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126 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

During preflight, what info wll help plan for icing?

* Location of front
* Cloud layers
* Freezing levels
* Temp and pressure

What are types of in-flight icing?

Structural, induction system, and instrument icing

What are types of structural icing?

Clear, rime, and mixed ice

What weather info can warn you about wind shear?

Terminal forcasts, METARs, SIGMETs, LLWAS, PIREPs

What are the 2 basic ways fog forms?

* Cooling air to dew point
* Adding moisture to the air near the ground

Where can you get a weather briefing?

AFSS/FSS, 1-800-WX BRIEF

What are the types of weather briefings?

* Standard - when planning a flight
* Abbr - to supplement mass disseminated data, update previous briefing, or need only specific items
* Outlook - 6+hrs from dep, for planning
* Inflight - update preflight

What is EFAS?

En route Flight Advisory Services (Flight Watch)

Provides weather advisories for en route flight. Services available at 5000-17000 MSL on 122.0MHz.

What is HIWAS?

Hazardous In-flight Weatyher Advisory Service

Continuos brodcast of in-flight weather advisories: Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convetive SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, urgent PIREPs.

LIFR

ceiling < 500 ft and/or visibility < 1 mile

IFR

ceiling 500 to < 1000 ft and/or visibility 1 to < 3 miles

MVFR

Marginal VFR

ceiling 1000 to < 3000 ft and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles

VFR

ceiling > 3000 ft and visibility > 5 miles

Convective SIGMET (WST)

Severe turbulence, icing, or LL wind shear for all categories of aircraft.

SIGMET (WS)

Non-convective SIGMET like icing or turbulence not associated with thunderstorms, duststorms or sandstorms lowering visibility, or volcanic ash.

AIRMET (WA)

SIGMETs with lower intensity requirments.

Types of AIRMETs

* Seirra - IFR conditions, extensive mt obscurations
* Tango - moderate turbulence, non-convective LL wind shear
* Zulu - moderate icing, freezing levels

What info is on Winds/Temps Aloft (FB)

* favorable alt
* areas of icing (+2°C to - 2°C)
* temp inversions
* turbulence


Generated every 4x per day

What info is on a surface analysis chart?

* pressure systems
* fronts
* winds, temps, dew point


Generated every 3 hrs

What info is on a weather depiction chart?

METAR info

Generated in 3 hr intervals starting at 01Z.

What info is on a radar summary chart?

Areas of precipitation as well as type, intensity, configuration, conveage, echo top, and cell movement.

What info is on a short-range prog chart?

Forecast of selected weather conditions

What is upslope fog?

Light wind pushes moist air along mountains ranges where to a level air becomes saturated.

What is advection fog?

Transport of warm humid air over a cold surface. Forms primarily along costal areas during winter.

What causes radiation fog?

Ground cools adjacent air to dew point on calm, clear nights

Isogonic line

A dashed magenta line on aeronautical charts indicating the magnetic variation.

Magnetic variation

The angle differnece between true north (TN) and magnetic north (MN).

Magnetic deviation

Magnetic influences by the airplane itself that defect the compass needle.

CTAF

Common Trafic Advisory Frequency



Frequency used for air to air communication in an uncontrolled airport. Pilots may coordinate arrival/departures operations on common frequency.

ATIS

Auto Terminal Information Service



Continious broadcast of noncontrol info at busy airports.

UNICOM

Universal Communication



Frequence used for air to ground communciation for non-flight services (taxi, fuel, parking, etc)

What frequency should you use at an uncontrolled airport without FSS or UNICOM

MULTICOM 122.9

Common frequencies monitored by FSS

121.5 - Emergency


122.0 - EFAS


123.6 - LAA


122.2 - common enroute

What preflight is needed for a local area flight?

All available info concerning flight including, runway lengths, takeoff and landing distance data

What 6 preflight action is needed for flights away from departure airport?

a. Weather


b. Fuel


c. Alt route


d. Traffic delays


e. Runway len


f. Takeoff and landing distance

What is the max speed under 10000 MSL

250 Kt

Gun signal: Steady Green

Clear takeoff and land

Gun signal: Flashing Green

Clear taxi


Return for landing

Gun signal: Steady Red

Stop


Yield, continue circling

Gun signal: Flashing Red

Taxi clear of runway


Unsafe, don't land

Gun signal: Flashing White

Ground: return to start

Gun signal: alt red/green

Exercise extreme caution

Procedure arriving with receiver inoperative

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area


b. Determine traffic flow


c. Advise tower of aircraft, position, alt, intention to land. Request to light signals


d. 3-5 mi, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern


e. Watch for light signals

Procedure arriving with transmitter inoperative

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area


b. Determine traffic flow


c. Monitor frequency for landing/traffic info


d. Join traffic pattern and watch for light signals


e. Acknowledge: day - rock wings / night - flash landing or nav lights

Procedure arriving receiver/transmitter inoperative

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area


b. Determine traffic flow


c. Join traffic pattern and watch for light signals


d. Acknowledge: day - rock wings / night - flash landing or nav lights

Instruments/equip required for VFR day

Tachometer, Oil pressure gauge, Manifold pressure gauge, Altimeter, Temp gauge, Oil temp gauge



Fuel gauge, Flotation gear, Landing gear indicator, Airspeed indicator, Anticollion lights, Magnetic direction indicator, ELT, Safety belts


Instruments/equip required for VFR night

Fuses, Landing light, Anticollision lights, Position lights (Nav), Source of electrical energy

VFR min visibility and cloud distnace Class G 1200 AGL or less regardless of MSL

Day: 1 sm clear of clouds


Night: 3 sm 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal

Class G

Below 10000 MSL


Day: 1 sm, Night: 3 sm


500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal



Above 10000 MSL


5 sm 1000 below, 1000 above, 1 sm horizontal



Student pilot, no entry req, no entry equip req

Class E

Below 10000 MSL


3 sm 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal



Above 10000 MSL


5 sm 1000 below, 1000 above, 1 sm horizontal



Student pilot, no entry req, no entry equip req

Discribe Class B

From surface to 10000 MSL and consists of 2 or more layers (upside down cake). Depicted with solid shaded blue line on charts.

Discribe Class C

From surface to 4000 AGL (charted in MSL) with tower. Depicted with solid magenta line on charts.

Discribe Class D

From surface to 2500 AGL (charted in MSL) with tower. Depicted with blue segmented lines on charts.

SVFR min req

1 sm, clear of clouds, day

Discribe Prohibited Area

Areas associted with national welfare/security

Discribe Restricted Area

Restricted area due to unusual hazards (artillery firing, aerial gunnery, guided missles). Dipicted with blue line hashed on both sides on charts. Need auth from controlling angency prior to entering.

Discribe Warning Area

Warn nonparticipating pilots of potential danger.

Discribe MOA

Area of military training activity. Dipicted by a magenta boarder with hashed lines on the outer edge of charts.

Discribe Alert Areas

Areas containing a high volume of training or unusual type of aerial activity.

Discribe Controlled Firing Areas

Area with pontential hazards. Activities are suspended when spotter aircraft, radar or gorund lookout positions indicate an aircraft might approach.

Discribe National Security Area

Areas of increased security and safety of ground facilities. Can be temp altered to restricted area.

When is immediate notification to NTSB required?

a. Flight control system malfunction


b. Crewmemeber unable to perform normal duties


c. Inflight fire


d. Aircraft collision inflight


e. Property damage over $25000


f. Overdue aircraft believed to be accident


g. Release of propeller


h. Complete loss of info for more than 50% of EFIS

Define incident

Occurrence other than accident which affects or could affect safety operations

Define accident

Death or serious injury, or aircraft receives substatinal damage.

Define serious injury

a. Requires hospitalization over 48hrs within 7 days


b. Fracture bone (except simlple fractures of fingsers toes or nose)


c. Hemorrhages, never, muscle or tendon damage


d. Involves internal organ or


e. Involves 2nd, 3rd drgree burns over 5% of body

Define substantial damage

Damage or failure which adversely affects structure, performance, or flight characteristics. Would require major repair or replacement.

Where should an accident/incedent be filed?

Nearest NTSB office of accident/incedient

When should an accident/incedent be filed?

Accident: 10 days after or 7 days after overdue


Incident: when requested

What is the meaning of a rotating beacon during daylight hrs indicate?

Airport conditions are less than MVFR

What are the 6 types of airport signs?

1. Mandatory instruction


2. Location


3. Direction


4. Destination


5. Information


6. Runway distance remaining

Describe a mandatory instruction sign

red background/white inscription; entrance to runway, critical area, prohibited area


 

red background/white inscription; entrance to runway, critical area, prohibited area


Describe a location sign

black background/yellow inscription, no arrows; taxiway, runway location, runway boundary, ILS critical area

black background/yellow inscription, no arrows; taxiway, runway location, runway boundary, ILS critical area

Describe direction sign

yellow background/black inscription; designation/direction to taxiway, runway, etc

yellow background/black inscription; designation/direction leading out of intersection

Describe destination sign

yellow background/black inscription; location of runway, cargo, civil aviation areas, etc

yellow background/black inscription; location of runway, cargo, civil aviation areas, etc

Describe information sign

yellow background/black inscription; info that can't be seen from tower

Describe runway distance remaining sign

black background/white number; distance remaining in 1000s ft

Describe runway threashold markings

longitudinal stripes at beginning of runway; can be used for landing

longitudinal stripes at beginning of runway; can be used for landing

Describe displaced threshold

behind runway threashold, yellow chevrons, white arrows or empty; can't land on, yellow can't takeoff or taxi, empty taxi only, arrows takeoff

behind runway threashold, yellow chevrons, white arrows or empty; can't land on, yellow can't takeoff or taxi, empty taxi only, arrows takeoff

Describe hold position markings

indicates clearance is needed before proceeding on taxiway; four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed

indicates clearance is needed before proceeding on taxiway; four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed

Describe temp closed runway/taxiway

Runway has yellow crosses on both ends. Taxiways blocked with barricades or yellow cross at entrance

Describe permanently closed runway/taxiway

Lighting circuits disconnected. Runway thresholds, designation, and touchdown markings removed with yellow cross instead

Recommended entry and departure procedure at non-controlled airport

Enter level flight mid downfield at pattern altitude. Depart straight out or 45 degrees toward traffic pattern after reaching pattern altitude.

ARTCC

Air Route Traffic Control Center



en route service to IFR flight plans but can provide service to VFR flight when equip and workload permits (flight following)

Convert UTC

+5 - 10; Eastern, Central, Mt, Pacific, AK, HI

Order of frequencies arriving/departing

Arriving: ATIS, Approach, Control, Ground


Depart: ATIS, Clearance Delivery (if needed), Ground, Control, Departure

4 basic groups of NOTAMs

(D) NOTAM, FDC NOTAM, Pointer NOTAM, Military NOTAM

Describe (D) NOTAM

en route nav aids, civil pub airports, facilities, services, procedures

Describe FDC NOTAM

info that's regulatory, changes to IFR charts, procedures, airspace usage

Describe Pointer NOTAM

highlight other NOTAMs to cross-ref important info

Describe Military NOTAM

U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy nav aids/airports part of NAS

When is a VFR flight plan required

penetrating a Costal or Domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ; DVFR

Time delay after ETA on flight plan before search and rescue begins

1/2 hr

TFR

Temporary flight restriction is a regulatory action issued via NOTAM; restrict certain aircraft from operating within defined area.

Types of illusions leading to landing errors

Runway width - narrow looks like aircraft higher than actual, wide looks lower


Runway slopes - upslope looks like aircraft is higher than actual, downslope looks lower


Featureless terrain - absence of ground features looks like aircraft higher than actual


Atmospheric - rain or windscreen illusion greater height, haze illusion of greater distance

What are 3 major causes for runway incursions?

Communications, lack of airport knowledge, failure to maintan situational awareness

Preflight planning for taxi should include:

a. airport signage, markings and lighting


b. identify hot spots


c. NOTAMs and ATIS


d. expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines based on ATIS


e. critical times and locations on taxi route


f. complete as many checklist items as possible

What is a hot spot?

Complex or confusing taxiway-taxiway or taxiway-runway intersections

What is are progressive taxi instructions?

Step by step routing directions, request when confused or unfamiliar with airport

What taxi instructions needs to be read back?

Runway, clearance to enter specific runway, instruction to hold short

Hazards in airports without operating tower and calm winds

- Aircraft landing/takeoff in either direction


- Instrument arrival on opposite end of takeoff

Precautions to taxi in non-towared airport prior to entering or crossing runway

- Listen to CTAF


- Scan full length of runway


- Self announce position and intentions

What are the eligibility requirements for a private pilot?

a. be at least 17


b. read/write English


c. hold U.S student pilot cert, sport pilot cert, or rec pilot cert


d. 3rd class med


e. receive ground and flight training


f. meet aeronautical experience req


g. pass knowledge and practical tests

Privileges and limitations of private pilot

a. PIC in connection with any business or employment only if incidental and doesn't carry passengers or property for compensation


b. may not pay less then pro rata share of flight


c. PIC for charity or nonprofit


d. reimbursed for search and location


e. demo aircraft if salesman and 200hrs


f. PIC of aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle


g. PIC conducting prod flight test in light-sport

What does private pilot have in possession?

pilot certificate, photo id, me cert

What is a high-performance airplane and what do you need to act as PIC?

Airplane with over 200hp. Must have received ground and flight training and 1x endorsement in logbook.

What type of aircraft require specific training and logbook endorsements?

high-performance, complex, high-altitude, tailwheel

What is a complex airplane and what do you need to act as PIC?

Airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller. Must have received ground and flight training and 1x endorsement in logbook.

Define airmen category, class, and type

Category - a broad classification (airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc)


Class - classification of aircraft within category having similar characteristics (single-engine, multi-engine, land, etc)


Type - make and model

Requirements to remain current as private pilot

a. flight review within 24 cm with logbook endorsement


b. to carry passengers, pilot must within 90 days of same type: 3 takeoffs/landings, full stop if tailwheel or night

When must the FAA Airmen Certification branch be notified of a new address?

within 30 days after date of move

How can a pilot determine if his/her aircraft is equipped with Mode C transponder?

Reference the current weight/balance equip list

When does aircraft registration expire?

Aircraft before 10/1/10 aircraft re-registration specific schedule. After 10/1/10 registration will expire 3 yrs after last day of mo issued.

Who is responsible for ensuring aircraft is maintained and airworthy?

owner and operator

After aircraft inspections and defects repaired, who is responsible for determining airworthiness?

PIC

Can a pilot conduct flight operations with known inoperative equipment?

Yes, with MEL or without MEL under 14 CFR 91.213(d)

What is MEL

Minimum Equipment Lists



list of instruments, equip or procedures that is okay to fly without. Specific to type and must be FAA approved.

Required maintenance inspection?

Annual inspection - 12 cm


100 hr inspection - if carrying any person for hire or flight instruction

Difference between annual and 100 hr inspection?

Only A&P mechanic with Inspection Authorization can perform and annual

What should maintenance/equip and aircraft engine logbooks include?

A Anual inspection 12 cm


V VOR check if IFR 30 every 30 days


1 100hr inspection


A Altimeter, altitude equip, static pressure systems 24 cm


T Transponder ever 24 cm


E ELT ever 12 cm

Documents aircraft owner must have

a. current Airworthiness Cert and registration


b. maintain in airworthy condition with ADs


c. record maintenance


d. stay current on regs concerning operation of aircraft


e. notify FAA Civil Aviation Registry of change in mailing address


f. current FCC radio station license if equip, including ELT if outside U.S.

Discribe preventative maintenance

Minor preservation operations and replacement of small standard parts (oil change, wheel bearing lubrication, hydraulic fluid refills)

Discribe special flight permits

Permit to fly aircraft that doesn't meet applicable airworthiness:


a. flying to base for repairs


b. delivering/exporting


c. prod flight testing


d. evacuating aircraft for area of impending danger


e. demo flights

How are special flight permits obtained?

Forms from local FSDO or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR)

What are Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

Potentially unsafe design defects, maintenance, or other causes.

Are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material in cockpit?

Yes

When is carburetor icing likely to happen

Below 70°F (21°C) and relative humidity > %80