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What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
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Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
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What is a TNA?
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Total Nutrient Admixture solution; a TPN solution that contains intravenous fat emulsion
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What kind of reference material does the DFC contain?
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Contains information about prescription and OTC products. It divides the drugs into therapeutic groups. New or revised information is sent monthly.
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What are the 2 typical solutions for surgical irrigation and what is their purpose?
|
Sodium Chloride or Sterile Water; used to bathe and moisten body tissues, moisten dressings, and wash instruments
|
|
|
What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
|
USP, or NF
|
|
|
What are the 2 most commonly used Urologic Irrigation Solutions and what is their purpose?
|
Glycerine Irrigation and 3% Sorbital Irrigation solutions; they maintain tissue integrity and remove blood to maintain a clear field of vision
|
|
|
What is the NABP's definition of compounding?
|
the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as the result of a practitioner's prescription drug order
|
|
|
What type of solution is used during operations to maintain tissue integrity and remove blood?
|
urologic irrigation solutions
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
|
lowest
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A mole is the number of grams numberically equal to the ____ weight of the drug.
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molecular weight
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
|
the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
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What is molecular weight?
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the sum of the atomic weights of all the atoms that make up the drug molecule.
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
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Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
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What is the formula to find a drug's osmolarity?
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osmole = (molecular weight)/(# of ions)
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
|
the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
|
|
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What type of filter is used to filter solutions as the solution is expelled from the syringe?
|
membrane filters
|
|
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What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
|
Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
|
the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
|
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What kind of reference material does the DFC contain?
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Contains information about prescription and OTC products. It divides the drugs into therapeutic groups. New or revised information is sent monthly.
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What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
|
USP, or NF
|
|
|
What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
|
USP, or NF
|
|
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What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
|
USP, or NF
|
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What is Martindale, The Complete Drug Reference the best best source of information for?
|
Drugs in clinical use internationally. It contains drug monographs that provide information on the properties, actions and uses of drugs.
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What is the NABP's definition of manufacturing?
|
the production, preparation, propagation, conversion or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis
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|
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
|
lowest
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
|
lowest
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What is the receptor and where is it located?
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the cellular material directly involve in the action of the drug and is located on the surfaces of cell membranes and inside cells
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
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Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
|
lowest
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How does the USP define the stability of compounded dosage forms?
|
the chemical and physical integrity of the dosage unit and the ability of the unit to maintain protection against microbiological contamination
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What is the AHFS the accepted authority on?
|
For drug information questions. It is the leading source of drug information for determining reimbursement of prescriptions and as a resource for DURs.
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
|
Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
|
|
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
|
Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
|
|
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What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
|
Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
|
|
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What is Martindale, The Complete Drug Reference the best best source of information for?
|
Drugs in clinical use internationally. It contains drug monographs that provide information on the properties, actions and uses of drugs.
|
|
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What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
|
Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
|
|
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What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
|
Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
|
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What is the Handbook on Injectable Drugs?
|
A collections of monographs on commercially available parenteral drugs that include concentration, stabality, dosage and compatibility information.
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What is the lowest grade of purity to be used in compounding?
|
USP, or NF
|
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What are some drugs that are eliminated faster in children than in adults?
|
clindamycin, valproic acid, ethosuximide, and theophylline
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Out of 9 chemical grades, where does Technical, or commercial, grade rank?
|
lowest
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What is a PDR?
|
Physicians' Desk Reference is an annual publication that provides prescription information on major pharmaceutical products.
|
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What is the highest chemical grade and what is it used for?
|
Primary standard, used in standard solutions for analytical purposes
|
|
|
What is the AHFS the accepted authority on?
|
For drug information questions. It is the leading source of drug information for determining reimbursement of prescriptions and as a resource for DURs.
|
|
|
What are the 2 grades below USP/NF chemical grade?
|
Technical/commercial and CP (chemically pure)
|
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What is the Merck Index?
|
An encyclopedic source of chemical substance data.
|
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Where is the volume of aqueous liquid read on a graduated cylinder?
|
Bottom of the meniscus.
|
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What does the American Drug Index provide?
|
The most exhaustive list of drugs and drug products.
|
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What is the Handbook on Injectable Drugs?
|
A collections of monographs on commercially available parenteral drugs that include concentration, stabality, dosage and compatibility information.
|
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What kind of information can be found in the Red Book?
|
Pharmacist's guide to accurate product information and prices on prescsricption drugs, OTC items and reimbursable medical supplies.
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What is the meaning of additive effects?
|
when 2 drugs with similar pharmacological actions result in an effect equal to the sum of the individual effects
|
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What is "Today's Technician" is an example of what kind of journal?
|
A professional practice journal.
|
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What is a PDR?
|
Physicians' Desk Reference is an annual publication that provides prescription information on major pharmaceutical products.
|
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When drug molecules bind with a receptor, they can cause a reaction that ____ or ____ cellular functions.
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stimulates or inhibits
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What is the Merck Index?
|
An encyclopedic source of chemical substance data.
|
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What is synergism?
|
when 2 drugs with similar pharmacological actions produce greater effects than the sum of individual effects
|
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What does the American Drug Index provide?
|
The most exhaustive list of drugs and drug products.
|
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What is a
Prescription? |
an order for a medication issued by a licensed medical practitioner, required if the medicine requires medical supervision because the drug is unsafe
|
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What kind of information can be found in the Red Book?
|
Pharmacist's guide to accurate product information and prices on prescsricption drugs, OTC items and reimbursable medical supplies.
|
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What is potentiation?
|
when one drug with no inherent activity of its own increases the activity of another drug that produces an effect
|
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What is "Today's Technician" is an example of what kind of journal?
|
A professional practice journal.
|
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What is a drug that activates receptors and produces a response that may either accelerate or slow normal cellular processes, depending on the type of receptor involved referred to as?
|
an agonist
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What is displacement?
|
a drug bound to a plasma protein is removed when another drug of greater binding potential binds to the same protein
|
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How often is a laminar air flow hood inspected?
|
Every 6 months ,, or twice a year.
|
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What is inhibition?
|
when a drug blocks the activity of metabolic enzymes in the liver
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What is a drug that binds to receptors but does not activate them, instead blocking the receptors' action by preventing other drugs or substances from interacting with them referred to as?
|
an antagonist
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What is induction?
|
when a drug causes more metabolic enzymes to be produced, thus increasing the metabolic activity
|
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The Pharmacist has asked you to obtain a MedWatch for so s/he can report what?
|
An Adverse event regarding a drug
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What is the MEC?
|
minimum effective concentration, enough drug to produce an effect
|
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After reconsitituting a powder, how long is it good for?
|
14 days.
|
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What is the onset of action?
|
When the MEC is reached
|
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|
Forms of a prescription
|
1. Written from an office
2. Phoned in by the office (only Rphs or interns can recieve) Exceptions of CII's. 3. The office can fax or transmit the prescription through the computer. (NO CII's) ALSO: CII NO REFILLS. Controls 3-5 can only have a total of 6 fills, so a prescription must be written with 5 refills if it is a control, good for 6 months only. All other non-controls written PRN or with 12 refills are good only a year from the date the prescription is written. |
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What is the MTC?
|
minimum toxic concentration, blood concentration limit beyond which there are undesired or toxic effects
|
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The middle four characters of an NDC number represent ?
|
Product, Strength, and dosage form.
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What is the therapeutic window?
|
the range between the MEC and the MTC
|
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|
When unit dosing a tablet, what is the necessary labeling for each unit dose label?
|
Generic and trade name of drug, dosage form, strength, pharmacy lot number, and expiration date.
|
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What is the duration of action?
|
the time between the onset of action and when the MEC is reached again by the declining blood concentration level
|
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|
The last two digits of the National Drug Code (NDC) indicate the ?
|
unit package size.
|
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What are the ADME processes?
|
absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion
|
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|
Difference between a prescription order and a medication order.
|
Prescritpion order is GIVEN to the patient to have filled.
A medication order is written by a physician in an institution and kept in ONE sheet of paper in a file for all staff to use. |
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What is another term for the ADME processes?
|
disposition
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|
The most inportant pieces of information to have on record in the event of a drug recall of medications are the ?
|
Lot number and expiration date.
|
|
|
What are metabolism and excretion combined called?
|
elimination
|
|
|
Medications for ophthalmic administration are usually available in what two ways?
|
Sterile isotonic drops or sterile ointment.
|
|
|
What is absorption?
|
the transfer of drug into the blood from an dministered drug product
|
|
|
The ICD-9 code required on insurance claim forms refers to the ?
|
diagnosis.
|
|
|
What can effect distribution?
|
if the drug cannot penetrate the tissue's membranes, if there is not enough blood flow to the tissue, and drug binding to proteins in the blood or in tissues
|
|
|
Refill requests procedure
|
Technicians can do refill requests, they must provide:
-pharmacy NAME and PHONE number -patients NAME and DOB -drug NAME,STRENGTH, DOSAGE(QUANTITY) -directions to confirm NO CHANGE -date of LAST REFILL When refills are authorized document the number of refills, the date, and the name of the person authorizing. |
|
|
When acids dissociate are they ionized or unionized?
|
ionized
|
|
|
What is ICD-9 code?
|
Intranational classfacation of diesases 9th division.
|
|
|
When bases are dissociated are they ionized or unionized?
|
unionized
|
|
|
When dispinsing Ventolin inhaler, how often must the patient Package insert (PP) be included with the drug product?
|
every time the prescription is dispensed
|
|
|
Why do unionized drugs penetrate biological membranes more easily than ionized drugs?
|
they are more lipid soluble, charges on biological membranes bind or repel ionized drugs, ionized drugs associate w/ water molecules, creating larger particles w/ reduced penetrating capability
|
|
|
Universal claim forms are used for:
|
Insurance billing.
|
|
|
What are biological membranes composed of?
|
lipids and proteins
|
|
|
Prescription LABEL requirements.
FDCA (REGULATES) |
food, drug, and cosmetics act.
-name and adress of Pharmacy -rx number -dates -name of prescriber -name of patient -directions (dosage) - quantity, manufacturer, expiration, initials of dispensing pharmacists, pharmacy phone number, refills. |
|
|
What is passive diffusion?
|
when drugs in the body's fluids move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until equilibrium is reached
|
|
|
Online processing of a third-party claim to determine payment is called:
|
Adjudication
|
|
|
How do most orally administered drugs move in the body?
|
from the intestine to the blood and from the blood to the site of action
|
|
|
What Class drug recall is the most serious?
|
Class I
|
|
|
What are hydrophobic drugs?
|
drugs that are lipid soluble, therefore penetrate cell membranes easier
|
|
|
Referring patients to PharmD
|
If the question being asked does NOT have a FACTUAL answer ex. What is the generic name for xanax?.
Than the tech MUST refer the patient to the pharmD. Because: 1. Drug-Drug interactions 2. Drug-Disease state interactions 3. Drug-Food interactions -aspirin and coumadin interact could cause internal bleeding. -sudafed worsens high blood pressure and diabetes -absorption of cipro, tertacycline decrease when taken with food. absorption of ketoconazole increase when taken with fatty foods. grapefruit interacts with calcium channel blockers and estrogens. warfarin interacts with food high in vitamin k - |
|
|
How do hydrophilic drugs penetrate membranes?
|
they move through water-filled passages called aqueous pores
|
|
|
Gentamicin can be given in which forms?
|
Intravenous and opthalmic
|
|
|
How do drugs that cannot pass through a membrane by passive diffusion enter a cell?
|
active transport
|
|
|
Dosage Forms- Tablets
|
-most popular
-mechanically compressed -dissolution in stomach (slow) |
|
|
What is the gastric emptying time?
|
the time the drug will stay in the stomach before it is emptied into the small intestine
|
|
|
IV's preprepared containing cytotoxic drugs are prepared in a(n) what?
|
Biological safety cabinent
|
|
|
What can affect gastric emptying time?
|
the amount and type of food in the stomach, the presence of other drugs, the person's body position, and their emotional condition
|
|
|
Chewable tablets
|
chewed and dissoved in the mouth prior to swallowing, can be swallowed whole.
|
|
|
What can bile salts from the intestinal tract do to the absorption of drugs?
|
they improve absorption of certain hydrophobic drugs
|
|
|
When an investigational drug expires, you should?
|
Record the quantity and lot number and return it to the manufacturer
|
|
|
What can enzymes do to the absorption of drugs?
|
they destroy certain drugs and decrease their absorption
|
|
|
Enteric-coated tablets
|
-special coating to prevent dissolution within the stomach
-meant to dissolve in the intestined only. -NEVER TO CHEW OR BRAKE OR CRUSHED prior to ingesting -not to be taken with anti-acids which cause diissolution in the stomach |
|
|
Where do enzymes in the intestine come from?
|
some are added to the intestinal tract's contents from pancreatic secretions and some are present in the intestinal wall
|
|
|
Novaldex or ________ is an anti-estrogen type medication that is often used in the treatment of breast cancer.
|
Tamoxifin
|
|
|
What does protein binding cause?
|
the drug binds w/ proteins and the molecule is too big to pass through the membrane, so it is stored in the fat and muscle and gradually released as the blood concentration of the drug falls
|
|
|
Sub-lingual tablets
|
-placed under the toungue where active ingridient is rapidly absorbed into the BLOODSTREAM. fast absorption
-Avoids the first pass effect (where drug circulates through out the body before it is broken down by the liver |
|
|
What are the 2 uses for terbutaline?
|
bronchodilation and to delay labor in pregnant women
|
|
|
Which drug agency is responsible for regulating medical devices?
|
FDA
|
|
|
What is an example of a highly selective tissue membrane?
|
the blood-brain barrier and finger and toe nails
|
|
|
Buccal tablets
|
-between cheek and gum
-drug is dissolved slowly over a period of time |
|
|
What happens to a drug when it binds with a protein to form a complex?
|
the drug cannot pass through membranes and is inactive
|
|
|
Tylenol No. 3 is actaminophen 325 mg. and codeine _____mg.
|
30 mg.
|
|
|
What is a metabolite?
|
a drug after the body has transformed it
|
|
|
Film-coated tablets (biaxin and depakote)
|
-special coating that masks the objectionable odor or taste
-prevents detereoration due to light and air. |
|
|
What is the primary site of drug metabolism in the body?
|
the liver
|
|
|
Penicillin VK 250 mg tabs po quid for 10 days; If the patient cannot swallow tablets and requests a liquid dosage form, what volume of 250mg/5ml supension should be dispenssed?
|
200ml
|
|
|
What transforms a drug into a metabolite?
|
enzymes
|
|
|
Sustained, time-released tablets
|
active ingridient is released at a CONSTANT RATE for a prolonged period of time
-long acting, delayed release, prolonged action |
|
|
What does enzyme induction do to the metabolism of a drug?
|
it results in greater metabolism of a drug
|
|
|
When using a class A prescription balance, the least weighable quantity is what?
|
120 mg.
|
|
|
What is it called when drugs that have made their way to the gall bladder are emptied into the intestine after consumption of food and are reabsorbed back into the body?
|
enterohepatic cycling
|
|
|
Lozenges
|
-troches, or pastilles
-meant to dissolve slowly in the mouth to keep the drug in contact longer |
|
|
What is first-pass metabolism?
|
the drug must go thru the liver before reaching systemic circulation, where enzymes can degrade or destroy a drug
|
|
|
You receive an order for 10mEq of magnesium sulfate to be added to a TPN. You have a 50-ml vial of 4 mEq/ml of magnesium sulfate in stock. How much do you need to inject into the TPN?
|
2.5 ml
|
|
|
If the kidney's process of filtration becomes impaired, how would this affect drug dosaging?
|
excretion would be reduced and drugs will accumulate in the blood; the dosage of drugs must be decreased or the dosing interval lengthened
|
|
|
Caqpsules
|
-drug enclosed within a gellatin shell
- after 10-30 mins with the stomach the gelatin dissolves and the drug is released -eliminates bad taste and odor of drug |
|
|
Which penetrates biological membranes more easily, ionized or unionized drugs?
|
unionized drugs
|
|
|
The form number for ordering Schedule II drugs is what?
|
DEA Form 222
|
|
|
Pellets
|
cylinder shaped tablets for implantation just under the skin for continous drug absorption.
|
|
|
The movement of the drug from the dosage formulation to the blood.
|
absorption
|
|
|
Effervescent tablets
|
active ingridient + sodium bicarbonate + citric acid, releasing carbon dioxide gas
-masks the taste of medication |
|
|
Which drug can be used as a patch?
-Nuprcanial ointment -clonidine -amoxicillin -vitamin C |
Clondine
|
|
|
Absorption
|
drug gets absorbed into the BLOOD stream
|
|
|
A prescription order for neomycin 0.75 g PO bid x 30 days is submitted. In stock you have 500-mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient use per day?
|
3 tablets daily
|
|
|
Distribution
|
drug goes where it is NEEDED
|
|
|
How much cough syrup will a patient take in 24 hours if the dose is two teaspoonfuls every six hours?
|
40 mL
|
|
|
Metabolism
|
drug is broken down by the liver
|
|
|
Name a drug that requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed as a verbal order?
|
phenobarbital
|
|
|
Elimination
|
excretion from the body
|
|
|
The smallest gelatin capsule used for extemporaneous compounding is what size?
|
5.
|
|
|
Syrups (sugar)
|
high concentration of sugar hinders bacterial growth
|
|
|
Which of the following forms is needed for pharmacy to dispense controlled substances
|
Form 224
|
|
|
Solutions (Soln)
|
drug is UNIFORMLY DISPERSED through out the liquid, no shake well.
|
|
|
Coring can occur when what happens?
|
The needle is not correctly inserted into the vile.
|
|
|
Suspensions (Susp)
|
medication is insoluble in the liquid, SHAKE WELL
|
|
|
THe expiration date on a bottle of Cipro 500mg tablets states 4/04. WHen does this drug expire?
|
midnight 4/30/04
|
|
|
Elixer
|
sweetened water with alcohol, NOT FOR BABIES, ALCOHOL!
|
|
|
Furosemide or Lasix© is used as what?
|
A Diuretic
|
|
|
Tincture
|
HIGHEST CONCETRATION OF ALCOHOL
|
|
|
What is an antiandrogen? What is it used to treat?
|
Antiadrogen drugs inhibit the biological effects of androgenic hormones. Androgenic hormones are steroid hormone, such as testosterone or androsterone, that controls the development and maintenance of masculine characteristics. Thus, antiadrogen drug are used to treat illnesses stemming from the production of excess male hormones, such as prostate cancer.
|
|
|
NDC (national drug code): All drugs have an NDC number
|
3 sets of number
5#'s- manufacturer 4#'s- drug name and strength 2#'s- package size ex. 00456-0122-30 |
|
|
The infusion rate of an IV is over 12 hours. The total exact volume is 800 ml. What would be the infusion rate in mls per minute?
|
1.11 ml/minute
|
|
|
Expiration Dates
|
A drug expires 1/09 means it expires january 31st of 2009 at midnight.
50% rule: in a repackaged vial half the way date from the exp date and todays date. If the exp date is years and years than one year from todays date. |
|
|
What volume of a 2% erythromycin solution can be made from 15gm of erythromycin powder?
|
750ml
|
|
|
Pellets
|
cylinder shaped tablets for implantation just under the skin for continous drug absorption.
|
|
|
You have a 70% solution of dextrose. How many grams of dextrose is in 400 ml of this solution?
|
280 grams
|
|
|
Effervescent tablets
|
active ingridient + sodium bicarbonate + citric acid, releasing carbon dioxide gas
-masks the taste of medication |
|
|
When unit dosing a tablet, what is the necessary labeling for each unit dose label?
|
Generic and trade name of drug, dosage form, strength, pharmacy lot number, and expiration date.
|
|
|
Absorption
|
drug gets absorbed into the BLOOD stream
|
|
|
The standard pediatric dose for cefazolin is 20 mg/kg/day. The order is wriiten for 150 mg TID. The infant weighs 8 lbs. This dose is...?
|
Too high.
|
|
|
Distribution
|
drug goes where it is NEEDED
|
|
|
The middle set of digits in a National Drug Code(NDC) number represents:
|
the product strength and dosage form
|
|
|
Metabolism
|
drug is broken down by the liver
|
|
|
Federal law requires pharmacies to have available for inspection Copy 3 of the DEA form 222 for a period of how many years?
|
2 Years
|
|
|
Elimination
|
excretion from the body
|
|
|
Services that summarize information from various primary sources for quick reference
|
abstracting services
|
|
|
Syrups (sugar)
|
high concentration of sugar hinders bacterial growth
|
|
|
An IV order calls for the addition of 45 mEq of CaCo3(calcium carbonate). You have a 25 ml vial of CaCo3 4.4mEq/ml. How many mls of this concentrate do you need to add to this IV?
|
10.2 ml.
|
|
|
Solutions (Soln)
|
drug is UNIFORMLY DISPERSED through out the liquid, no shake well.
|
|
|
Estraderm is available in which dosage form?
|
patch
|
|
|
Suspensions (Susp)
|
medication is insoluble in the liquid, SHAKE WELL
|
|
|
In this formula how much talc is needed to fill 120 grams?
nupercainal ointment - 4% zinc oxide - 20% talc - 2% |
2400 mg
|
|
|
Elixer
|
sweetened water with alcohol, NOT FOR BABIES, ALCOHOL!
|
|
|
A glass compounding slab is used for?
|
A smooth surface to mix ointments and creams
|
|
|
Tincture
|
HIGHEST CONCETRATION OF ALCOHOL
|
|
|
A bottle of nitoglycerin has the label strength of 1/200 grams. What would this strength be in milligrams?
|
0.3 mg
|
|
|
NDC (national drug code): All drugs have an NDC number
|
3 sets of number
5#'s- manufacturer 4#'s- drug name and strength 2#'s- package size ex. 00456-0122-30 |
|
|
Pseudoephedrine, a common ingredient in cold preparations, is contraindicated in which specific disease state?
|
hypertension
|
|
|
Expiration Dates
|
A drug expires 1/09 means it expires january 31st of 2009 at midnight.
50% rule: in a repackaged vial half the way date from the exp date and todays date. If the exp date is years and years than one year from todays date. |
|
|
A pharmacy wants to mark-up a product by thirty percent. How much would an item cost with this mark-up, if it's original cost was $4.50?
|
$5.85
|
|
|
NSAIDs
|
Non steriod Anti-inflammatory drugs
|
|
|
Federal law requires an exact inventory must be kept for what?
|
morphine sulfate
|
|
|
Which drug agency is responsible to regulate medical devices?
|
FDA
|
|
|
The Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
|
Provide information concerning hazardous substances.
|
|
|
An empty capsule number 5 will hold how many milligrams of powder?
|
100 mg
|
|
|
How much diluent do you need to add to 4 gm of powder to get a concentration of 500mg/ml?
|
8 ml
|
|
|
If Domeboro tablets are received from the wholesaler, where should they be stocked?
|
where the Bacitracin ointment is stored
|
|
|
What does DAW mean on a written prescription?
|
The brand name is to be dispensed as written.
|
|
|
The movement of drug molecules across membranes by active means, rather than passive diffusion.
|
active transport
|
|
|
Your pharmacy has recieved a prescription for Ointment XYZ and is not available commercially. The prescription is written for 30 g with 2 refills. According to the FDA guidelines, what is the largest amount your pharmacy can compound when originally filling the prescription in anticipation of refills?
|
90 g
|
|
|
Name a medication which must be crushed?
|
Ecotrin 325mg
|
|
|
The last set of digits of the NDC aare indicative of what?
|
package size
|
|
|
When adding weights to a Class A balance, you should use tweezers because?
|
The oils from your skin will dirty and alter the actual weights
|
|
|
The approximate size container for the dispensing of 180 ml of liquid medication would be?
|
6 ounces
|
|
|
The directions for use of a medication is "i si prn". The meaning of "si" is?
|
under the tongue
|
|
|
A patient asks whether he/she can take a certian medication with another one? As a pharmacy technician, what should you do?
|
Request the patient see the pharmacist for a consult.
|
|
|
What is an OTC drug that can be used to treat asthma?
|
Generic Name - Epinephrine
Trade Names - Adrenalin (inhaler), Bronkaid (IM), Medihaler (SC), Primatene (IV) |
|
|
The doctor writes: ii gtts OU bid. What does this mean?
|
two drops in each eye twice a day.
|
|
|
What type of prescription balance must be used for compouding 120gms of a 1% topical antifungal cream?
|
class A prescription balance
|
|
|
Investigational drugs are regulated by who?
|
FDA
|
|
|
A compounding prescription says to prepare a medication and qs solution to 100ml. This means---
|
Add the appropriate solution to the medication to equal 100 ml
|
|
|
Which of the following books is used for FDA's list of approved drug products?
|
Orange Book
|
|
|
What type of measuring device should be used to measure 3ml of a liquid for compounding?
|
10ml cylindrical gradute
|
|
|
Propranolol is the same as what?
|
Inderal.
|
|
|
A sudden condition requiring immediate treatment.
|
acute condition
|
|
|
Thiazide diuretics are used to do what?
|
Manage the retention of water.
|
|
|
grinding of tablets into a fine powder in a porcelain lortar is an example of?
|
trituration
|
|
|
Which Act deals with the issue of safety caps on prescripton bottles?
|
The Poison Prevention Act
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs should not be stocked on an adult crash cart?
|
Nitroglycerin patches
|
|
|
An example of a major drug-drug interaction would be..?
|
warfarin-aspirin
|
|
|
Amoxicillin oral suspension is stable in a refrigerator for how many days after reconstitution?
|
14 days
|
|
|
The appearance of crystals in mannitol injection would indicate that the product was...?
|
Was exposed to cold.
|
|
|
Drug
|
is a substance intended for the use in the diagnosis, cure, treatment or prevention or disease in human beings or animals
|
|
|
How many 30 mg KMNO4 (Potassium Permanganate) tablets are needed to make the following soluton?
KMNO4 1:5000 600ml? |
4 tablets
|
|
|
Normal Slaine (N.S.) contains:?
|
0.9 % NaCl
|
|
|
Dextrose 25% 1000ml is ordered. You have only dextrose 70% solution available. How much of the dextrose 70% solution and sterile water will you use to fill this order?
|
357 ml dextrose 70% and 643 ml sterile water.
|
|
|
A PCA is used to?
|
Administer controlled analgesics
|
|
|
The Occupational, Safety, Health Administration (OSHA) requires pharmacies to have Material Safety Data Sheets for what?
|
Each hazardous chemical used in the pharmacy.
|
|
|
Digoxin belongs to which drug classification?
|
cardiac glycoside
|
|
|
Of the following group names, which one would be used for a cough?
-antihelmintics -antitussives -antihistamines -anticholinerginics |
-antitussives
|
|
|
Subcutaneous Injections
|
Injected under the skin (insulin)
|
|
|
Tobrex© ophthalmic ung refers to what?
|
An Ointment used for the eye
|
|
|
A virus-caused systemic infection that causes inflammation of the liver
|
acute viral hepatitis
|
|
|
Suspending or thickening agents are added to suspensions to thicken the suspending medium and the sedimentation rate. Which of the following is not a suspending agent?
-carboxymethylcellulose -tragacanth -acacia -bentonite |
Acacia
|
|
|
Intramuscular injections
|
Drug is injected into muscle for slow absorption
|
|
|
Oral Polio Virus Vaccine (Poliovax©) should be stored in a temperature not to exceed 46 degrees Fahrenheit. What is this temperature in Centigrade?
**Use this formula: Centigrade = 5/9(Fahrenheit degrees - 32 degrees)* |
8 degrees C
|
|
|
What is the brand name for benzodiazepine?
|
Klonopin
|
|
|
You recieve a prescription for amoxicillin 75 mg QID for ten days. How many mls of amoxicillin 250 mg/5ml do you need to fill this prescription to last the full ten days?
|
60 ml
|
|
|
Intraarterial injections
|
Drugs injected into artery
|
|
|
The doctor writes for aminophylline 125 mg po QID x 10 days. You only have the solution 250/5 ml. How much would be needed for one dose?
|
1/2 teaspoonful
|
|
|
Lipids should be stored where?
|
At room temperature
|
|
|
Of the following schedules, which one deals with drugs that have no medicinal use in the U.S and have a high abuse potential?
-Schedule I -Schedule II -Schedule III -Schedule IV |
Schedule I
|
|
|
Intratheccal Injections
|
Drug is injected into space surrounding spinal cord
|
|
|
You recieve a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft©) qd x 30 days. What is sertraline?
|
Antidepressent
|
|
|
Name a drug that is likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction?
|
tetracycline
|
|
|
All aseptic manipulations in the laminar flow hood should be performed at least how many inches from within the hood?
|
6 inches within the hood
|
|
|
Intracardiac injections
|
Drug injected into heart
|
|
|
Which auxillary label would be used for a prescription for tetracycline 250 mg capsules?
|
Avoid Dairy Products and Antacids.
|
|
|
What are shingles? Name the anti-viral drug that is used to treat shingles?
|
Shingles is a disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. After an attack of chickenpox, the virus lies dormant in the nerve tissue. As we get older, it is possible for the virus to reappear in the form of shingles.
There is no cure for shingles, but the severity and duration of an attack of shingles can be significantly reduced if patient is treated immediately with antiviral drugs, such as ACYCLOVIR. |
|
|
You recieve an order for kaopecttate 30 ml bid prn. How many tablespoonsful is one dose equal to?
|
2 tablespoons
|
|
|
Intravenous Injections
|
Bolus- drug given all at once
Drip- given over long period of time |
|
|
Which of the following is a Schedule II Controlled Substance?
-diazepam -meperidine -pentazocine -propoxyphene |
Meperidine
|
|
|
What drug in a dose of 20mg qd, is used to treat dyspepsia?
|
Pepcid
|
|
|
If the manufacturer' expiration date for a drug is 12/08, the drug is considered acceptable to dispense until which date?
-12/01/08 -12/31/08 -11/30/08 -1/01/08 |
12/31/08
|
|
|
enteral
|
medications enters digestive tract, then absorbed into blood
|
|
|
The Roman Numerals XLII is equivalant to what?
|
42
|
|
|
When stocking shelves with new stock, you should?
|
Remove all outdated stock first and rotate stock, placing the longer expiration dates to the back.
|
|
|
A small volume intravenous bag specifically used to deliver medication is called an what?
|
IVPB
|
|
|
Parenteral
|
bypasses digestion and enters the blood directly
|
|
|
How many days will the following prescription last?
Prozac© 10mg #120 Sig: 2 po BID |
30 days
|
|
|
The directions for use for Timoptic is ii gtts os bid. What is the meaning of os?
|
left eye
|
|
|
The laminar flow hood should be left operating continuously. If it is turned off, it should not be used until it has been running for at least how long?
|
Thirty Minutes
|
|
|
NS
|
Normal Saline, 0.9% NaCl
|
|
|
Which auxillary label would you use for this particular sig: ii gtts AU bid?
|
For the ear
|
|
|
A drug that is added to a parenteral solution
|
additive
|
|
|
A dose is written for 5mg/kg every either hours for one day. The adult to take this medication weighs 145 lbs. How much drug will be needed to fill this order?
|
989 mg
|
|
|
D5W
|
5% Dextrose in H20
|
|
|
How much medication would be needed for the following order?
Prednisone 10mg, on qid x 4days, on tid x 2 days, one bid x 1 day then stop |
24
|
|
|
What is the Latin abbreviaiton for "after meals"?
|
pc
|
|
|
Benzethidine is in DEA Schedule 1, meaning that benzethidine has/can what?
|
Has no currently accepted medical use in the United States.
|
|
|
Which of the following explanations best defines formulary?
|
A list of drugs that are approved by the P and T committee.
|
|
|
In which controlled substance schedule is Tylenol© No. 2 classified?
|
Schedule III
|
|
|
An order reads "Tylenol 325mg PR q4h prn." What dosage form should tbe dispensed?
|
suppositories
|
|
|
Assuming that one pint is equal to 473 ml, how many pints can be found in one liter?
|
2.1 pints
|
|
|
antibiotic
|
drug that destroys microorganisms
|
|
|
Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by who?
|
State board of pharmacy
|
|
|
A pharmacy technician repacks bulk solid dosage forms into unit dosed packages. What expiration date will appear on the package?
|
50% of labeled expiration date to a maximum of 1 year
|
|
|
Most unit-dose systems provide each patient with a storage bin in which can be found a supply of drugs for how long?
|
twenty-four hours
|
|
|
Which drug is not available in the dosage form described?
|
Prednisone 1mg/ml suspension
|
|
|
The first line of defence against infection/contamination of an IV product is what?
|
handwashing
|
|
|
The abbreviation "PCN" means what?
|
penicillin
|
|
|
HIPAA requires that..?
|
privacy rules are observed for PHI
|
|
|
The increase in effect when two drugs with similar pharmacological actions are taken
|
additive effects
|
|
|
Which of the following medications must be administered in a glass IV container?
|
nitroglycerin
|
|
|
What drug is used as a "RESCUE" from toxicity of methotrexate?
|
leucovorin
|
|
|
Preservative-free drugs must be used when drugs will be injected by which route of administration?
|
intrathecal
|
|
|
A prescription calls for amoxicillin suspension to be compounded. What auxillary label(s) will you place on the container?
|
Keep refrigerated; shake well before using; expiration date.
|
|
|
The two parts of the syringe that should not be touched are what parts?
|
the tip and needle
|
|
|
A patient hands you an empty vial of Ritalin and asked for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do?
|
tell the patient that the medication is not refillable
|
|
|
The sale of what medication is restricted by the Combat Methamphetamine Epidimic Act (CMEA)?
|
Claritin-D 24©
|
|
|
In a hospital setting, how do physicians place their prescription orders?
|
Via medication orders.
In the hospital pharmacy the medication order is the equivalent to the prescription in the retail pharmacy. ALL prescriptions (OTC and Rx) require a medication order. |
|
|
The first five digits of the National Drug Code (NDC) number identifies the...what?
|
Manufacturer
|
|
|
ROM
|
read-only memory
|
|
|
The Orange Book provides information about what?
|
Generic equivalents
|
|
|
What is the proper procedure for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
|
clean the hood from side to side starting from the back of the hood towards the front of the hood
|
|
|
From the following directions how many tablets should be despenced?
2 tabs po qig x 2 days, then 1 tab po tiq x 2 days, then ss po bid x 2 days then dc. |
24
|
|
|
RAM
|
random-access memory. information is defined by user.
|
|
|
What should the last digit be of this DEA number?
AB431762_ |
Five
|
|
|
Of the medications listed below, which one is a CII drug?
|
Meperidine
|
|
|
Aminosyn is an amino acid often used in TPN orders to provide protein for cellular repair and growth. A physician writes an order for aminosyn 2.5% 500ml. You only have aminosym 8.5% 500ml. How are you going to prepare this order using a sterile evacuated container?
|
add 147 ml of aminosyn 8.5% and qs with sterile water to 500 ml
|
|
|
Accupril
|
Generic: quinapril
antihypertensive |
|
|
you are to use 2.4 ml of diluent to reconstitute a vial of medication. What size of syringe should be used?
|
3 ml
|
|
|
Which procedure would you not do when opening an ampule?
|
after wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel
|
|
|
The use of isopropyl alcohol is important as a mean to preven contamination of an IV prodcut. What sould the minimum percent of isopropyl alcohol used be?
|
70%
|
|
|
Aciphex
|
Generic: rabeprazole
for acid reflux |
|
|
Nitroglycerin is provided in a sublingual tablet. this means what?
|
Tablet should be dissolved under the toungue.
|
|
|
A drug added to a prescription to enhance the action of the primary drug ingredient
|
adjuvant
(aj-uh-vuhnt) |
|
|
The percentage or fraction of the administered dose of a drug that actually reaches systemic circulation and the rate at which this occurs is the drugs...
|
bioavailability.
|
|
|
Actonel
|
Risedronate
for osteoporosis |
|
|
The type of formulary that allows the pharmacy to obtain all medications that are prescribed is a(an) what?
|
Therapeutic equivalence
|
|
|
How far within a hood should the pharmacy technician work?
|
at least 6 inches within the hood
|
|
|
Zantac, Tagamet and Pepcid are H2 blockers which are now available over-the-counter (OTC). What are these drugs used for?
|
used to inhibit stomach acid secretion
|
|
|
Actos
|
pioglitazone
for Type II Diabetes |
|
|
A "hospital borne" infection is also known as a _____________ infection.
|
nosocomial
|
|
|
A CII drug can be refilled ?
|
A new prescription is needed for each prescription refill
|
|
|
Of the following drug recalls, which one is the most important in that all parties involved in the dispensing of a prescription (doctor, pharmacy and patient) must be notified due to the drugs potential or serious harm?
-Drug Recall I -Drug Recall II -Drug Recall III -Drug Recall IV |
Drug Recall I
|
|
|
Adderall XR
|
amphetamine
weight loss, stimulant |
|
|
The pharmacist should be alerted if a petient is allergia to codeine and prescribed what instead?
|
Robitussin AC.
|
|
|
What size filter is considered a sterilizing filter?
|
0.22 micron
|
|
|
A prescription for amoxicillin 250 mg #30 has a usual and customary price of $8.49. The acquisition cost of amoxicillin 250mg #30 is $2.02. What is the gross profit?
|
$6.47
|
|
|
Advair
|
salmeterol with fluticasone
asthma |
|
|
A senior citizen is pay for a prescription for penicillin VK 250 mg #30. The usual and customary price is #8.49. However this patient qualifies for a 10% discount. How much does the patient pay?
|
$7.64
|
|
|
ASHP
|
America Society of Health-System Pharmacists
|
|
|
A medication use to reduce a fever is called an what?
|
Antipyretic
|
|
|
Aldactone
|
spironolactone
hypertension |
|
|
A prescription is written for Septra Suspension 240 ml 1 teaspoonful h.s. + 1 refill. The insurance plan has a 34-day supply limitation. How many ml can be dispensed using the insurance plan guidelines?
|
170 ml
|
|
|
How often must a laminar flow hood be checked?
|
every 6 months
|
|
|
A prescription is written for Albuterol Inhaler: Dispense 2 inhalers of 17gm, 2 puffs q.i.d. What is the days supply if there are 200 metered doeses in each inhaler?
|
50
|
|
|
Allegra
|
fexofenadine
allergies |
|
|
A prescription is written for humulin N U-100 insulin 10 ml, 40 units daily. What is the days supply?
|
25
|
|
|
When a drug is recalled and is considered a Class I, this means what?
|
This is the highest level of recall for products that could cause serious illness or may even be fatal.
|
|
|
A prescription is written for Tetracycline HCI suspension 125 mg/5 ml compounded from capsules and a mixture of Ora-Plus 50% and Ora-Sweet 50%. How many capsules of Tetracycline 250 mg are needed to prepare 50 ml of this suspension?
|
5
|
|
|
Allegra D
|
fexophenadine + pseudoepedrine
colds/allergies |
|
|
Convert the Celsius temperature of 100 degrees into degrees Fahrenheit.
|
212
|
|
|
How long may a schedule II drug be refilled?
|
no refills
|
|
|
How many doeses are in a 100 ml bottle of penicillin VK 250 mg/5 ml if each dose is 1/2 teaspoonful?
|
40
|
|
|
Altace
|
ramipril
antihypertensive |
|
|
More than 3/4 of sales from pharmaceutical manufacturers are directly to who?
|
Wholesalers
|
|
|
The resulting solution when a drug is added to a parenteral solution
|
admixture
|
|
|
Which of the following medications is associated with gradual discontinuation of therapy?
|
Medrol
|
|
|
Amaryl
|
glimepiride
Type II Diabetes |
|
|
Alprozolam is a/an:
-narcotic -barbiturate -benzodiazepine -stimulant |
benzodiazepine
|
|
|
If a prescription states "refill prn," for how long may this Rx be refilled?
|
1 year
|
|
|
A prescription for duragesic pathes should be filed under which DEA schedule?
|
Schedule II
|
|
|
Ambien
|
zolpidem
sleep aid |
|
|
Which of the following medications is an antidiarrheal?
-propranolol -famotidine -methylphenidate -loperamide |
lopermide
|
|
|
When repackaging medications into unit dose containers, which of the listed required information does not need to be recorded in a logboook?
|
The patient's name and medical record number.
|
|
|
If a medication is to be taken a.c., it should be taken when?
|
before meals.
|
|
|
Amoxil
|
amoxicillin
anti-infective |
|
|
Name a coronary vasodilator..
|
nitroglycerin
|
|
|
Antivent
|
meclizine
anti-emetic |
|
|
What are the two most common side effects for opioid cough syrup?
|
dizziness and constipation
opioid - def. a drug, hormone, or other chemical substance having sedative or narcotic effects similar to those containing opium or its derivatives |
|
|
Ativan
|
lorazepam
sleep aid, anxiety |
|
|
What ratio of 25% dextrose and 10% DEXTROSE SHOULD BE MIXED TO MAKE A 20% DEXTROSE SOLUTION?
|
2:1
|
|
|
Augmentin w/calvulanate
|
amoxicillin w/clavulanate
antiinfective |
|
|
Within the policies and procedures manual, the requirement for pharmacists to counsel patients on medications they have not taken before is listed under which law?
|
OBRA 90
|
|
|
Apri
|
desogestrel w/ ethinyl estradiol
contraceptive |
|
|
How many 100mg tablets will be needed to make 1/2 liter of a 1:250 solution?
|
20 tablets
|
|
|
Avandia
|
rosiglitazone maleate
type II diabetes |
|
|
An unintended side effect of a medication that is negative or in some way injurious to a patient's health
|
adverse effect
|
|
|
Avapro
|
irbesartan
antihypertensive |
|
|
Codeine, meperidine and oxycodone all belong to which controlled schedule?
|
Schedule II
|
|
|
Aviane
|
levonorgestrel w/ethinyl estradiol
contraceptive |
|
|
The program under the FDA that allows health care professionals to report any adverse reactions is
|
MedWatch
|
|
|
Bactrim
|
trimeth w/ sulfameth
antibiotic |
|
|
A physician prescribes Ceclor 375mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?
|
the Rx lacks a duration of therapy
|
|
|
Bactroban
|
mupirocin
antibiotic |
|
|
Antiviral
|
drug that attacks a virus
|
|
|
Bisoprolol
|
bisoprolol/hctz
antihypertensive |
|
|
How often must controlled sunstances be physically inventoried?
|
once every 2 years
|
|
|
Capoten
|
Captopril
antihypertensive |
|
|
As new stock arrives at the pharmacy, the technician should check the following information on the stock against the invoice:
|
Name, strength, dosage form, quantity, and expiration date
|
|
|
Cardizem
|
diltiazem
angina, hypertension |
|
|
Name two drug classes that have cross sensitivity...
|
penicillin and cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cardura
|
doxazosin
hypertension |
|
|
Drugs that activate receptors to accelerate or slow normal cell function
|
agonist
(ag-uh-nist) |
|
|
Cefzil
|
cefprozil
antibiotic |
|
|
Which government agency is responsible for safety in the workplace?
|
OSHA
|
|
|
Celebrex
|
celecoxib
arthrites |
|
|
Which of the following automated systems is used specifically in hospitals to stock PAR levels of medications on nursing floors?
|
Pyxis
|
|
|
Celexa
|
Citalopram
antidepressant |
|
|
Which dosage form is formulated to dissolve in the intestine rather than the stomach?
|
enteric-coated
|
|
|
Cipro
|
Ciprofloxacin
antibiotic |
|
|
Which government agency regulates pharmacy tech and pharmacist licensure?
|
The State Board of Pharmacy
|
|
|
Clarinex
|
desloratidine
antihistimine |
|
|
Determine the flow rate of an IVPB containing 120ml of gentamicin, if the solution is to be infused over a 1 hour period and the administration set is calibrated to deliver 10 drops per ml.
|
20 gtts/min
|
|
|
Claritin
|
loratidine
antihistamine |
|
|
A drug manufacturer is required by law to recall any product that has been found to violate any of the following guidelines except
|
The drugs sent to the pharmacy were damaged in transit
|
|
|
Cleocin
|
clindamycin
antibiotic |
|
|
A piggyback had 50ml of antibiotic infusing at a rate of 30 gtts/min. How long will it take for this solution to be administered if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
|
25 minutes
|
|
|
Catapres
|
clonidine
antihypertensive |
|
|
A drug with agonist activity at some receptors but antagonist activity at others
|
agonist-antagonist
|
|
|
Combivent
|
ipratropium w/albuterol
asthma |
|
|
How many 10 mg minoxidil tablets would be needed to make 60 ml of a 2 % solution?
|
120 tablets
|
|
|
Concerta
|
methylphenidate
OCD/ADD |
|
|
Where would be the "best" place to store phenol?
|
On the bottom shelf behind cabinet doors
|
|
|
Coreg
|
carvedilol
congestive heart failure |
|
|
Which nongovernmental agency is responsible for the accreditation of institutional settings?
|
JCAHO
|
|
|
Coumedin
|
warfarin
anticoagulant |
|
|
Legend Drugs
|
require a prescription and are not considered safe without medical supervision
|
|
|
Cozaar
|
losartan
antihypertensive |
|
|
The process whereby a drug crosses a membrane into the blood stream is called:
|
absorption
|
|
|
Darvocet N
|
propoxyphene N w/APAP
analgesic |
|
|
Grinding tablets into a fine powder in a porcelain mortar is an example of
|
Trituration
|
|
|
Deltasone
|
prednisone
antiinflammatory |
|
|
What solution is recommended for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
|
isopropyl alcohol
|
|
|
Depakote
|
divalproex
seizures |
|
|
The organs from the mouth to the anus. The GI tract is a portion of this system.
|
alimentary tract
|
|
|
Detrol LA
|
tolterodine
incontinence |
|
|
IF a manufacturer's labeling results in a temporary adverse health consequence, what type of FDA recall would be instituted?
|
Class II
|
|
|
Diabeta
|
glyburide
type II diabetes |
|
|
Which drug agency is responsible for regulating medical devices?
|
FDA
|
|
|
Diflucan
|
fluconazole
antifungal |
|
|
IS the following an acceptable or unacceptable DEA #: AH3126426?
|
unacceptable
|
|
|
Digitek
|
digoxin
congestive heart failure |
|
|
What color do Gram-negative bacteria stain? Gram-positive bacteria?
|
Pink, Purple
|
|
|
Dilantin
|
phenytoin
seizures |
|
|
A compounded prescription requires using 12 capsules costing $30.00 per 50 capsules and 120gm of an ointment base costing $7.50 per pound. If a $5.00 dispensing fee is included, how much should the patient be charged?
|
$14.18
|
|
|
Diovan
|
valsartan
hypertension |
|
|
Which of the following medications is available as an inhaler for asthma?
|
Albuterol
|
|
|
Effexor XR
|
venlafaxine
antidepressant |
|
|
At which temperature should procaine penicillin G be stored?
|
2-8 degrees Centigrade
|
|
|
Elavil
|
amitriptyline
antidepressant |
|
|
A portion of a mixture
|
aliquot
|
|
|
Endocet
|
oxycodone w/apap
narcotic analgesic |
|
|
What is the definition of "controlled room temperature?
|
15-30 degrees Centigrade
|
|
|
Estrace
|
estradiol
hormone replacement |
|
|
Transdermal nitroglycerin would be kept in which section of the pharmacy?
|
The topicals
|
|
|
Evista
|
raloxifine
osteoporosis |
|
|
What characterisitic is not important when preparing an IV admixture?
|
palpability-taste
|
|
|
Flagyl
|
metronidazole
antibiotic |
|
|
antimycobacterial
|
drugs that attacks the organisms that cause TB and leprosy
|
|
|
Flexeril
|
cyclobenzaprine
muscle relaxer |
|
|
Which drug information source would the pharmacy tech. check for a possible drug interaction?
|
Facts and comparisions
|
|
|
Flomax
|
tamsulosin
upper respiratory |
|
|
A pregnant patient arrives with a prescription for temazepam 15mg q hs. What do you do?
|
Alert the pharmacist because this is a pregnancy category X
|
|
|
Flonase
|
fluticasone
allergies |
|
|
Insulin is to added to an IV admixture. What type of insulin may be used?
|
regular
|
|
|
Flovent
|
fluticasone proprionate
asthma |
|
|
The small sacs of specialized tissue that transfer oxygen out of the inspired air into the blood and carbon dioxide out of the blood into the air for expiration
|
alveilar sacs (alveoli)
|
|
|
folic acid
|
vitamin therapy
|
|
|
The process whereby a drug is transformed by the liver is called:
|
metabolism
|
|
|
Fosamax
|
Alendronate
osteoporosis |
|
|
A stat order is called in by the pharmacy by a nurse in the hospital unit. What do you do?
|
You should give the phone to the pharmacist
|
|
|
Glucotrol
|
glipizide
type II diabetes |
|
|
What is "Syrup of Ipecac" indicated for?
|
to induce vomiting
|
|
|
Glucophage
|
metformin
type II diabetes |
|
|
What is the unit dose system?
|
The features of unit-dose system are the following:
1) a copy of the original physician's order is received by the pharmacy and is used as the dispensing document. 2) medications, including liquid and injectible medications, are prepared in ready-to-use forms and are dispensied per individual patient. 3) Individual doses of medications are labeled. 4) the pharmacy receives more pateint information, including drug allergies, weight, and possibly a medication history. 5) no more than a 24 hour supply of medication is dispensed. --The advantages of using this system: 1) reduction in medication errors 2) improved medication control 3) decreased overall cost of medication distribution 4) more precise medication billing |
|
|
Glucovance
|
glyburide with metformin
type II diabetes |
|
|
A patient enters the pharmacy complaining of persistent heartburn. The pharmacy technician should;
|
tell the patient to speak to the pharmacist
|
|
|
Humalog
|
insulin lispro
type I diabetes |
|
|
What is the proper procedure for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
|
Clean the hood starting from the back side to side, top to bottom toward the front.
|
|
|
Hydrodiuril
|
hydrochlorothizide
hypertension |
|
|
Which of the following duties may a pharmacy technician not do?
|
accept a verbal order from a physician
|
|
|
Hytrin
|
terozosin
antihypertensive |
|
|
A part of the lungs where gases are exchanged between blood and the air.
|
alveoli
|
|
|
Hyzaar
|
losartan/hctz
antihypertensive |
|
|
Who implements formulary review?
|
P+T Committee
|
|
|
Imitrex
|
sumatriptan
migraine |
|
|
Which of the agencies listed below is responsible for accreditation of an institutional facility?
|
JCAHO
|
|
|
Imdur
|
isosorbide mononitrate
angina |
|
|
Suprax suspension requires which auxiliary label?
|
Shake Well
|
|
|
Inderal
|
propanolol
hypertension, angina |
|
|
What term is used for the science that deals with the origin, nature, chemistry, effects, and uses of drugs and their interaction with the systems of living animals
|
Pharmacology
|
|
|
Keflex
|
cephalexin
antibiotic |
|
|
Cleocin suspension is available in a concentration of 75mg/5ml.How many ml are required for a 300mg dose?
|
20ml
|
|
|
Kenalog
|
triamcinolone
topical anti-inflammatory |
|
|
The main purpose of OSHA is to?
|
Ensure the safety of the workplace
|
|
|
klonopin
|
clonazepam
seizures |
|
|
Tagamet IV has been ordered to run at 2.5 drops/min. It contains 875mg of Tagamet in a total of 250ml. How many milligrams of Tagamet will the patient receive per hour of the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
|
35mg/hr
|
|
|
Lanoxin
|
digoxin
congestive heart failure |
|
|
Sealed glass containers with an elongated neck that must be snapped off.
|
ampules
(am-pyool) |
|
|
Lasix
|
furosemide
diuretic |
|
|
Another pharmacy calls for a copy of an Rx and the pharmacist is busy counselling a patient. The pahr. tech should:
|
tell them that the pharmacist is busy and to call back later
|
|
|
Levaquin
|
levofloxacin
antibiotic |
|
|
The MSDS contains what type of information?
|
The ingredients and specifics of all types of products
|
|
|
Levothroid
|
levothyroxine
hyperthyroid |
|
|
Digoxin is available in alconcentration of 0.1mg/ml. How many ml are required to administer a 75mcg dose?
|
0.75ml
|
|
|
Levoxyl
|
levothyroxine
hyperthyroid |
|
|
What is a long term effect of alcoholism?
|
Alcohol, in the long term, induces brain atrophy and decreases intellectual function.
|
|
|
Lipitor
|
atorvastatin
lipid-lowering drug |
|
|
Heparin is available in a vial labeled 20,000U/ml. How many ml are required for a 12,500U dose?
|
0.625ml
|
|
|
Lopid
|
gemfibrozil
lipid-lowering drug |
|
|
A computer program used for dispensing medication in the pharmacy setting is referred to as?
|
Software
|
|
|
Lopressor
|
metoprolol
angina, hypertension |
|
|
Mylanta and Donnatal are to be combined in a 2:1 ratio. How much of each is required to make a 90ml of the suspension?
|
60ml/30ml
|
|
|
Lotensin
|
benazepril
angina, hypertension |
|
|
A potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction producing severe respiratory distress and cardiovascular collapse (arrest).
|
anaphylactic shock
|
|
|
Lotrel
|
amolodipine w/benazepril
antihypertensive |
|
|
The directions for use of a medication are "ii gtts au q4hx5d." The proper interpretation of "au" is:
|
in both ears
|
|
|
Macrobid
|
Nitrofurantoin
urinary antiseptic |
|
|
Materials management refers to ?
|
Inventory control,
Drug storage & The drug procurement process |
|
|
Microgestin FE
|
norethindrone w/ethynl estradiol
contraceptive |
|
|
What is the proper method of measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder?
|
hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus
|
|
|
Minocin
|
minocycline
antibiotic |
|
|
antiprotozoal
|
drugs that destroy protozoa
|
|
|
Mircette
|
desogesterol w/ ethinyl estradiol
contraceptive |
|
|
The purpose of OSHA is to:
|
assure a safe workplace
|
|
|
Motrin
|
ibuprofen
NSAID |
|
|
If a pharmacy pricing formulary is the AWP plus 4.5 and the AWP is $90 for 100 tablets, what is the charge to the customer for a prescription of 30 tablets?
|
$31.50
|
|
|
Monopril
|
fosinopril
antihypertensive |
|
|
According to federal law, controlled substances must be safeguarded by:
|
dispensing records, storage records and inventory records, NOT transport records
|
|
|
Mycostapin
|
nystatin
topical antifungal |
|
|
Without water molecules
|
anhydrous
|
|
|
Naprosyn
|
naproxen
anti inflammatory |
|
|
The process of producing a smooth dispersion of a drug with a spatula is called:
|
levigation
|
|
|
Nasacort AQ
|
triamcinolone acetonide
allergies |
|
|
The cost of 100 tablets of a bottle of aspirin is $1.50. What would the dispensing charge be to yield a 50% gross profit?
|
$2.25
|
|
|
Nasonex
|
mometosone
allergies |
|
|
Which of the following groups is usually not a member of the P+T Committee?
|
dental representative
|
|
|
Necon
|
ethinyl estradiol w/norethindrone
contraceptive |
|
|
What are some Schedule 5 drugs?
|
Cough syrup with codeine,
Lomotil (diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine sulfate) |
|
|
Neurontin
|
gabapentin
anti-seizure |
|
|
The purpose of the P+T Committee is to:
|
establish and maintain drug formularysystem,recommend policies regarding investigational drugs, collect data from drug utilization review
|
|
|
Nexium
|
esomeprazole
acid reflux |
|
|
What program is administered by individual states?
|
Medicaid
|
|
|
Nolvadex
|
tamoxifen
breast cancer |
|
|
Name a three beta blocking agents.
|
Normodyne, Tenormin, Lopressor
|
|
|
Norvasc
|
amlodipine
antidepressant |
|
|
Male sex hormones
|
androgens
|
|
|
Ortho Tri-Cyclen and Ortho Cyclen
|
norgestimate w/ethnyl estradiol
contraceptive |
|
|
The AWP for a gallon (3785ml) of antihistamine/antitussive cough syrup is $18.75, with an additional 20% discount from the wholesaler. What is the cost of 1 pint of th emedication?
|
$1.87
|
|
|
Oxycontin
|
oxycodone\
analgesic |
|
|
AWP can be found in which book?
|
Drug Topics Red Book
|
|
|
Paxil
|
paroxetine
antidepressant |
|
|
The "C" designation for the controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription:
|
in red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx
|
|
|
Pamelor
|
nortriptyline
antidepressant |
|
|
OTC (Over The Counter)
|
does not require a prescription and are considered safe without medical supervision
|
|
|
Pen Vee K
|
penicillin VK
antibiotic |
|
|
The device that links computers via communication lines is called the:
|
modem
|
|
|
Pepcid
|
famotidine
acid reducer |
|
|
If a manufacturer's invoice totals $520.00 with the terms 2% net, what amount should be remitted if it is paid within 30 days?
|
$509.60
|
|
|
Percocet
|
oxycodone w/APAP
analgesic |
|
|
A MSDS provided what type of product information?
|
information regarding product ingredients
|
|
|
Procardia
|
nifedipine
angina, hypertension |
|
|
A deficiency of red blood cells in blood
|
anemia
|
|
|
Plavix
|
clopidogrel
antithrombotic |
|
|
The directions a prescription for prednisone 5mg tablets reads: Sig:2tabs po bid for 3 days, 3 tabs po qd for 2 days, 2 tabs po qd for 2 days, 1 tab po qd for 1 day then 1/2 tab po qd for 1 day. How Many tablets should be dispensed?
|
24 tablets
|
|
|
Provera
|
medoxyprogesterone
progesterone |
|
|
When choosing between state and federal requirements, which take precedence?
|
The most stringent
|
|
|
Prozac
|
fluoxetine
antidepressant |
|
|
A vial of reconstituted Adriamycin breaks inside a vertical flow hood. What should the tech.do?
|
clean up the spill with a "spill kit"
|
|
|
Pravachol
|
pravastatin
lipid-lowering drug |
|
|
What are some effects of antipsychotic medications?
|
Extrapyramidal symptoms, often abbreviated EPS, is a neurological side effect of antipsychotic medication.
|
|
|
Premarin and Preempro
|
conjugated estrogens
|
|
|
The Roamn numerals XLII is equivalent to :
|
42
|
|
|
Prevacid
|
lansoprazole
acid reflux |
|
|
A person who is over 65 years of age, who is disabled, or who has kidney failure would be covered by what insurance?
|
Medicaid
|
|
|
Prilosec
|
omeprozole
acid reflux |
|
|
The phar.tech. is asked to assist in the compounding of a lotion. In what drug information source would this information be looked up?
|
Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences
|
|
|
Prinivil
|
lisinopril
antihypertensive |
|
|
Drugs that bind with receptors but do not activate them. They block receptor action by preventing other drugs or substances from activating them.
|
antagonist
|
|
|
Phenergan
|
promethazine
antihistimine, anti emetic |
|
|
If a pahr. tech. discovers a medication has expired, he/she should:
|
follow the manufacturers return policy
|
|
|
Proventil, Ventolin
|
albuterol, asthma
|
|
|
Online processing of a third-party claim to determine payment is called?
|
Adjudication
|
|
|
Protonix
|
pantoprazole
acid reflux |
|
|
What protective apparel must be worn when reconstituting a chemotherapeutic agent?
|
2 pair of gloves, a gown and mask
|
|
|
Reglan
|
metoclomapride
|
|
|
antihelminthic
|
drug that destroys worms
|
|
|
Remeron
|
mirtazapine
|
|
|
1+1/2 tablespoonsful is equivalent to how many ml?
|
22.5ml
|
|
|
Restoril
|
tamazepam
sleep aid |
|
|
A substance which harms or kills microorganisns like bacteria and fungi.
|
antibiotic
|
|
|
Rhinocort
|
budesonide
antiinflammatory |
|
|
How many ounces are contained in one pint?
|
16
|
|
|
Risperdal
|
risperodone
antipsychotic |
|
|
The recommended storage temperature for unopened Xalantin is
|
2 degrees to 8 degrees Celsius (36 to 46 degrees Farhenheit
|
|
|
Serevent
|
salmeterol
asthma |
|
|
Heparin belongs to which pharmacological category?
|
anticoagulant
|
|
|
Seroquel
|
quetiapine
antipsychotic |
|
|
What is MAOI? What should patients taking MAOI avoid?
|
MAOI is an acronym for Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are a class of antidepressants used for the treatment of depression. Those on MAOI should avoid any fermented foods (wine, cheese, yogurt, etc). Also, do not mix with SSRI class of drugs (ex - prozac). |
|
|
Sinemet
|
carbidopa w/levidopa
Parkinson's disease |
|
|
When a drug is filtered by the kidney int othe bladder, this process is called:
|
elimination
|
|
|
Singulair
|
montelukast
asthma |
|
|
What are the intravenous medications, which can be mixed with NS?
|
Cefazolin, Ampicillin, and Primaxin
|
|
|
Skelaxin
|
metaxolone
muscle relaxant |
|
|
The computer program used for dispensing medication in the pharmacy setting is referred to as:
|
software
|
|
|
Somal
|
carisoprodol
muscle relaxant |
|
|
A common home infusion service used for treating AIDS-related and other infections
|
antibiotic therapy
|
|
|
Synthroid
|
levothyroxine
hyperthyroidism |
|
|
Goals, Policies, Procedures, and Mission Statements are all examples of:
|
strategic planning
|
|
|
Tenormin
|
atenolol
antiinflammatory |
|
|
Of the needles listed which is in order from the smallest to the largest that are used in pharmacy?
|
27 gauge; 19 gauge; 18 gauge; 16 gauge
|
|
|
Tesyrel
|
trazodone
antidepressant |
|
|
THe drug Pronestyl is ...
|
an antiarrhythmic
|
|
|
145. ἵστημι
|
145. ἵστημι
I place, set, stand, stop |
|
|
PTEC
|
Pharmacy Technician Educator's Council
|
|
|
Tiazac
|
diltiazem
angina, hypertension |
|
|
The dispensing label on an outpatient pharmacy prescription requires:
|
legal name of pharmacy and address
|
|
|
Timoptic
|
timolol maleate
glaucoma |
|
|
Cyanocobalamin is what type of vitamin?
|
Vitamin B12
|
|
|
Topamax
|
topiramate
anti-seizure |
|
|
A TPN order is to contain 2mg/l of folic acid. If the stock vial of Folic acid contains 5mg/ml, what volume would be required to prepare 3000ml of TNP
|
1.2 ml
|
|
|
Toprol XL
|
metoprolol
angina, hypertension |
|
|
Compunding in advance of expected need
|
anticipatory compunding
|
|
|
Tricor
|
fenofibrate
lipid-lowering drug |
|
|
Efudex cream
|
should be applied with gloves or a nonmetalic object
|
|
|
Trivora 28
|
levonorgestrel w/ethnyl estradiol
contraceptive |
|
|
A person weighing 67 kg is how many pounds?
|
147.4 lbs.
|
|
|
Ultracet
|
tramadol w/acetaminophen
analgesic |
|
|
Therapeutic equivalency indicates that the two drugs...
|
have the same quantity of active ingredient
|
|
|
Ultram
|
tramadol
narcotic analgesic |
|
|
To what antimicrobial drug is there a high rate of resistance to by the bacteria "Staphylococcus"
|
Penicilin
|
|
|
Valium
|
diazepam
seizures, anxiety |
|
|
Material management refers to
|
the drug procurement process, inventory control, and drug storage
|
|
|
Valtrex
|
valacyclovir
antiviral |
|
|
A prescription for a buccal tablet would be labeled ____
|
Place against the inside of the cheek
|
|
|
Vasotec
|
enalapril
antihypertensive |
|
|
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
|
Schedule II,III,IV, or V controlled substances
|
|
|
Viagra
|
sildenafil citrate
erectile dysfunction |
|
|
A drug that antagonizes the toxic effect of another drug.
|
antidote
|
|
|
Vibramycin
|
doxycycline
antibiotic |
|
|
Carbamazepine is an ...
|
anticonvulsant
|
|
|
Vicodin, Lortab
|
hydrocodone w/apap analgesic
|
|
|
An order of insulin is added to a TPN bag. The directions are to add a 100 units of insulin NPH. You draw up 10 ml of insulin, to push it into the bag. Is there anything wrong with this scenario?
|
You have added 10 times too much insulin.
|
|
|
Vioxx
|
rofecoxib
arthritis |
|
|
The appearance of crystals in mannitol injection indicates:
|
that the solution is cold and the crystals may be redissolved
|
|
|
Voltaren
|
diclofenac
pain |
|
|
bactericidal
|
Bacterial killing
|
|
|
Wellbutrin SR
|
buproprion HCL
antidepressant |
|
|
The phar. tech is asked to divide 5 liters of Nilstat suspension into an equal number of 10ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity of suspension?
|
200
|
|
|
Xalatan
|
latanprost
glaucoma |
|
|
What solution should not be stored at 10 degrees celsius?
|
Mannitol solution
|
|
|
Xanax
|
alprazolam
anxiety |
|
|
The initial dose of aminophylline for a non-smoking adult is 0.7mg/kg/hr for 12 hours. How many ml of an IV solution containing 400mg per 100ml would be required for a 154lbs male over this 12 hour period?
|
147ml
|
|
|
Zantac
|
ranitidine
acid reducer |
|
|
Drugs that lower cholesterol and triglyceride levels
|
antihyperlipidemics
|
|
|
Zestoretic
|
lisinopril/hctz
hypertension |
|
|
How many milliliters are contained in 1 1/2 tbsp. of liquid?
|
22.5 ml
|
|
|
Zestril
|
lisinopril
hypertension |
|
|
What is the form DEA-41 used for?
|
Once controlled drugs are destroyed, the DEA requires the submission of this form.
|
|
|
Zithromax
|
azithromycin
antibiotic |
|
|
Nocosomial infections are found to originate in _____.
|
In hospitals
|
|
|
Zocor
|
simvastatin
lipid lowering drug |
|
|
A substance that acts against a toxin in the body; also, a vaccine containing antitoxins, used to fight disease.
|
antitoxin
|
|
|
Zoloft
|
sertraline
depression |
|
|
Which of the drugs listed is a schedule IV drug?
|
Ativan
|
|
|
Zovirax
|
acyclovir
herpes/viral infection |
|
|
Prescription
|
is an order for a medication or medical device, issued by a licensed prescriber
|
|
|
Zyloprim
|
allopurinol
gout |
|
|
If a dose of medication is to be given at 0600, 1400, and 2200, the doses are given at what times?
|
6 AM, 2 PM, and 10 PM
|
|
|
Zyprexa
|
olanzapine
antipsychotic |
|
|
The term half life refers to ______.
|
The amount of time it takes a chemical to be decreased by half of its strength.
|
|
|
Zyrtec
|
cetirizine
antihistamine |
|
|
A drug that acts against a cough.
|
antitussive
|
|
|
a.s
|
left ear
|
|
|
The term prophylaxis means____.
|
Preventative treatment
|
|
|
a.u
|
each ear
|
|
|
Why is it important to track the dispensing of drugs and medications?
|
So that we can ensure proper use of medication.
|
|
|
o.d
|
right eye
|
|
|
Of the diagnostic devices listed below, which one is used for urinalysis?
|
Diastix
|
|
|
o.s
|
left eye
|
|
|
Water based.
|
aqueous
|
|
|
o.u
|
both eyes
|
|
|
Of the following drug combinations, which would be a drug-drug interaction?
|
Coumadin and aspirin
|
|
|
Finding milliequivalence
|
Add molecular weights. Divide by charge for g needed to make 1 Eq
|
|
|
bacteriostatic
|
Bacteria inhibiting
|
|
|
If nitroglycerin sl 1/200 grains was ordered, what strength would you take from the shelf to fill this order?
|
0.3 mg (Chapter 8)
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs causes photosensitivity?
ibuprofen carbamazepine tetracycline |
both carbamazepine and tetracycline
|
|
|
The knob on a balance that prevents any movement of the balance pans.
|
arrest knob
|
|
|
Which of the following must be on an order for lasix tablets when it is presented to the pharmacy?
DOB Patient Address Drug Strength Allergies |
Drug strength
|
|
|
Extemporaneous compounding is when _____.
|
When a mortar and pestle is used to mix medication.
|
|
|
What are some duties of a long-term care pharmacist?
|
Distribution and consultation
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs does not require special handling and/or protective clothing?
Medrol injection Adriamycin injection mannitol injection vincristine injection |
mannitol injection
|
|
|
Which drug listed below is not an SSRI?
|
Elavil
|
|
|
Methods that maintain the sterile condition of products
|
aseptic techniques
|
|
|
Which drug listed is an antiviral?
|
Zovirax
|
|
|
Treatment for Malaria
|
quinine, made from the bark of the Cinchona tree
(also called "Jesuit's powder") |
|
|
Which of the following is not available by injection?
Zantac Micronase Medrol Lasix |
Micronase
|
|
|
Which of the drugs listed is an SSRI?
|
Celexa
|
|
|
Which of the following might be contraindicated in a person with diabetes?
Procardia Indocin Isuprel Micronase |
Isuprel
|
|
|
A system in which medications are dispensed from an automated unit at the point of use upon confirmation of an order communicated by computer from a central system.
|
automated dispensing system
|
|
|
The main indication for the drug triamterene/HCTZ is ______.
|
Diuretic
|
|
|
An example of a drug-drug interaction might be
Procardia and verapamil Coumadin and Tegretol Naprosyn and Ceclor acetaminophen and Tylenol # 3 |
Coumadin and Tegretol
|
|
|
What do the following abbreviations translate into?
1) buccal 2) SL 3) IV 4) PV 5) PR 6) SC/SQ 7) ID |
1) Buccal - Between the cheeck and gum
2) SL - sublingual 3) IV - intravenous 4) PV - per vagina 5) PR - per rectum 6) SC/SQ - subcutaneous 7) ID - intradermal |
|
|
2 drugs that synergize to produce an abnormally high level of toxicity are
|
streptomycin and furosemide
|
|
|
The main indication for the drug phenytoin is ______.
|
Anticonvulscant
|
|
|
Automated machines that fill and label pull bottles with correct quantities of ordered drugs
|
automated filling machines
|
|
|
The abbreviation ac means
|
Before meals
|
|
|
Which of the following is available as an inhaler for use by asthmatics
Calan Lopid Dyazide Vanceril |
Vanceril
|
|
|
virustatic
|
drug that inhibits the growth of viruses
|
|
|
A patient is taking aspirin. He is prescribed the following drugs. Which drugs would require that he change his pain reliever to acetaminophen?
Coumadin Nicar Ticlid |
Both Coumadin and Ticlid
|
|
|
The abbreviation Rx means
|
Prescription
|
|
|
Which are delayed release?
Cytotec Prilosec Prevacid |
Prilosec and Prevacid
|
|
|
Labels regarding specific warnings, foods, or medications to avoid, potential side effects, and so on.
|
auxiliary labels
|
|
|
Which of the following may cause smooth muscle contraction and possibly premature labor?
Carafate Misoprostol Nexium Citrucel |
Misoprostol
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs is an H2 antagonist?
|
Tagamet
|
|
|
A patient taking cyanocobalamin is taking
|
Vitamin B12
|
|
|
Who is responsible for restocking drugs?
|
The pharmacist and the pharmacy technician.
|
|
|
The drug Betagan would be used _____.
|
In the eye
|
|
|
Kills bacteria
|
bactericidal
|
|
|
The drug metronidazole comes in which dosage forms?
|
Tablets, capsules, Injectable, lotion, cream, and gel.
|
|
|
Dispensing directions
|
name, strength, dosage form, quantity and directions for use
|
|
|
The trade name for fluvastatin is _____.
|
Lescol
|
|
|
Retards bacteria growth
|
bacteriostatic
|
|
|
The trade name for glyburide is ______.
|
Micronase
|
|
|
What does the term "mic" stand for?
|
mic = minimum inhibition concentration;
When administering antimicrobial drugs, follow the "mic" standard so that the dosage is not too high or too low. If it is too low, the bacteria can grow resistant to the treatment. If it is too high, it can lead to an excess amount of unnecessary drugs in the system. |
|
|
Which of the books listed is related most closely to the information contained in patient package inserts?
|
PDR
|
|
|
An angled surface at the tip of a needle
|
bevel
|
|
|
If a patient is allergic to penicillin and comes in with a prescription for Keflex, what should you know?
|
The patient might have sensitivity to this medication as well. Notify the registered pharmacist.
|
|
|
antineoplastic
|
Drug that inhibits new growth of cancer cells
|
|
|
KCI is an abbreviation for:_____.
|
Potassium chloride
|
|
|
a date assigned to a compounded prescription telling the patient when the formulation should no longer be taken
|
beyond-use date
|
|
|
You receive a prescription for a 5-year old patient for Cipro 500-mg tablets with instructions take 1 tab bid x 10 days. You would bring this to the attention of the pharmacist because ______.
|
The strength of the drug written is very high for a child. Notify the registered pharmacist.
|
|
|
What are the combination of drugs used to treat TB?
|
Isonazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide.
|
|
|
The amount of hydrocortisone powder needed to prepare 8 oz of 2% hydrocortisone cream is _______.
|
4.8 g
|
|
|
The relative amount of an administered dose that reaches the general circulation and the rate at which this occurs
|
bioavailability
|
|
|
The medication that needs to be protected from light in a special container is _____.
|
Nitroglycerin
|
|
|
PTCE, PTCB, CPhT
|
Pharmacy Technician Certification
|
|
|
If the infusion rate of an IV is 1000 ml over 10 hours and the drop factor is 15 gtt/ml, what is the drops per minute?
|
25 gtt/min
|
|
|
Not irritating-, infection-, or abscess-causing to body tissue.
|
bicompatibility
|
|
|
How many drams are in 16 oz of solution?
|
120 drams
|
|
|
What are diuretic drugs? Why are they administered?
|
Diuretic drugs are substances or drugs that tend to increase the discharge of urine. In essence, they are "water pills" and they are used to treat hypertension by reducing the amount of water in the body and, thus, relieving the heart from pumping so much liquid.
|
|
|
How many grams of drug are in 500ml of solution if it is a 40% solution?
|
200g (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
The comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms.
|
bioequivalence
|
|
|
How many milliliters of 35% acetic acid must be mixed with 15% acetic acid to give 1000ml of 10% acetic acid?
|
166.7 ml 35%; 833.3 ml of 15% (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
Inventory
|
Pharmacy products or merchandise that is available to meet future demands of customers
|
|
|
To prepare 500 ml of a 5% dextrose solution, you must use your available stock of 2% and 10% dextrose. How much of each will you need to prepare the order?
|
312.5 ml of 2%; 187.5 ml of 10% (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
The study of the factors associated with drug products and physiological proceses, and the resulting systemic concentrations of the drugs
|
biopharmaceutics
|
|
|
You receive an order for 1500 ml of 5% dextrose over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/ml. What will the drops be per minute on this order?
|
31.2 gtt/min
|
|
|
What are antimetabolite drugs?
|
A group of anti-cancer drugs which prevent cells growing and dividing by blocking the chemical reactions required in the dividing by blocking the chemical reactions required in the cell to produce DNA.
Drugs of this type include 6 mercaptopurine, azathioprine, thioguanine, methotrexate. |
|
|
An oral suspension comes in 100mg/5 ml. The doctor orders 0.25g PO tid. How many milliliters will this patient receive daily?
|
12.5 ml
|
|
|
Another term for an antagonist drug, because antagonists block the action of neurotransmitters
|
blocker
|
|
|
A doctor orders gentamicin 3mg/kg/day for a 75-lb child. How many milligrams will the child receive per day? You have in stock gentamicin 80mg/ml
|
102.3 mg/day (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
Generic Name
|
a contraction of the chemical name, sometimes indicating the chemical class to which the drug belongs to and is properly referred to as its nonproprietary name
|
|
|
Using your penicillin injectable stock of 125,000 units/ml, how many milliliters will it take to prepare 1 million units?
|
8 ml
|
|
|
A measure used for dosage that is calculated from the height and weight of a person and measured in square meters
|
body surface area
|
|
|
You receive an order for Demerol 20 mg IM. Your supply is Demerol 50mg/ml. How much will you draw into a syringe?
|
0.4 ml
|
|
|
What are some seizure medications?
|
Trade Name - Dilantin
Generic Name - Phenytoin Drug Class - Hydentoin |
|
|
A doctor prescribes his patient Vasotec7.5 mg PO bid x 30 days. You have 5-mg tablets in stock. How many will it take to fill this script?
|
90 tablets
|
|
|
A medication that decongests the bronchial tubes
|
bronchodilators
|
|
|
There is an order for epinephrine 10 mg stat. How much will you draw into a syringe from a 10-ml vial of epinephrine 1:1000?
|
10 ml (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
Inventory Control
|
A procedure whereby products are purchased in sufficient quantity to meet the anticipated demands of purchasers while controlling inventory size to generate optimal profits
|
|
|
You need to prepare a dose of lidocaine 500 mg with your supply, which is a 10-ml vial of 2% lidocaine. How much should you draw up into a syringe?
|
2.5 ml (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
A narrowing of the bronchi, accompanied by wheezing and coughing, i.e., an "asthma attack"
|
bronchospasm
|
|
|
A prescription order for neomycin 0.75 g PO bid x 30 days is submitted. In stock you have 500-mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient use per day?
|
3 tablets daily
|
|
|
What are H1 and H2?
|
H1 = hystemins and they are normally associated with allergies.
H2 = associated with GI. |
|
|
How many grams of 0.45% normal saline and 5% dextrose are in a 1-L bag of IV solution?
|
4.5g of the 0.45% NS; 50 g of 5% dextrose.
|
|
|
Inside the cheek
|
buccal
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs requires an auxillary label stating that "This drug may cause discoloration of the urine?
|
Pyridium
|
|
|
What is the study of the uses of drugs in teh treatment of disease?
|
Pharmacotherapeutics
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs is not a laxative?
|
Imodium
|
|
|
Ingredients in a formulation designed to control the pH
|
buffer system
|
|
|
The Roman numeral CL is equivalent to____.
|
150
|
|
|
What drugs are commonly ordered in mEq?
|
mEq = one-thousandth of an equivalent.
Drugs with Mg, Potassium and Sodium Bicarbonate are commonly ordered in mEq. |
|
|
You have a vial of heparin 20,000 units/ml. How many millimeters are needed for a 12,500 unit dose?
|
0.625 ml (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
Drugs that lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels
|
calcium channel blockers
|
|
|
A prescription is ordered for clindamycin suspension. You have 75mg/5ml in stock. How many millimeters are needed for a 300-mg dose for 7 days?
|
140 ml
|
|
|
Turnover rate
|
the number of times a product is purchased sold and replaced during a specific accounting period
|
|
|
Syrup of ipecac is indicated for what type of result?
|
Emesis
|
|
|
To set, mark, or check the graduations of a measuring device
|
calibrate
|
|
|
When insulin is added to a TPN, which type is used?
|
Regular
|
|
|
What is guanethidine commonly used for?
|
Guanethidine is used to treat high blood pressure. It works by decreasing your heart rate and relaxing the blood vessels so that blood can flow more easily through the body. WARNING: Due to severe side effects, guanethidine is no longer available in the U.S.
|
|
|
The type of measuring device used to measure out 2.5 ml of solution would be _____.
|
A 10-ml oral dose syringe
|
|
|
The ability of a substance to cause cancer
|
carcinogencity
(car·ci·no·ge·nic·i·ty) |
|
|
A prescription is given to you for a medication which has the following sig: Take 1 tab sl prn. This translates to _____.
|
Take one tablet sublingual as needed.
|
|
|
Chemical Name
|
describes the structure of the drug by standard chemical nomenclature
|
|
|
The four middle numbers of the NDC represent ______.
|
The product, strength, and dosage form.
|
|
|
A type of ion
|
cation
|
|
|
The drug Prilosec is classified as a _______.
|
Proton pump inhibitor
|
|
|
What is emulsion?
|
1. A mixture of two immiscible (unblendable) substances. One substance (the dispersed phase) is dispersed in the other (the continuous phase).
2. A suspension of small globules of one liquid in a second liquid with which the first will not mix. |
|
|
Which auxillary label(s) would need to be attached to the drug Orap?
|
Do not take if you are breastfeeding.(and) Do not take with grapefruit juice.
|
|
|
A system in which all pharmacy activities in the hospital are conducted at one location, the inpatient pharmacy
|
centralized pharmacy system
|
|
|
Of the drugs below, which one is not indicated to lower cholesterol?
|
Zaroxolyn
|
|
|
drug theft
|
illegally obtaining any medication
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs needs to be prepared in a laminar horizontal flow hood?
|
Nebcin and Septra
|
|
|
A continuing condition that requires ongoing treatment for a prolonged period.
|
chronic condition
|
|
|
If you have a 70% dextrose solution, how many grams are in 50ml of solution?
|
35g (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
Identify the following abbreviations:
1) NPO 2) Stat 3) PRN |
1) Nothing by mouth
2) Immediately 3) As needed |
|
|
You receive an order for 10mEq of magnesium sulfate to be added to a TPN. You have a 50-ml vial of 4 mEq/ml of magnesium sulfate in stock. How much do you need to inject into the TPN?
|
2.5 ml (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
A chronic and potentially fatal liver disease causing loss of function and increased resistance to blood flow through the liver
|
cirrosis
(si-roh-sis) |
|
|
What volume of a 2% erythromycin solution can be made from 15g of erythromycin powder?
|
750 ml (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
Food and Drug Act of 1906
|
adulterated or misbranded
|
|
|
A prescription is written for Penicillin Vee K susp 500-mg PO qid for 10 days. What volume of a 250mg/5ml suspension will need to be dispensed to fill the order for 10 days?
|
400 ml (Chapter 4)
|
|
|
Areas designed for the preparation of sterile products
|
clean rooms
|
|
|
Estraderm is available in which type of dosage form?
|
Topical patch
|
|
|
What are antiestrogen drugs and what are they used for?
|
Antiestrogen: A substance that can prevent the full expression of estrogen.
Antiestrogens act by exerting antagonistic effects on target tissues (androgens and progestogens act in this way) or by competing with estrogens for access to receptor sites located on the cell surface. For example, the drug tamoxifen (brand name: Nolvadex) is an antiestrogen that is used in the treatment of breast cancer and to reduce the breast cancer incidence in high-risk women. |
|
|
How many doses of Zinacef 500-mg can be prepared from 10 gm bulk vial?
|
200 doses
|
|
|
A limited list of approved medications
|
closed formulary
|
|
|
Gentamicin can be given in which forms?
|
Intravenous and opthalmic
|
|
|
drug diversion
|
health professionals stealing narcotics for personal/recreational use
|
|
|
Which of the drugs listed below is not a cephalosporin?
|
Clarithromycin
|
|
|
An agreement for cost-sharing between the insurer and the insured
|
co-insurance
|
|
|
A prescription for APAP #4 contains how much codeine?
|
60 mg
|
|
|
When did the Industrial Era occur? How did the Industrial Era affect the practice of pharmacy today?
|
Era of relevance is late 19th century, specifically 1867-1940. The impetus for industrialization becoming a factor in the practice of pharmacy in America was the occurrence of major wars: the Civil War, World War I, and World War II. These major conflicts led to the development of weapons capable of causing increasingly serious and more frequent injuries. This, in turn, led to a greater demand for medicines, which in turn demanded a major shift in the process of medicine production. The most important manufacturing advance in the industrialization of the practice of pharmacy was the development of new machines for rapid mass production of medicines.
|
|
|
A prescription with directions to instill iii gtts OS qod would require the label to read ______.
|
Instill three drops into the left eye every other day.
|
|
|
The portion of the price of medication that the patient is required to pay
|
co-pay
|
|
|
Which of the following agents are sympathomimetic decongestants?
|
Pseudophedrine
|
|
|
Label Requirements
|
referred to as “dispensing labels”
|
|
|
Trace elements are used in the following solutions _______.
|
TPNs
|
|
|
A locked cart of medications designed for emergency use only
|
code carts
|
|
|
A patient requests valid refills of a rabeprazole and albuterol inhaler. Which two medications should be filled?
|
Aciphex and Ventolin
|
|
|
What is form DEA-106 used for?
|
When a robbery and/or theft occurs at a pharmacy, the DEA requires pharmacies to submit a DEA-106 with a detail account of what was lost/stolen.
|
|
|
Which of the following DEA numbers is correct for Dr. Paul J. Hanson?
|
AH 1234575
|
|
|
Particles up to a hundred times smaller than those in suspensions that are, however, likewise suspended in a solution
|
colloids
|
|
|
When a prescription inhaler is dispensed, how often should a patient package insert be given to the patient?
|
The first time the prescription is filled.
|
|
|
chemotherapy
|
any type of drug therapy but has usually describes drugs that kill a causative organ usually without harming the patient.
Usually treats CANCER |
|
|
Congestion is not a side effect of...
|
Captopril (ACE inhibitor)
|
|
|
Federal law that sets daily and monthly limits on OTC sale of pseudoephedrine and ephedrine
|
CMEA - Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act
|
|
|
Sexual Dysfunction is not a side effect of....
|
Nifedipine (vasodilator)
|
|
|
What are "orphan drugs"?
|
The granting of the orphan drug status is designed to encourage the development of drugs which are necessary but would be prohibitively expensive/un-profitable to develop under normal circumstances.
In the United States, an orphan drug is any drug developed under the Orphan Drug Act of 1983, a federal law concerning rare diseases ("orphan diseases"), defined as diseases affecting fewer than 200,000 people in the United States or low prevalence is taken as prevalence of less than 5 per 10,000 in the community . This has been adopted as a subclause of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations. Because medical research and development of drugs to treat such diseases is financially disadvantageous, companies that do so are rewarded with tax reductions and a monopoly on that drug for an extended time (twenty years). Under the act many drugs have been developed, including drugs to treat HIV/AIDS, cystic fibrosis, and snake venom. |
|
|
Asthma is not a side effect of.....
|
Clonidine (sympathoplegic)
|
|
|
When molecules of different chemicals attach to each other, as in protein binding
|
complexation
|
|
|
Nausea is not a side effect of.....
|
Loop dieuretics
|
|
|
The first anesthetic
|
cocaine (1884) (active ingredient in coca leaves)
|
|
|
Increased appetite is not a side effect of the drug....
|
Clozapine
|
|
|
Doing what is required
|
compliance
|
|
|
Epinephrine does not treat....
|
Renal disease
|
|
|
What is the enzyme system in the liver that is associated with drug interaction?
|
Cytochrome P450.
Cytochrome P450 oxidase (commonly abbreviated CYP) is a generic term for a large number of related, but distinct, oxidative enzymes important in breaking down chemicals such as drugs and endogenous compounds. |
|
|
Ephedrine does not treat .....
|
COPD
|
|
|
A record of what actually happened when the formulation was compounded
|
compounding record
|
|
|
Barbiturates does not treat...
|
Hypotension
|
|
|
Antineoplastic therapy
|
general term for anticancer therapy
|
|
|
Nifedipine does not treat....
|
Fluid retention
|
|
|
A method of making suppositories in which the ingredients are compressed in a mold
|
compression molding
|
|
|
Methotrexate does not treat...
|
Rheumatic fever
|
|
|
What is gonadotropin?
|
Gonadotropins are protein hormones secreted by gonadotrope cells of the pituitary gland of vertebrates. The two principle gonadotropins are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). The gonads -- testes and ovaries -- are the primary target organs for LH and FSH.
Gonadotropin cells are targeted for treatment of infertility. |
|
|
Prednisone does not treat...
|
Testicular Cancer
|
|
|
The strength of a solution as measured by the weight-to-volume or volume-to-volume of the substance being measured
|
concentration
|
|
|
Dexamethasone does not treat....
|
Wilson's disease
|
|
|
Auxiliary Labels
|
small labels that provide additional information, warnings, or reminders, that are affixed to the prescription container
|
|
|
What is the primary site of activity for Warfarin
|
Liver
|
|
|
The requirement of health care providers to keep all patient information private among the patient, the patient's insurer, and the providers directly involved in the patient's care
|
confidentiality
|
|
|
Which drug is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?
|
Isoniazid
|
|
|
How many refills are allowed for controlled/uncontrolled drugs?
|
For control 2, none.
For control 3, 4 and 5 - 5 refills per 6 months |
|
|
The eyelid lining
|
conjunctiva
|
|
|
Cytotoxic therapy
|
Used to kill or arrest the growth abnormal cancer cells
|
|
|
Develops and maintains an individual pharmautical plan for each long-term care patient
|
consultant pharmacist
|
|
|
What type of service is now more impacted for pharmacists?
|
Pharmaceutical care
|
|
|
What is associated w/extreme photosensitivity?
|
Tetracycline
|
|
|
Device or formulation designed to prevent pregnancy
|
contraceptive
|
|
|
Prednisone drug toxicity does not cause....
|
Hypotension
|
|
|
1914 Harrison Tax Act
|
due to cocaine - narcotic folks be licensed & taxed
|
|
|
What is considered a class IA Sodium Channel Blocker?
|
Aminodarone and Propafenone
|
|
|
The mark (CII_CV) which indicates the control category of a drug with a potential for abuse
|
controlled substance mark
|
|
|
Who is C.D. Helper?
|
He established the concept of pharmaceutical care in the late 1980s.
|
|
|
Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect on the .....
|
Distal Convoluted Tubule
|
|
|
The change of one unit of measure into another so that both amounts are equal
|
conversions
|
|
|
What is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?
|
Projectile vomiting
|
|
|
the mechanism of action for antiandrogens
|
Blocks the remaining male hormones after the removal of the prostate (orcheitomy) or treatment that have blocked testosterone
Block hormones that are produced by the adrenal gland |
|
|
When a needle damages the rubber closure of a parenteral container causing fragments of the closure to fall into the container and contaminate its contents
|
coring
|
|
|
What is Enalopril?
|
Enalopril is the generic name for Vasetec. It is an ACE inhibitor used to treat HTN. It can be taken PO or administered IV.
|
|
|
A tray designed for counting pills
|
counting tray
|
|
|
Patient Medication Profile
|
a listing of all medications dispensed by the pharmacy to a particular patient
|
|
|
A collection of information structured so that specific information within it can easily be retrieved and used
|
database
|
|
|
Identify the following abbrevations:
1) OU 2) OS 3) AD |
1) Both eyes
2) Left eye 3) right ear |
|
|
Mechanism by which a prescriber may indicate that the brand product, not the equivalent generic, must be dispensed
|
DAW
|
|
|
Cytotoxic drugs can be what?
|
Can be either carcinogenic, teratogenic, or mutagenic
|
|
|
Required on all controlled drug prescriptions; identifies the prescriber
|
DEA number
|
|
|
What does "allergic rhinitis" mean?
|
Runny nose
|
|
|
A system in which pharmacy activities occur in multiple locations within a hospital
|
decentralized pharmacy system
|
|
|
Pharmacokinetics is teh branch of pharmacology that deals with the scientific study of the _________,_________,_________,and _________ of drugs over time.
|
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
|
|
|
A set amount that must be paid by the patient for each benefit period before the insurer will cover additional expenses
|
deductible
|
|
|
Define antagonism (think pharmacy).
|
Antagonism is the case when two drugs act to decrease the effect of each other.
|
|
|
The change of a drug to a less effective or ineffective form
|
degradation
|
|
|
What is the mechanism of action for hormone therapy?
|
Adds, blocks, or removes hormones that stimulate the growth of cancer cell
|
|
|
The bottom of right number in a fraction which is divided into the numerator to give the fraction's value
|
denominator
|
|
|
True or False: When a pharmacist administers a drug without a prescription, it is considered a felony.
|
true
|
|
|
The area in the muscle where a formulation is injected during an intramuscular injection
|
depot
|
|
|
Physicians Order Sheets
|
sheet where physicians orders for hospital inpatients or nursing home residents are written on
|
|
|
A filter that can filter solutions being drawn into or expelled from a syringe, but not both ways at the same time
|
depth filter
|
|
|
What Schedule of drugs is considered to have no medicinial value?
|
Schedule 1
|
|
|
A dried animal thyroid
|
desiccated thyroid
|
|
|
investigational drugs
|
drugs that have been studied in clinical trials but have not been approved by the FDA for the general population
|
|
|
Movement of particles in a solution through permeable membranes
|
dialysis
|
|
|
What are benzodiazepines?
|
The benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are often used for short-term relief of severe, disabling anxiety or insomnia.
They are not to be taken with alcohol and they should not be discontinued abruptly. |
|
|
A solvent that dilutes a freeze-dried substance or dilutes a solution
|
diluent
|
|
|
1927 Food, Drug and Insecticide Addministration
|
became FDA in 1930
|
|
|
The breaking apart of a tablet into smaller pieces
|
disintegration
|
|
|
What is cephalosporin? How many generations do they come in? Which generation is most effective against gram-negative bacteria?
|
The cephalosporins are a class of β-lactam antibiotics.
Cephalosporins are grouped into "generations" by their antimicrobial properties. Generation 4 are most effective against gram-negative bacteria. |
|
|
A drug bound to a plasma protein is removed when another drug of greater binding potential binds to the same protein
|
displacement
|
|
|
principal investigator
|
a physician specializing in the disease being studied
|
|
|
A term sometimes used to refer to all of the ADME processes
|
disposition
|
|
|
Identify the following abbreviations:
1) MI 2) IM 3) aa |
1) MI = Myocardial Infraction
2) IM = Intramuscular 3) aa = one of each |
|
|
When smaller pieces of a disintegrated tablet dissolve in solution
|
dissolution
|
|
|
Repackaging Log
|
a record of all activities related to the repackaging process and must be maintained
|
|
|
Makes sure long-term care patients receive the correct medications order
|
distributive pharmacist
|
|
|
What are the 5 different sources of drugs?
|
1) plants
2) animals 3) minerals 4) synthetic 5) engineered |
|
|
Drugs that increase the elimination of salts and water through urination
|
diuretics
|
|
|
protocol
|
a plan that describes how an experiment or study is going to be conducted
|
|
|
When elements of ingested nutrients interact with a drug and this affects the disposition of the drug
|
drug-diet interactions
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee?
|
In the hospital pharmacy, the P&T committee determines which medications will be purchased and maintained in stock.
|
|
|
A digital subscriber line that provides digital sata transmission over the wires of a local phone network
|
DSL - Digital Subscriber Line
|
|
|
Pain relieving ingredient in white willow tree bark
|
salicylic acid (nature's aspirin)
|
|
|
Co-pays that have two prices; one for generic and one of brand medications
|
dual co-pay
|
|
|
Which Schedule drug has the highest potential of abuse?
|
Schedule 1
|
|
|
Status of medications lke Plan B that are classified as both prescription and OTC drugs
|
dual marketing
|
|
|
what are the aspects to consider when developing a drug
|
stability, toxicity , scheduling, and records
|
|
|
A small elevator that carries objects (but not people) between floors of a building
|
dumbwaiter
|
|
|
What are nitrates used for? Give an example of a nitrate.
|
Nitrates are used to relax muscle tone. Nitroglycerin is a drug that relaxes the heart's muscle tone.
|
|
|
The time drug concentration is above the minimum effective concentration (MEC)
|
MEC - Minimum Effective of Concentration
|
|
|
Dosage Form
|
refers to the physical form in which the drug product is made available for administration to the patient
|
|
|
Swelling from abnormal retention of fluid
|
edema
|
|
|
Which type of tablet is most suitable for children?
|
chewable tablets
|
|
|
The process of metabolism and excretion
|
elimination
|
|
|
Restricted drug
|
Drugs that are rarely used, have limited therapeutic options, and small patient populations
|
|
|
To quickly obtain a medication not currently in stock in the pharmacy in situations where the drug is urgently needed
|
emergency drug procurement
|
|
|
What is Methotrexate? What is it used for?
|
Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist that prevents cancer cell growth.
Methotrexate is classified as an antimetabolite drug, which means it is capable of blocking the metabolism of cells. As a result of this effect, it has been found helpful in treating certain diseases associated with abnormally rapid cell growth, such as cancer of the breast and psoriasis. |
|
|
A stablizing agent in emulsions
|
emulsifier
|
|
|
1938 Food, Drug and Cosmetic (FDC) Act
|
untested sulfanilamide - drugs must be safe before marketing
|
|
|
Mixture of two liquids that do not dissolve into each other; one liquid is spread through the other by mixing and using an emulsifier for stablility
|
emulsions
|
|
|
Who is regarded as the father of medicine?
|
Hypocrates
|
|
|
Produced from within the body or within a cell
|
endogenous
|
|
|
Dose
|
the quantity of drug taken by a patient
|
|
|
A route of administration to any organ in the alimentary tract (ie., from the mouth to the anus)
|
enteral
|
|
|
What are Barbiturates? What are they used for?
|
Barbiturates are short acting drugs used as general anesthesia.
Officially, Barbiturates are a class of chemicals derived from barbituric acid or thiobarbituric acid. Many of these are medically important as sedatives and hypnotics (sedatives, barbiturate), as anaesthetics, or as anticonvulsants. |
|
|
The transfer of drugs and their metabolites from the liver to the bile in the gall bladder and then into the intestine, and then back into circulation
|
enterohepatic cycling
|
|
|
Tablets
|
solid dosage forms prepared by mechanical compression in a tableting machine
|
|
|
A complex protein that catalyzes chemical reactions into other substances
|
enzyme
|
|
|
What is Isoniazid?
|
Isoniazid is a crystalline antibacterial compound, C6H7N3O, used in the treatment of tuberculosis.
|
|
|
The increase in enzyme activity that results in greater metabolism of drugs
|
enzyme induction
|
|
|
dosage regimen
|
the schedule of medication administration
|
|
|
The decrease in enzyme activity that results in reduced metabolism of drugs
|
enzyme inhibition
|
|
|
Identify the following root words:
1) cardi 2) nephro 3) hema |
1) cardi = heart
2) nephro = kidney 3) hema = blood |
|
|
A drug's molecular weight divided by its valence, a common measure of electrolyte concentration
|
equivalent weight
|
|
|
What is the transformation of the drug by physiological processes of the body into other forms, ussually less potent or toxic than the original form that can be eliminated?
|
Metabolism
|
|
|
Combining an organic acid with an alcohol to form an ester
|
esterification
|
|
|
What are gamma rays used for in pharmaceutics?
|
Gamma rays are the most tissue penetrating energy packets and they are often used for sterilization of medical equipment.
|
|
|
Medications with habit-forming ingredients that can be dispensed by a pharmacist without a prescription to persons at least 18 years of age
|
exempt narcotics
|
|
|
Cost
|
Total paid for an item or items recieved as noted on an invoice
|
|
|
The on-demand preparation of a drug product according to a physician's prescription, formula, or recipe
|
extemporaneous compounding
|
|
|
Who promotes the certification of pharmacy technicians?
|
The American Association of Pharmacy Technicians
|
|
|
A filter that filters solution immediately before it enters a patient's vein
|
final filter
|
|
|
Chewable Tablets
|
compressed tablets that are designed to be chewed or dissolved
|
|
|
Protective coverings for fingers
|
finger cots
|
|
|
What are the consequences of not treating HTN?
|
Possibly a stroke and/or E.O.D.
E.O.D. = End Organ Damage (such as the eyes, legs and kidneys) |
|
|
The substantial degradation of a drug caused by enzyme metabolism in the liver before the drug reaches the sytematic circulation
|
first pass metabolism
|
|
|
Selling price
|
100% of the amount that you will receive for the sale of the item
|
|
|
An expansion or outward movement by muscles
|
flexor movement
|
|
|
What drug is used to treat fungus in the mouth?
|
Nystatin
|
|
|
Electrolytes used in the preparation of suspensions
|
flocculating agent
|
|
|
1950 Alberty Food Products v. U.S.
|
drug purpose on label
|
|
|
Stock (such as large volume parenteral) that does not require patient specific labeling
|
floor stock
|
|
|
Fill in:
Drugs with high _____ _____ have a greater room for error. |
Therapeutic index
|
|
|
The rate (in ml/hr or ml/minute) at which solution is administered to the patient
|
flow rate
|
|
|
markup
|
the difference between the cost and the actual selling price
|
|
|
A list of drugs stocked at the hospital which have been selected based on therapeutic factors as well as costs
|
formulary
|
|
|
What is Vancomycin used to treat against?
|
bacteria
|
|
|
Formulas and procedures (ie., recipes) for waht should happen when a formulation is compoounded
|
formulation record
|
|
|
Enteric-Coated Tablets
|
compressed tablets coated with a special substance to prevent the dissolution within the stomach
|
|
|
A suppository preparation method in which the active ingredients are dispersed in a melted suppository base
|
fusion molding
|
|
|
What are antibiotics?
|
Antibiotics are drugs that inhibit DNA/RNA synthesis
|
|
|
The time a drug will stay in the stomach before it is emptied into the small intestine
|
gastric emptying time
|
|
|
Drugs covered by the control substance Act
|
Opium, opiates, hallucinogens, depressants, stimulants, & anabolic steriods
|
|
|
A measurement with needles: the higher the gauge, the smaller the lumen
|
gauge
|
|
|
What are some examples of antibiotics?
|
1) Bieomycin
2) Doxorubicin 3) Dactinomycin 4) Mitomycin 5) Plicamycin 6) Vinblasine |
|
|
A technique for mixing two powders of unequal quantity
|
geometric dilution
|
|
|
acetylsalicylic acid
|
aspirin
|
|
|
The blood filtering process of the kidneys
|
glomerular filtration
|
|
|
What does TPN stand for?
|
Total Parental Nutrition
|
|
|
Sex gland stimulants
|
gonadotropins
|
|
|
intravenous admistures
|
solutions compounded with two or more ingredients
|
|
|
A method for identifying microorganisms based on staining characteristics
|
gram stain
|
|
|
What are some common side effects associated with "Warfarin"?
|
Warfarin thins the blood, possibly causing patients to bleed to death.
|
|
|
The standard form used by health care providers, such as physicians, to bill for services; it can also be used to bill for disease state management services
|
HCFA 1500 Form
|
|
|
Sublingual Tablets
|
tablets you keep placed under your tongue so it is promptly absorbed into the blood stream
|
|
|
A federal act created to protect the privacy of individuals, patient health records, and the sharing of protected health information
|
HIPAA - Health Insurance Portability and Accessibility Act of 1996
|
|
|
What type of Schedule drug is Morphine?
|
Morphine is a Schedule 2 drug.
|
|
|
Painful swollen veins in the anal/rectal area, generally caused by strained bowel movements from hard stools
|
hemmorrhoid
|
|
|
sterile
|
Free from microorganisms and not producing any microorganisms; containing no bacterial or viral contaminants
|
|
|
A high efficiency particulate air filter
|
HEPA filter
|
|
|
What does Hematuria mean?
|
Hematuria is the presence of blood in urine.
|
|
|
An injection device which uses heparin to keep blood from clotting in the device
|
heparin lock
|
|
|
1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment
|
legend - Rx only
|
|
|
Liver disease
|
hepatic disease
|
|
|
What are some common side effects of Erythromycin?
|
Nausea and vomitting
|
|
|
A prefix meaning "of the liver"
|
hepato
|
|
|
Compounding
|
the act or process of combining two or more drugs products or chemicals into a single preparation
|
|
|
A network of providers for which costs are covered inside but not outside of the network
|
HMOs
|
|
|
What are the duties and responsibilities of a pharmacy technician working in a hospital setting (inpatient)?
|
1) Maintenance of medication records.
2) Preparing unit doses. 3) Compounding medications. 4) Packaging. 5) Administration of medication. 6) Preparing and delivering prescriptions to patients who are out of the hospital, such as those in nursing homes, hospice, and rehabilitation facilities. 7) Computer data input. 8) Inspecting nursing unit drug stocks. 9) Inventory maintenance. 10) Preparation of labels. 11) Maintaining privacy. 12) Communication skills. 13) Working safely. |
|
|
Home nursing care business that provide a range of health care services, including infusion
|
home care agencies
|
|
|
Buccal Tablets
|
tablets you keep between your gum and cheek so dissolves slowly over a period of time
|
|
|
The state of equilibrium of the body
|
homeostasis
|
|
|
What is HiPAA and how does it affect the pharmacy practice?
|
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was enacted by the U.S. Congress in 1996.
Title I of HIPAA protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs. Title II of HIPAA, the Administrative Simplification provisions, requires the establishment of national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers. The AS provisions also address the security and privacy of health data. The standards are meant to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the nation's health care system by encouraging the widespread use of electronic data interchange in the US health care system. |
|
|
Chemicals produced by the body that regulate body functions and processes
|
hormones
|
|
|
cytotoxic agents/cytotoxins
|
an agent that has specific toxic action upon cells of susceptible organs. Used to treat cancer
|
|
|
The part of the needle that attaches to the syringe
|
hub
|
|
|
What does the site of action include?
|
Local use and Systemic use
|
|
|
Absorbs water
|
hydrates
|
|
|
patient profile
|
a record containing information pertaining to a specific patient including demographic information, medical history, medication use chronology, allergies and chronic illnesses
|
|
|
Capable of associating with or absorbing water
|
hydrophilic
|
|
|
Film-Coated Tablets
|
coated with a thin layer of water-soluble material that masks the objectionable odor or taste of certain medications
|
|
|
A stabilizing agent for water-based dispersion mediums
|
hydrophilic emulsifier
|
|
|
diagnosis
|
indentified disease or health condition determined by the prescriber through assessment of the patient's sign and symptoms
|
|
|
Water repelling; cannot associate with water
|
hydrophobic
|
|
|
1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment
|
saftey & effectiveness
|
|
|
An abnormal sensitivity generally resulting in an allergic reaction
|
hypersensitivity
|
|
|
psychosocial factors
|
involving both psychological and social aspects; relating social conditions to mental health
|
|
|
A condition in which thyroid hormone secretions are above normal, often referred to as an overactive thyroid
|
hyperthyroidism
|
|
|
Sustained, Time-Released Tablets
|
this is a tablet that is released at a constant rate for a prolonged period of time (8-24 hours) and are referred to as “long acting”, “delayed-release”, “prolonged-action”
|
|
|
When a solution has a greater osmolarity than that of blood
|
hypertonic
|
|
|
Desired therapeutic outcome
|
Desired health result of drug therapy
|
|
|
An abnoral concentration of uric acid in the blood
|
hyperuricemia
|
|
|
pharmacology
|
the study of drugs-their properties, uses, applications, and effects
|
|
|
A condition in which thyroid hormone secretions are below normal, often referred to as an underactive thyroid
|
hypothyroidism
|
|
|
"a" (SIG abbreviation)
|
Before
|
|
|
When a solution has a lesser osmolarity than that of blood
|
hypotonic
|
|
|
Lozenges
|
dissolve slowly to keep the drug in contact with the mouth or throat for a prolonged period of time and are referred to as “troches or pastilles”
|
|
|
Low oxygen levels in the blood, which can be caused by asthma
|
hypoxemia
|
|
|
a.a or aa
|
Of each
|
|
|
An unexpected reaction the first time a drug is taken, generally due to genetic causes
|
idiosyncrasy
|
|
|
1966 Fair Packaging and Labeling Act
|
honestly & informative
|
|
|
Cannot be mixed
|
immiscible
|
|
|
ac
|
before meals
|
|
|
A drug causes more metabolic enzymes to be produced, thus increasing the metabolic activity
|
induction
|
|
|
Pellets
|
small cylindrically shaped tablets meant for implantation subcutaneously (just under the skip) for prolonged continuous drug absorption
|
|
|
The gradual intravenous injection of a volume of fluid into a patient
|
inhibition
|
|
|
ad
|
up to
|
|
|
The first physician known by name was
|
The Egyptian Imhotep, born in 3,000 B.C.
|
|
|
What does each term refer to?
|
Local- site specific application
Systemic-application of a drug by absorption |
|
|
Hippocrates approach to medicine was based on
|
careful observation
|
|
|
a.d.
|
right ear
|
|
|
The ancient Greek goddess of Medicinal Herbs was
|
Panacea
|
|
|
Capsules
|
a drug that is enclosed within a soft or hard gelatin shell that dissolves and the drug is released
|
|
|
Derived from the bark of the Peruvian tree, quinine populary called "Jesuit's powder", used along with preventive measures, helps keep this disease under control.
|
Malaria
|
|
|
ad lib
|
at pleasure
|
|
|
Aspirin is made from salicylic acid from the back of the _______ tree
|
willow
|
|
|
1970 Poison Prevention Packaging Act
|
child-proof
|
|
|
________ was the first effective local anesthetic
|
Cocaine
|
|
|
a.m.
|
morning
|
|
|
Around 3,000 B.C. _________ established, by trial and error, about 365 herbs that could be used as health treatments
|
the Chinese Emperor Shen Nung
|
|
|
Effervescent Tablets
|
tablets containing sodium bicarbonate with either citric or tartaric acid
|
|
|
An authoritative listing of drugs and issues related to their use is a(an)
|
pharmacopeia
|
|
|
ante
|
before
|
|
|
_____ showed that heat can be used to kill microogranism associated with food spoilage
|
Louis Pasteur
|
|
|
pharmacognosy
|
the study of physical, chemical, biochemical and biological properties of drugs & search for new drugs from natural sources
|
|
|
_________ discovered penicillin could kill some bacteria
|
Alexander Fleming
|
|
|
aq.
|
aqueous (water)
|
|
|
______________are substances produced by the body to regulate body functions and processes
|
Hormones
|
|
|
Solutions
|
mixtures containing one more soluble ingredient (solute) dissolved usually in water (solvent), in which the molecules of solute are uniformly dispersed among those of the solvent
|
|
|
____________ identified the structure of DNA
|
James Watson and Francis Crick
|
|
|
a.s.
|
Left ear
|
|
|
The pharmaceutical manufacturing industry devotes about ________of its income to research and development
|
one-sixth, 1/6
|
|
|
1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA)
|
schedules - DEA (division of Justice)
|
|
|
______ protect(s) against illegal copying of new discoveries
|
Patenting
|
|
|
a.u.
|
each ear
|
|
|
The FDA is required to
|
1. ensure that a drug is safe and effective for its intended use
2. to monitor a drug after it is marketed to ensure it works as intended 3. to monitor a drug for any adverse effects |
|
|
Syrups
|
sweet, viscous, concentrated, aqueous solutions of sugar that is used as a vehicle for antibiotics, antihistamines, antitussives (cough preparations) and vitamins as well as for other drugs
|
|
|
The length of time from the beginning of development of a new drug to FDA approval is often more than ________ years
|
ten
|
|
|
a.u.
|
each ear
|
|
|
In most cases the individual who dispenses the prescribed medication to the patent is the
|
pharmacist
|
|
|
What are the locations on the surface or within the cell that contain specific protein molecules that bind to other specific molecules, producing some effect in teh cell called?
|
Receptor Sites
|
|
|
The Omnibus Budget Reconiliation Act (OBRA) requires that pharmacists provide
|
counseling services to Medicaid patients
|
|
|
b.i.d.
|
twice a day
|
|
|
To become a pharmacist in the United States
|
an individual must graduate from an accredited college of pharmacy, pass a state licensing exam, and perform an internship working under a licensed pharmacist
|
|
|
Elixirs
|
sweetened hydroalcoholis (water and alcohol) solutions and are probably the most widely used
Because of their pleasant taste, relative stability and ease of preparation |
|
|
The area of greatest employment for pharmacists is
|
community pharmacies
|
|
|
c. or c
|
with
|
|
|
The pharmacy technician may find the greatest employment opportunities in
|
the community setting
|
|
|
1976 Medical Device Amendment
|
safety & effectiveness devices
|
|
|
In managed care, care is managed by a(an)
|
insurer
|
|
|
cap
|
Capsule
|
|
|
Lists of drugs approved for use by managed care organizations are called
|
formularies
|
|
|
Tinctures
|
alcoholic or hydro alcoholic solutions prepared from vegetable, animal or chemical materials
|
|
|
Information that is entered and stored into a computer, such as a patient's name, is called
|
data
|
|
|
cc.
|
Cubic centimeter (millimeter)
|
|
|
The study of drugs, their properties,uses, application, and effects
|
pharmacology
|
|
|
materia medica
|
generally pharmacolgy, but also refers to the drugs in use
|
|
|
Drugs derived from plants to treat illness and other physical conditions
|
herbal medicine
|
|
|
Cl
|
Chloride
|
|
|
The drug of the foxglove plant which has been widely used in treating heart disease
|
digitalis
|
|
|
Suspensions
|
preparations containing insoluble medical products dispersed in a liquid
|
|
|
The theory that microorganisms cause food spoilage
|
germ theory
|
|
|
comp.
|
compound
|
|
|
Extracted from the bark of a Peruvian tree, quinine is the first useful drug in the treatment of malaria
|
quinine
|
|
|
1983 Orphan Drug Act
|
promote - rare diseases
|
|
|
Made from killed polio virus, the _______ ______ can be injected or taken orally
|
polio vaccine
|
|
|
DAW
|
Dispense As Written
|
|
|
The hormone that lowers blood sugar in threatment of diabetes
|
insulin
|
|
|
Emulsions
|
preparations containing either water dispersed in oil (w/o) or oil dispersed in water (o/w) stabilized with the acid of an “emulsifying agent”
|
|
|
Drugs created by reformulatingsimplex chemicals nito more complex ones, creating a new chemical not found in nature
|
synthetic drugs
|
|
|
D.C., dc, or disc
|
discontinue
|
|
|
The gradual intravenous injection of a volume of fluid ino a patient
|
infusion
|
|
|
What is the desired action of a drug or the action for which the drug is prescribed called?
|
Therapeutic Effect
|
|
|
A court order prevennting a specific action, such as the distribution of a potentially dangerous drug
|
injunction
|
|
|
dil
|
Dilute
|
|
|
A drug that increases the force of cardiac contraction
|
inotrope
|
|
|
Microemulsion or Transparent Emulsion
|
the particle size of the inner phase is 0.05 microns or less
|
|
|
Pharmacy located in a hospital or inpatient facility which services only those patients in the hospital/facility and ancillary areas
|
inpatient pharmacy
|
|
|
div
|
Divide
|
|
|
Breathing in
|
inspiration
|
|
|
1984 Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act (Hatch-Waxman)
|
extension of drug patent & generics
|
|
|
The body covering, i.e., skin, hair, and nails
|
integumentary system
|
|
|
Dtd
|
Give of such doses
|
|
|
Skills involving relationships between people
|
interpersonal skills
|
|
|
Ointments
|
semisolid preparations used for external application to skin or mucous membranes
|
|
|
An intrauterine contraceptive device that is placed in the uterus for a prolonged period of time
|
intrauterine device (IUD)
|
|
|
Dx
|
Diagnosis
|
|
|
To make accounting of items on hand; also. with people, to assess characteristics, skills, qualities, etc.
|
inventory
|
|
|
pharmacopeia
|
an authoritative listing of drugs and issues related to their use
|
|
|
Molecular particles that carry electric charges
|
ions
|
|
|
D5NS
|
5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
|
|
|
A variation of a drug that has the same molecular formula but a different arrangement of the atoms in the molecule
|
isomer
|
|
|
Pastes
|
ointment-like preparations for external application
|
|
|
When a solution has an osmolarity equivalent to that of blood
|
isotonic
|
|
|
D5RL
|
5% dextrose in Ringer's lactate
|
|
|
Important associated information that is not on the label of the drug product, but is provided with the product in the form of an insert, brochure, or other document
|
labeling
|
|
|
1987 Prescription Durg Marketing Act
|
state licenses
|
|
|
The tear ducts
|
lacrimal canalicula
|
|
|
D5W
|
5% dextrose in water elixir
|
|
|
The gland that produces tears for the eye
|
lacrimal gland
|
|
|
Creams
|
semisolid emulsions, containing suspensions or solutions of medicinal agents intended for external application
|
|
|
Continuous movement at a uniform rate in one direction
|
laminar flow
|
|
|
et
|
and
|
|
|
Any drug which requires a prescription and either of these "legends" on the label: "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription," or "Rx only"
|
legend drug
|
|
|
What is a drug that binds to a particular receptor site and triggers teh cells response in a similar way to the bodys own chemical messenger?
|
Agonist
|
|
|
Triturating a powder drug with a solvent in which it is insoluble to reduce its particle size
|
levigation
|
|
|
ex aq
|
in water
|
|
|
Legal responsibility for costs or damages arising from misconduct or negligence
|
liability
|
|
|
Powders
|
finely divided, relatively dry, solid material intended for external application
|
|
|
A fat like substance
|
lipoidal
|
|
|
ft
|
make
|
|
|
A stabilizing agent for oil-based dispersion mediums
|
lipophilic emulsifier
|
|
|
1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)
|
pharmacist counseling
|
|
|
When drug activity is at the site of administration
|
local effect
|
|
|
g or gm or GM
|
Gram
|
|
|
drug names that have similar appearance, particularly when written
|
look-alikes
|
|
|
Gels and Jellies
|
two phase systems consisting of a solid internal phase diffused through out a viscous liquid phase
|
|
|
The hollow center of a needle
|
lumen
|
|
|
gal
|
gallon
|
|
|
A type of white blood cells that helps the body defend itself against bacteria and diseased cells
|
lymphocytes
|
|
|
pharmaceutical
|
of or about drugs; also, a drug product
|
|
|
Freeze-dried
|
lyophilized
|
|
|
GI
|
gastrointestinal
|
|
|
A medication that is required on a continuing basis for the treatment of a chronic condition
|
maintenance medication
|
|
|
Transdermal Patches
|
patches applied to the skin formulated to deliver a constant, controlled-dose of a medication through the skin and into the bloodstream
|
|
|
The difference between the retailer's sale price and their purchase price
|
mark-up
|
|
|
gr
|
Grain
|
|
|
General pharmacology, but also refers to the drugs in use
|
materia medica
|
|
|
1990 Anabolic Steroid Control Act
|
steroid abuse
|
|
|
OSHA required notices for hazardous substances that provide hazard, handling, clean-u, and first aid information
|
Material Safety Data Sheets
|
|
|
gtt
|
drop
|
|
|
The maximum price per tablet (or other dispensing unit) an insurer or PBM will pay for a given product
|
Maximum allowable cost (MAC)
|
|
|
Ophthalmic Drops
|
sterile solutions that are instilled into the eye in the form of an “eye drop”
|
|
|
A federal program, administered by the states, providing health care for the needy
|
Medicaid
|
|
|
H or hr
|
Hour
|
|
|
A federal program providing health care to perople with certain disabilities over age 65; it includes basic hospital insurance and voluntary medical insurance
|
Medicare
|
|
|
What is a drug that binds to a particular receptor site and blocks the action of teh endogenouschemical messenger without triggering the cells response called?
|
Antagonist
|
|
|
A form used to prescribe medication s for patients in institutional settings
|
medication order
|
|
|
hs
|
at bedtime
|
|
|
A form that tracks the medications administered to a patient
|
medication administration record (MAR)
|
|
|
Ophthalmic Ointments
|
sterile emulsions, properly formulated for application into the eye
|
|
|
A filter that attaches to a syringe and filters solution through a membrane as the solution is expelled from the syringe
|
membrane filter
|
|
|
hx
|
history
|
|
|
The curved surface of a column of liquid
|
meniscus
|
|
|
1996 Healh Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
|
right & privacy
|
|
|
The substance resulting from the body's transformation of an administered drug
|
metabolite
|
|
|
IM
|
Intramusclar
|
|
|
A unit of measure for electolytes in a solution
|
milliequivalent (mEq)
|
|
|
Medicated Contact Lenses
|
sterile contact lenses, pre-soaked with medication, inserted into the eye
|
|
|
Another term for an agonist, because agonists imitate or "mimic" the action of the neurotransmitter
|
mimetic
|
|
|
Inj
|
Injection
|
|
|
The blood concentration needed of a drug to produce a response
|
minimum effective concentration (MEC)
|
|
|
panacea
(panakeia-Greek) |
a cure-all
|
|
|
The upper limit of the therapeutic window. Drug concentrations above the MTC increase the risk of undesired effects
|
minimum toxic concentration
|
|
|
IV
|
Intravenous
|
|
|
Capable of being mixed together
|
miscible
|
|
|
Ocular Inserts
|
drug pre-soaked inserts places in the lower eye sac between the sclera (white of the eye) and the eyelid
|
|
|
Computer hardware that enables a computer to communicate through telephone lines
|
modem
|
|
|
IVP
|
Intravenous push
|
|
|
The sum of the atomic weights of one moelcule
|
molecular weight
|
|
|
phase I
|
safety, 25% success
|
|
|
A wet, slimy liquid formed as an initial step in the wet gum method
|
mucilage
|
|
|
IVPB
|
Intravenous piggyback
|
|
|
Drugs that dilate the pupil
|
mydriatics
|
|
|
Suppositories
|
solid dosage forms for insertion into the rectum, vaginal cavity, or urethral tract
|
|
|
Heart attack
|
myocardial infarction
|
|
|
L or l
|
Liter
|
|
|
The muscular wall of the uterus
|
myometrium
|
|
|
What is dosage that causes interference with normal physiological functions, synonymous with poisonous effect called?
|
Toxic effects
|
|
|
The cavity behind the nose and above the roof of the mouth that filters air and moves mucous and inhaled contaminants outward and away from the lungs
|
nasal cavity
|
|
|
LR
|
Lactated Ringer's
|
|
|
A device which contains a drug that is vaporized by inhalation
|
nasal inhaler
|
|
|
Inhalers
|
solutions or suspensions of solid or liquid particles in gas or air intended for inhalation via nose or mouth
|
|
|
The cellular lining of the nose
|
nasal mucosa
|
|
|
N.F.
|
National Formulary
|
|
|
The number assigned by the manufacturer. The first five digits indicate the manufacturer. The next four indicate the medication, its strength, and dosage form. The last two indicate the package size.
|
National Drug Code (NDC)
|
|
|
phase II
|
effectiveness, safety
|
|
|
A unique, national, ten-digit, health care provider identification number, required for all HIPAA regulated claims submissions effective May 23, 2007
|
National Provider Identifier (NPI)
|
|
|
Noct
|
at night
|
|
|
The death of cells
|
necrosis
|
|
|
Otic Product
|
solutions suspensions instilled into the ear canal
|
|
|
Failing to do something that should or must be done
|
negligence
|
|
|
non rep.
|
Do Not repeat
|
|
|
The functional unit of the kidneys
|
nephron
|
|
|
antitoxin
|
a substance that acts against a toxin in the body; also a vaccine containing antitoxins, used to fight disease
|
|
|
The ability of a substance to harm to kidneys
|
nephrotoxicity
|
|
|
NPO
|
nothing by mouth
|
|
|
Chemicals released by nerves that interact with receptors to cause an effect
|
neurotransmitter
|
|
|
Enemas
|
liquid medications introduced into the rectum via a bulb syringe
|
|
|
A system of names specific to a particular field
|
nomenclature
|
|
|
NR
|
No refill
|
|
|
A chart showing relationships between measurements
|
nomogram
|
|
|
phase III
|
doseage, safety, effectiveness
|
|
|
Drugs not on the formulary which the physician can order; a physician can order; a physician may have to fill out a form stating why that particular drug is needed
|
non-formulary
|
|
|
NS
|
Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)
|
|
|
The top of left number in a fraction that indicates a portion of the denominator to be used
|
numerator
|
|
|
Douches
|
aqueous solutions which are directed into the cavity of the body
|
|
|
A federal act that is generally credited for states mandating pharmacist counseling on all new prescriptions
|
OBRA '90
|
|
|
NTG
|
Nitroglycerin
|
|
|
An obstruction of the bile excretion process
|
obstructive jaundice
|
|
|
Responses other than the primary therapeutic effect for a drug that can be beneficial or harmful are called what?
|
Side effects
|
|
|
An emulsion in which oil is dispersed through a water base
|
oil-in-water emulsion
|
|
|
N/V
|
nausea and/or vomiting
|
|
|
The resolution of prescription coverage through the communication of the pharmacy computer with the third party computer
|
online adjudication
|
|
|
Unit Dose Drug Distribution
|
allows for less preparation time for nursing to administer medications and increase the time for direct patient care
|
|
|
The time MEC is reached and the response occurs
|
onset of action
|
|
|
o.d.
|
right eye
|
|
|
A system that allows the pharmacy to purchase any medication that is prescribed
|
open formulary
|
|
|
OTC
|
over the counter
|
|
|
The time MEC is reached and the response occurs
|
onset of action
|
|
|
o.l.or o.s.
|
left eye
|
|
|
A system that allows the pharmacy to purchase any medication that is prescribed
|
open formulary
|
|
|
Medical Administration Records
|
are provided by pharmacy to each nursing unit which allows for a coordinated and verifiable means of drug distribution
|
|
|
The resolution of prescription coverage through the communication of the pharmacy computer with the third party computer
|
online adjudication
|
|
|
o.u.
|
Both eyes
|
|
|
The time MEC is reached and the response occurs
|
onset of action
|
|
|
antibiotic
|
a substance which harms or kills microorganisms like fungi and bacteria
|
|
|
A system that allows the pharmacy to purchase any medication that is prescribed
|
open formulary
|
|
|
"p"
|
after
|
|
|
Related to the eye
|
ophthalmic
|
|
|
Centralized unit dose system
|
where the majority of medications are prepared and dispensed from one central location
|
|
|
The common name for the FDA's Approved Drugs Products
|
Orange Book
|
|
|
p.c.
|
after meals
|
|
|
A drop in blood pressure upon standing up
|
orthostatic hypertension
|
|
|
Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA)
|
3.6 g per day per purchaser
|
|
|
A unit of measure of osmotic pressure expressed in terms of osmoles (Osmol) or milliosmoles (mOsmol) per liter
|
osmolarity
|
|
|
p.o.
|
By mouth
|
|
|
The action in which a drug in a higher concentration solution passes through a permeable membrane to a lower concentration solution
|
osmosis
|
|
|
Decentralized Unit Dose System
|
where one or more “satellite” pharmacies are dispersed throughout the institution
|
|
|
A characteristic of a solution determined by the number of dissolved particles in it
|
osmotic pressure
|
|
|
pr
|
Per rectum
|
|
|
Medications that do not require a prescription
|
OTC drugs
|
|
|
A harmful, undesirable side effect
|
Adverse effects
|
|
|
A pharmacy attached to a hospital servicing patients who have left the hospital or who are visiting doctors in a hospital outpatient clinic
|
outpatient pharmacy
|
|
|
p.r.n.
|
as needed
|
|
|
A cure-all
|
panacea
|
|
|
Coding
|
refers to the notation on the medication order by a pharmacist or pharmacy technician of the name, strength and dosage form of the medication prepared for the patient
|
|
|
A route of adminstration to any organ outside of the alimentary tract(e.g. ophthalmic, dermal)
|
parenteral
|
|
|
pulv
|
Powder
|
|
|
The movement of drugs from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration
|
passive diffusion
|
|
|
NDC - National Drug Code
|
1 - manufacturer [4-5 digits]
2 - medication (strenght,dosage form) [3-4 digits] 3 - package size [2 digits] |
|
|
Manufacturer sponsored prescription drug progams for the needy
|
patient assistance programs
|
|
|
q.
|
every
|
|
|
A fully functioning computer the size of a paperback book that could store thousands of contacts, appointments, and notes.
|
personal digitial assistant (PDA)
|
|
|
Automatic Stop Order
|
those medications that have a predesignated duration of therapy and must be discontinued if the physician has not ordered them and are determined by the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
|
|
|
Having to do with the treatment of children
|
pediatric
|
|
|
hormone
|
chemicals produced by the body that regulate body function and processes
|
|
|
The absorption of drugs through the skin, often for a systemic effect
|
percutaneous absorption
|
|
|
q.d.
|
everyday
|
|
|
A system that maintains a continuous record of every item in inventory so that it always shos the stock on hand
|
perpetual inventory
|
|
|
Expiration date
|
the last date of the sale as determined by the manufacturer
|
|
|
To assess one;s personal characteristics, skills, qualities, etc
|
personal inventory
|
|
|
q.h.
|
every hour
|
|
|
The pH scale meausres the acidity or the opposite (alkalinity) of a substance, 7 is the neutral midpoint of the scale, values below which represent increasing acidity, and above which represent increasing alkalinity
|
pH
|
|
|
DEA Formula
|
2 letters - 7 digits
(1+3+5) + 2(2+4+6) = number with same last digit as DEA # |
|
|
Of or about drugs; also, a drug product
|
pharmaceutical
|
|
|
q.h.s.
|
every bedtime
|
|
|
Drug products that contain the same active ingredients, but not necessarily in the same amount or dosage form
|
pharmaceutical alternative
|
|
|
What is the (OOA) Onset of Action?
|
The time period required after administration of a drug to achieve the desired response, or therapeutic concentration level.
|
|
|
Drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients in the same dosage form
|
pharmaceutical equivalent
|
|
|
q.i.d
|
Four times a day
|
|
|
A new field of study which defines the hereditary basis of individual differences in absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excertion (the ADME processes)
|
pharmacogentics
|
|
|
Schedule I
|
high potential for abuse - no accepted medical use
illegal drugs |
|
|
Derived from the Greek words _pharmkon" or drug and "gnosis" or knowledge; the study of physical ,chemical, biochemical and biological properties of drugs as well as the search for new drugs from natural sources
|
pharmacognosy
|
|
|
q.o.d
|
every other day
|
|
|
The study of drugs - their properties, uses, applicatgion, and effects
|
pharmacology
|
|
|
human genome
|
the complete set of gentic material contained in a human cell
|
|
|
An authoritative listing of drugs and issues related to their use
|
pharmacopeia
|
|
|
q.s.
|
sufficient quantity
|
|
|
Companies that administer drug benefit programs
|
pharmacy benefit managers
|
|
|
Schedule II
|
high potential for abuse - currently accepted medical use - no refills - time & quantity limits
amphetamines, opium, cocaine, methadone, opiates |
|
|
Small volume solutions added to an LVP
|
piggybacks
|
|
|
q.s. ad
|
a sufficient quantity to make
|
|
|
An inactive sustance given in place of medication
|
placebo
|
|
|
Unusual or unexpected responses to a drug, unrelated to the dose given
|
Idiosyncrasy
|
|
|
A system which shuttles objects through a tube using compressed air as the force; commonly used in hospitals for delivery of medication
|
pneumatic tube
|
|
|
R/O
|
Rule out
|
|
|
An inventory system in which the item is deducted from inventory as it is sold or dispensed
|
point of sale (POS)
|
|
|
Schedule III
|
potential for abuse - currently accepted medical use
anabolic steroids, limited amounts of codeine |
|
|
Documentation of required policies, procedures, and disciplinary actions in a hospital
|
policy and procedure manual
|
|
|
rt., R
|
Right
|
|
|
The position of the number carries a mathematical significance or value
|
positional notation
|
|
|
A local or general immune response in which the immune system overreacts to an otherwise harmless substance, initial response evokes memory storage
|
Allergy
|
|
|
A network of providers were the patient's primary care physician must be a member and costs outside of the network may be partially reimbursed
|
POSs
|
|
|
s.
|
without
|
|
|
Medical and pharmaceutical nomenclature is a system made up of these four elements
|
1. root words
2. prefixes 3. suffixes 4. combining vowels (C.V.) |
|
|
Schedule IV
|
lower potential for abuse - currently accepted medical use
phenobarbital, chloral hydrate, methohexital |
|
|
Medical science terminology is based on different ____ ______ in the body
|
organ systems
|
|
|
sec
|
Second
|
|
|
A modifying component of a term located before the othe components of the term
|
prefix
|
|
|
The longest name of a drug, giving the chemical makeup
|
Chemical name
|
|
|
A written order from a practictioner for the preparation and administration of a medicine or device
|
prescription
|
|
|
SL, sl
|
sublingual (underneath the tongue)
|
|
|
Cards that contain third party billing information for prescription drug purchases
|
prescription drug benefit cards
|
|
|
Schedule V
|
lowest potential for abuse - currently accepted medical use
limited amounts of codeine |
|
|
The initial emulsion to which ingredients are added to created the final product
|
primary emulsion
|
|
|
ss, s s (lines over each s)
|
One half
|
|
|
Original reports of clinical and other types of research projects and studies
|
primary literature
|
|
|
A shortened version of the chemical name
|
Generic name
|
|
|
An order for medication to be administered only on an as needed basis
|
PRN order
|
|
|
stat
|
immediately
|
|
|
An inactive drug that becomes active after it is transformed by the body
|
prodrug
|
|
|
Orange Book
|
Theraputic Equivalence
A = yes B = no |
|
|
Important associated information that is not on the label of a drug product itself
|
Product labeling
|
|
|
s.c. or s.q.
|
Subcutaneously (underneath the skin)
|
|
|
Offical publications of pharmacy organizations
|
professional practice journals
|
|
|
The name under which the manufacturer has patented the drug, copyrighted. This name begins with a capital letter
|
Trade or Brand name
|
|
|
Individuals who receive extensive and advanced levels of eduction before being allowed to practice, such as physicians and pharmacists
|
professionals
|
|
|
supp
|
suppository
|
|
|
The attachment of a drug molecule to ap;asma or tissue protein, effectively making the frug inactive, but also keeping it within the body
|
protein binding
|
|
|
Form 222
|
DEA from to order C-I & C-II
|
|
|
Specific guidelines for practice
|
protocols
|
|
|
Susp.
|
Suspension
|
|
|
A method for filling capsules by repeatedly pushing or "punching" the capsule into an amount of drug powder
|
punch method
|
|
|
The use of a drug for purposes other than those prescribed
|
Drug Abuse
|
|
|
The number assigned to each order for identification
|
purchase order number
|
|
|
Syr
|
Syrup
|
|
|
Chemicals produced by microorganisms that can cause pyretic (fever) reactions in patients
|
pyrogens
|
|
|
Class I recall
|
likely to cause serious injury or death
|
|
|
The quantity needed to make a prescribed amount
|
qsad
|
|
|
t.i.d
|
Three times a day
|
|
|
Medicare patients who may at times qualify for prescription drug coverage through a state administered program
|
Qualified Medicare Beneficaries
|
|
|
What are some symptoms of withdrawal syndrome?
|
restlessness and restless sleep, chill and hot flashes,piloerection on the skin, abdominal and lower extremity cramps, vomiting and diarrhea, muscular twitching, elevated blood pressure, pulse rate and temp, craving for the drug
|
|
|
The action taken to remove a drug from the market and have it returned to the manufacturer
|
recall
|
|
|
TPN
|
total parenteral nutrition
|
|
|
The cellular material at the site of action that interacts with the drug
|
receptor
|
|
|
Class II recall
|
temporary or reversable adverse effects
|
|
|
Minimum and maximum stock levels which determine when a reorder is placed and for how much
|
reorder points
|
|
|
U.d.
|
As directed
|
|
|
Absoprtion of bone elements into the blood
|
resorption
|
|
|
Means vinegar, acid or sharp
|
acet/o
|
|
|
A disease in which the body's immune system attachs joint tissue
|
rheumatiod arthritis
|
|
|
ung
|
ointment
|
|
|
The base component of a term which gives a word it meaning and which may be modified byother components
|
root word
|
|
|
Class III recall
|
not like to cause adverse effects
|
|
|
A child-resistant cap
|
safety cap
|
|
|
tr or tinct
|
tincture
|
|
|
Pharmacy locations in a decentalized system that operate outside the central pharmacy
|
satellites
|
|
|
Means glue
colloidal oatmeal |
collo
|
|
|
A solution containing the maximum amount of drug it can contain at room temperature
|
saturated solution
|
|
|
USP
|
United State Pharmacopeia
|
|
|
What individuals may and may not do in their jobs
|
scope of practice
|
|
|
Means shape, dream
|
morph/o
|
|
|
Software that searches the Web for information related to criteria entered by the user
|
search engine
|
|
|
JCAHO
|
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations
|
|
|
General reference works based upon primary literature sources
|
secondary literature
|
|
|
Means fever, fire
antipyretic |
pyr, pyr/o
|
|
|
The characteristic of a drug that makes it action specific to certain receptors and the tissues they affect
|
selective (action)
|
|
|
ASCP
|
American Society for Consultant Pharmacists
|
|
|
The amount of weight that will move the balance pointer one decision mark on the marker plate
|
sensitivity
|
|
|
Means pain
|
-algia, -algesia
|
|
|
Needles, jagged flass or metal obhects, or any items that might puncture or cut the skin
|
sharps
|
|
|
Means to break apart
sympatholytic, urinalysis |
-lysis
|
|
|
Stickers with bar codes that can be scanned for inventory identification
|
shle stickers
|
|
|
What is the chemical name of a drug dictated by?
|
The chemical components in the drug and the generic name is given when a compound is classified into a particular drug class.
|
|
|
Medication that will expire soon after preparation (i.e., within 1-6 hours after preparation)
|
short stability
|
|
|
How can drugs be identified by class?
|
When looking at the generic name
|
|
|
The direction for use on the prescription that must be printed on the prescription label
|
signa
|
|
|
Drug Class: benzodiazepine Ex:Diazepam
|
-azepam
|
|
|
A book in which patients sign for the prescription they, for legal and insurance purposes
|
signature log
|
|
|
Drug class: penicillin
Ex: amoxicillin |
-cillin
|
|
|
The location where an administered drug produces an effect
|
site of action
|
|
|
nothing by mouth
|
npo
|
|
|
Drug class: narcotic analgesic
Ex:hydrocodone, codeine |
-cod
|
|
|
When a drug is introduced into the circulatory system
|
systemic effect
|
|
|
A clear liquid made up of one or more substances dissolved in a solvent
|
solution
|
|
|
right eye
|
od
|
|
|
Drug class: beta blocker
Ex: atenelol propranolol |
-olol
|
|
|
Individuals who are given a basic level of training designed to help them perform specific tasks
|
technicians
|
|
|
A liquid that disolves another substance in it
|
solvent
|
|
|
left eye
|
os
|
|
|
Drug class: steroid anti-inflammatory
triamcinolone |
-olone
|
|
|
The ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when given to a pregnant woman
|
teratogenecity
|
|
|
Exposure to high frequency sound waves
|
sonication
|
|
|
each eye or both eyes
|
ou
|
|
|
Drug class: ACE inhibitor
Ex: lisinopril monopril |
-pril
|
|
|
Condensed works based on primary leterature such as textbooks, monographs, etc.
|
tertiary literature
|
|
|
Mixing powders with a spatyla
|
spatulation
|
|
|
Means by mouth
derived from per os |
po
|
|
|
Drug class: H2 Blocker
Ex:ranitidine, cimetidine |
-tidine
|
|
|
Serving to cure or heal
|
therapeutic
|
|
|
A device used to measure blood pressure
|
sphygmomanometer
|
|
|
Means rectally
|
pr
|
|
|
Drug class: tricyclic antidepressant
Ex:nortriptyline, amitriptyline |
-triptyline
|
|
|
pharmaceutical equivalent that produce the same effects in patients
|
therapeutic equivalent
|
|
|
The chemical and physcial integrity of the dosage unit, and when appropriate, its ability to withstand microbiological contamination
|
stability
|
|
|
Means take or take thou
|
Rx
|
|
|
Drug class: antiviral
Ex: zivovudine |
-vudine
|
|
|
A drug's blood concentration range between its minimum effective concentration and minimum toxic concentration
|
therapeutic window
|
|
|
A standard medication order for patients to receive medication at scheduled intervals
|
STAT order
|
|
|
What biological factors affect drug action?
|
Age, gender, disease state, psychological factors, genetic factors, and natural chemicals
|
|
|
Means drops
|
gtts
|
|
|
Applied for local effect, usually to the skin
|
Topical
|
|
|
A condition of excess fat in the feces
|
steatorrhea
|
|
|
Age related changes in organ funcion and body composition can causes altered drug responses in regards to what?
|
Absorption, distribution, elimination, metabolism
|
|
|
Means acetaminophen
|
APAP
|
|
|
A TPN solution that contains intravenous fat emulsion
|
total nutrient admixture (TNA) solution
|
|
|
A condition which is free of all microogranishs, noth harmful and harmless
|
steril
|
|
|
What are three natural chemicals yoru body produces that affect metabolism of drugs?
|
histamine, prostaglandin, and bradykinin
|
|
|
Means as needed
|
prn
|
|
|
Complex solutions with two base solutions (amino acids and dextrose) and additional micronutrients
|
total parenteral ntrition (TPN) solution
|
|
|
Means aspirin
|
ASA
|
|
|
What is release in your body as a result of the body's immune response to foreign substances?
|
Histamine
|
|
|
A thickening agent used in the preparation of suspensions
|
suspending agent
|
|
|
Journals published commerically for pharmacists but not produced by the profession; they tend to contain large amounts of advertising material
|
trade journals
|
|
|
The outermost cell layer of the epidermis
|
stratum corneum
|
|
|
Mediatores of several physiologic processes and produce diverse, complex pharmacologic actions in several body systems and metabolic pathways
|
(PG's) prostaglandins
|
|
|
Means four times a day
derived from quater in die |
qid
|
|
|
Counter area designated for taking prescriptions and delivering them
|
transaction window
|
|
|
Derived from ante cibum means before meals
|
ac
|
|
|
What is a property of prostaglandins?
|
Fever and uterine contraction and relaxation
|
|
|
Formulations in which the drug does not completly disolve in the liquid
|
suspensions
|
|
|
Drug transfer into the eye
|
transcorneal transport
|
|
|
Under the tongue
|
sublingual
|
|
|
What causes intense uterine contraction?
|
PGF
|
|
|
Means three times a day derived from ter in die
|
tid
|
|
|
The process of grinding particles to reduce particle size
|
trituration
|
|
|
Means at pleasure, freely
|
ad lib
|
|
|
What causes uterine relaxation?
|
PGE,PGA, and PGB
|
|
|
When two drugs with similar pharmacological actions produce greater effects than the sum of the individual effects
|
synergism
|
|
|
The rate at which inventory is used, generally expressed in number of days
|
turnover
|
|
|
A modifying component of a term located after the other components of the term
|
suffix
|
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A polypeptide that is formed from plasma alpha globulin?
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Bradykinin
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Right ear
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ad
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An infectious disease which promarily affects the respiratory system
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tuberculosis
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Means twice a day
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BID
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What are some effects of bradykinin?
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Arterial dilation and lowered blood pressure, it stimulates autonomic ganglion cells in contact with sensory nerve ending, which causes pain
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With chemicals, combining simpler chemicals into more complex compunds, creating a new chemical not found in nature as a result
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synthetic
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Usual and customary - the maximum amount of payment for a given prescription, determined by the insurer to be a usual and customary (and reasonable) price
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U & C or UCR
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A solution containing a larger amount of drug than it normally contains at room temperature
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supersaturate solution
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What happens if the gastro intestinal tract is free of food and irritating drugs?
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Drugs are absorbed more rapidly
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left ear
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as
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A package containing the amount of a drug required for one dose
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unit-dose packaging
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The ease with which a suspension can be drawn from a container in to a syringe
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syringeability
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What three phases is the mechanism of action divided into?
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Pharmaceutical, pharmacokinetic, and pharmacodynamics
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each ear or both ears
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au
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The price of a unit of medication (such as an ounce of liquid cold remedy)
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unit price
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850 grams of sucrose and 450 ml of water per liter
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Syrup USP
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In the pharmaceutical phase the process by which a drug goes into solution and becomes available for absorption is called what?
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Dissolution
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A standard claim form accepted by many insurers
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universal claim form
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In the pharmocokinetics phase what determines the rate of absorption?
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The route of administration, dose of the drug, and dosage form.
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A Web address
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URL (uniform resource locator)
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The transfer of a drug substance from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration until equilibrium is reached
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Passive transport
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The number of positive or negative charges on an ion
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valence
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No enery is required for theis process and the majority of drugs are transported by this system
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Passive transport
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A constriction of the blood vessels
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vascoconstriction
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Necessary for the transport of amino acids, glucose, and some drugs
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Active or carrier transport
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Drugs that relax and expand the blood vessels
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vasodilators
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Involves movement of drug molecules against the concentration gradient from lower concentration to higher concentration, or in the case of ions, against teh electrochemical potential gradient
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Active or carrier transport
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An unknown value in a mathematical equation
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variable
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Drugs that are lipid-soluble can also pass more easily through the ________,________, the placental barrier, and the alimentary tract
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blood brain barrier
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Irregular heart action seen in cardiac arrest patients
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ventricular fibrillation
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Which drugs are absorbed more quickly via the parenteral route?
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Water-soluble
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A small glass or plastic container with a rubber closure sealing the contents in the container
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vial
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Why may the drug be prepared in a vehicle that restists digestive action of the stomach contents?
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to prevent nausea and vomition induced by the drugs effect in the stomach.
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The thickness of a liquid
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viscosity
(vi-skos-i-tee) |
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Storage reservoirs allow a drug to accumulate by binding to specific tissues in the body, which sustains teh pharmacologic effect of a drug at its point of action
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Plasma protein binding
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Meaures volume
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volumetric
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Where are lipid soluble drugs stored?
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adipose tissue
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The property of a substance being able to dissolve in water
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water soluble
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Where is the primary site of drug metabolism?
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Liver
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An emulsion in which water is dispersed through an oil base
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water-in-oil emulsions
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A process whereby drugs and pharmacologically active or inactive metabolites are eliminated from the body, primarily through the kidney
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Excretion
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Water molecules that attach to drug molecules
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waters of hydration
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Weak acids are excreted more ________in alkaline urine and more ________in acidic urine whereas as weak bases are excreted more________readily in acidic urine and more______in alkaline urine.
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readily, slowly, readily, slowly
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A raised blister-like area on the skin, as caused by an intrdermal injection
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wheal
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What is generally the safest route for drug administration?
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Oral route
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An employer compensation program for employees accidentally injured on the job
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workers' compensation
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The effects of two drugs given together is equal to the sum of each of teh individual drugs. 1+1=2
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Additive effects (summation)
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A collection of electronic documents at Internet addresses call Web sites.
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World Wide Web
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A drug interaction in which the combined effect of two drugs is greater thatn the sum of each individual dose. 1+1=3
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Synergism
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The administration o ftwo drugs is less than the sum of either drug given individually. 1+1=1.5 Both drugs compete for the same receptor site
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Antagonism
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An effect that occurs when one drug increases or prolongs the effect of another drug, but by itself has little or no effect
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Potentiation
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What is the only form alowed for prescribing controlled substances?
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DD1289
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What polyprescription can only be used for non controlled prescription or over the counter meds?
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NAVMED 6710/6
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What is the superscription?
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The rX symbol
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What is the inscription?
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Lists name and quantities of the ingrediants to be used
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What is the subscription?
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Gives directions to the compounder
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What is the Signatura?
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Gives directions to the patient
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How many times do you need to check the label when dispensing medications?
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three
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Where and when was the metric system developed?
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France, 1790
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When did the metric system become a legal standard measurment in the US?
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1893
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