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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A Project Charter is a document issued by senior management that formally authorizes the work of the project to begin (or continue) and gives the project manager authority to do his job. What should be accomplished before writing the project charter?
A. Identify needs B. Deliver the project in the agreed schedule C. Correct technical glitches D. Execute processes—coordinate people and other resources to carry out the plan |
A. Identify needs
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A plan is typically any procedure used to achieve an objective. What is a strategic objective?
A. A long-term objective that is essential for the business to achieve in order to maintain competitive advantage B. Assessing Needs C. Making decisions about the project D. Conducting tasks that are high in complexity and have many interdependent subtasks |
A. A long-term objective that is essential for the business to achieve in order to maintain competitive advantage
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Long-range planning is based on a projection of historical data into the future using somewhat arbitrary assumptions for projectors. Which of the following statements is indicative of long-range planning?
A. We will improve our data collection methods, so all our sales will be recorded B. We will grow our company's revenue by 5 percent in five years C. We will reduce our operating costs over the next year D. Decisions will be made only by managers from now on |
B. We will grow our company's revenue by 5 percent in five years
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Vision Statements are the inspiring words chosen by successful leaders to clearly and concisely convey the direction of the organization. What is the objective of a vision statement?
A Planning strategy: Developing concepts, ideas, and plans for achieving objectives successfully and for meeting and beating competition B. Powerfully communicating the company's intentions and motivating its teams to realize an attractive and inspiring common vision of the future C. Assessing Needs D. Making decisions about the project |
B. Powerfully communicating the company's intentions and motivating its teams to realize an attractive and inspiring common vision of the future
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SWOT Analysis is a powerful technique for understanding your Strengths and Weaknesses, and for looking at the Opportunities and Threats you face. Which of the following is a benefit of doing a SWOT analysis?
A. It helps you carve a sustainable niche in your market B. It will help influence and finally change the culture before leading a successful organizational change effort C. It leads you to respect ideals, customs, institutions, etc., of a society toward which the people of the group have an affective regard D. It encourages principle, standard, or quality considered worthwhile or desirable |
A. It helps you carve a sustainable niche in your market
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Environmental scanning is a process of gathering, analyzing, and dispensing information for tactical or strategic purposes. What does it entail?
A. Matching the firm's resources and capabilities to the competitive environment in which it operates B. Influencing and finally changing the culture before leading a successful organizational change effort C. Obtaining both factual and subjective information on the business environments in which a company is operating or considering entering D. Encouraging principles, standards, or qualities considered worthwhile or desirable |
C. Obtaining both factual and subjective information on the business environments in which a company is operating or considering entering
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When HR collects data about the business from employees, and then delivers that information to people who can act upon it, this helps the firm maximize its performance. Which of the following is a benefit of collecting data from employees?
A. New insights about customers B. Willingness to act on external information received C. A plan to deal with the effects of the outside environment on the internal company D. Knowledge of economic issues, completion, political, global, employment, technical advancements, demographics |
A. New insights about customers
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Every organization, whether it has one employee or 500 employees, should have an annual HRs Audit. What does an HR audit do?
A. Measure customer satisfaction B. Measure where the company currently stands and determines what it has to accomplish to improve its HR functions C. Influence and finally change the culture before leading a successful organizational change effort D. Obtain both factual and subjective information on the business environments in which a company is operating or considering entering |
B. Measure where the company currently stands and determines what it has to accomplish to improve its HR functions
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Secondary research (also known as desk research) involves the summary, collation and/or synthesis of existing research rather than primary research, where data is collected from, for example, research subjects or experiments. Which of the following is a field in which secondary research is used extensively?
A. Market Research B. HRs C. Customer Service Surveys D. Telephone Interviews |
A. Market Research
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Companies facing a labor shortage need to contemplate creative alternatives to remain viable in an increasingly competitive marketplace. Which of the following is a non-traditional option that can be used to alleviate the problem?
A. Permanent workers for a 9 to 5 shift B. Mothers who are only available from 9 to 2 when children are in school C. College graduates qualified for the job D. Transferring workers from one department to another |
B. Mothers who are only available from 9 to 2 when children are in school
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In today's global business environment, it is becoming clear that satisfaction and stability - even loyalty and some degree of commitment - are not enough to forge the crucial link between employee performance and positive business results. What is employee engagement?
A. Employees who are "satisfied" with pay, benefits and working conditions B. Those who are "committed" to the organization and not considering a move C. A state of mind in which employees feel a vested interest in the company's success and are both willing and motivated to perform to levels that exceed the stated job requirements D. Employees who are content to do their jobs - reliably and with no thought of leaving the organization |
C. A state of mind in which employees feel a vested interest in the company's success and are both willing and motivated to perform to levels that exceed the stated job requirements
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Off-shoring describes the relocation by a company of a business process from one country to another. What types of processes are usually relocated offshore?
A. Customer service B Research and development C. Information Technology D. Manufacturing |
D. Manufacturing
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A line manager is an employee's immediate superior, who oversees and has responsibility for the employee's work. What are line managers in large companies sometimes called?
A. Supervisors B. Officers-in-Charge C. Senior Officers D. Corporal |
A. Supervisors
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The virtual team, for example, can be an effective instrument for leveraging resources within a company in carrying out a project. Which of the following is a drawback of the virtual team?
A. It uses services within a country B. It is located in the "best shore" based on various criteria C. It relies on mediated communication, making it more difficult to develop virtual trust among team members D. It reduces costs |
C. It relies on mediated communication, making it more difficult to develop virtual trust among team members
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Often the term "divestiture" is used as a means to grow financially in which a company sells off a business unit in order to focus their resources on a market it judges to be more profitable, or promising. Which of the following is another cause for divestiture?
A. Mergers and Acquisitions B. Budgeting C. HR Needs D. All of the above |
A. Mergers and Acquisitions
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knowledge of the workforce - is now more than ever in the spotlight of many organizations' agendas. Which of the following is a sign of an effective HR department?
A. HR being in constant, honest communication with employees B. HR professionals aligning their management goals and the goals of employees with organizational strategic goals C. Employees are "satisfied" with pay, benefits and working conditions D. The department develops a deep understanding of the company's customer relationships |
B. HR professionals aligning their management goals and the goals of employees with organizational strategic goals
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The trend toward reducing the number of management levels in organizations is being driven by the need of organizations to increase the speed and accuracy of communication. Which of the following is a communication problem faced by traditional organizations?
A. No focus on terms and conditions of work so that employees could feel fairly treated B. Slow processing of information caused by multiple levels of management C. Not ensuring employees are "satisfied" with pay, benefits and working conditions D. Not developing a deep understanding of the company's customer relationships |
B. Slow processing of information caused by multiple levels of management
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Good supervision affects organizational results and the overall work environment. Which of the following is a benefit of having a strong supervisory team?
A. It focuses on terms and conditions of work so that employees could feel fairly treated B. It acts upon what is learned, is critical for the success of an organization C. It shows output in quantifiable terms so that outcomes can be measured D. It contributes to a positive work environment and enables employees to be and feel successful |
D. It contributes to a positive work environment and enables employees to be and feel successful
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An organization adapts to change most successfully when the ground is well prepared in advance. How can you build support for effective change management?
A. Control the effect of changes, thereby avoiding overruns in cost and schedule B. Communicate information honestly and use data whenever it is available C. Ensure passive resistance festers D. Help active resistance to emerge and sabotage the change |
B. Communicate information honestly and use data whenever it is available
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In one type of acquisition, the buyer purchases the assets of the target company. Which of the following is a disadvantage of this type of structure?
A. Reasons for the project are understood and accepted throughout the organization B. Productivity declines as people become more consumed with the change being introduced. C. Passive resistance festers. D. The tax that many jurisdictions impose on transfers of the individual assets |
D. The tax that many jurisdictions impose on transfers of the individual assets
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The number of mergers and acquisitions (M&A) in business and government continue to grow each year. Which of the following is a benefit of planning your merger or acquisition properly?
A Decreased job stress and workload B. Clarifies objectives and goals C. Less passive resistance D. The tax that many jurisdictions impose on transfers of the individual assets |
B. Clarifies objectives and goals
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Many organizations spend most of their time reacting to unexpected changes instead of anticipating and preparing for them. Which of the following is part of the plan process?
A. Focusing on management problems B. Improving teamwork and culture C. Eliminating passive resistance D. Choosing strategies |
D. Choosing strategies
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Agreement among experts in the field is that HR can help an organization accomplish its strategic goals - if only top management would let them. Which of the following is a reason to include HR in the planning process?
A. Eliminating passive resistance B. Selection and staffing C. Formulating strategies D. Defining goal |
B. Selection and staffing
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Strategic planning is a step-by-step process through which organizations engage in two types of activities. Which of the following is one of these activities?
A. Eliminating passive resistance B. Creating the right motivational environment C. Identifying where the organization wants to be D. Defining goal |
C. Identifying where the organization wants to be
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Employee engagement, also called Work engagement, is a concept that is generally viewed as managing discretionary effort, that is, when employees have choices, they will act in a way that furthers their organization's interests. Which of the following is a means of aiding employee engagement?
A. Creativity B. The organization's goals C. Highlighting the value of employees' work D. Productivity |
C. Highlighting the value of employees' work
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Diversity training is training for the purpose of increasing participants' cultural awareness, knowledge, and skills. How is it expected to benefit the organization?
A. By maintaining training and employee costs B. By increasing the inclusion of different identity groups C. Highlighting value of creative changes D. How to interact with others at employee programs |
B. By increasing the inclusion of different identity groups
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HRs professionals face business ethics choices and their consequences daily. Which of the following is a benefit of managing ethics in the workplace?
A. It develops a Code of Business Ethics B. It shifts employees around frequently C. It helps maintain a moral course in turbulent times D. Teach members of the department right from wrong |
C. It helps maintain a moral course in turbulent times
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Professional development is that continuing growth which enables a member of the HR staff to perform his or her duties more effectively. Which of the following is a part of professional growth?
A. Integrating ethics management with other management practices B. Fostering the reporting of misconduct and related concerns C. Improving instructional effectiveness D. Teaching members of the department right from wrong |
C. Improving instructional effectiveness
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Create a climate of organizational justice and you'll have emotionally committed workers who are less stressed out and willing to go the extra mile. Which of the following describes how HRs should treat workers?
A. With dignity B. Indifferently C. Sternly D. Employees should look up to HR |
A. With dignity
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A "Conflict of Interest" exists when a staff member has a relationship with an outside organization that can potentially bias him or her in such a way that he or she could potentially stand ultimately to benefit financially or otherwise by his or her relationship to that outside organization. How should HR professionals handle conflicts of interest?
A. Embrace them B. Investigate them C. Prepare for them D. Avoid them |
D. Avoid them
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The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA Pub. L. 99-508, Oct. 21, 1986, 100 Stat. 1848, 18 U.S.C. § 2510[1]) was enacted by the United States Congress to extend government restrictions on wire taps from telephone calls to include transmissions of electronic data by computer. Which of the following is a current practice when it comes to electronic monitoring?
A. Video surveillance B. Listening in on employee telephone calls C. The review and storage of employee computer communications D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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A whistleblower is a person who alleges misconduct. What is HR's responsibility to whistleblowers?
A. Ban them from using company equipment to gather evidence B. Publicize their names and positions C. Ensure they are not retaliated against D. Keep them away from other employees |
C. Ensure they are not retaliated against
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The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977 is a United States federal law addressing accounting transparency and bribery of foreign officials. Which of the following is subject to the FCPA?
A. Issuers B Domestic concerns C. Any person D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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Job Analysis is a process to establish and document the 'job relatedness' of employment procedures such as training, selection, compensation, and performance appraisal. Which of the following describes the concept of job relatedness?
A. Content validity to prove content job related B. Employee participation is recognized C. By taking substantive voluntary steps, companies can avoid government intervention in their policymaking D. Whether the employment standard focuses on innate, unalterable characteristics of candidates |
A. Content validity to prove content job related
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In employment law, a bonafide occupational qualification (BFOQ) is a quality or an attribute that employers are allowed to consider when making decisions on the hiring and retention of employees - qualities that, when considered, in other contexts would be considered discriminatory and thus violating civil rights employment law. Which of the following is an example of bona fide occupational qualification?
A. Criteria to prove test valid indicator of successful future performance B. Written, performance and oral tests and training and experience evaluations C. Mandatory retirement ages for bus drivers and airline pilots, for safety reasons D. Whether the employment standard focuses on innate, unalterable characteristics of candidates |
C. Mandatory retirement ages for bus drivers and airline pilots, for safety reasons
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A job specification is an official document, which describes the duties, required knowledge, skills and abilities, and minimum qualifications of an occupation. Which of the following is a key element of a job specification?
A. The job title, which should be descriptive of the kind of work, and indicate its level and rank B. Written, performance and oral tests and training and experience evaluations C. Religious requirements for the job D. Bona fide occupational qualification |
A. The job title, which should be descriptive of the kind of work, and indicate its level and rank
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A bill is an idea for a new law, or an idea to change or do away with an existing law. What happens if the Governor vetoes the bill?
A. The bill is read a first time, amended, and then read a second time B. The bill is read a third time, members of the legislative bodies debate and then vote on the bill C. The bill is sent to the second chamber where the process of reading, amending and voting is repeated with the committee D. Legislature may vote to override the veto, and the bill becomes law without the Governor's approval |
D. Legislature may vote to override the veto, and the bill becomes law without the Governor's approval
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The U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) enforces all federal laws prohibiting job discrimination. What are these laws designed to protect?
A. Employers from lawsuits for alleged discrimination B. Workers from a majority class from having their jobs taken by minority classes C. Employers and supervisors from being harassed and victimized by minority classes D. To protect workers from discrimination based on sex |
D. To protect workers from discrimination based on sex
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Discrimination toward or against a person or group is the treatment or consideration based on class or category rather than individual merit. What is discrimination usually associated with?
A. Prejudice B. Affirmative action C. Social unrest D. Civil rights |
A. Prejudice
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Adverse treatment is intentional discrimination. Which of the following can it be based on?
A. Prejudice B. Affirmative action C. Redlining D. Race |
D. Race
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Sexual harassment is a form of discrimination that violates Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which of the following constitutes sexual harassment?
A. Consensual relationships between employees on the same scale or level B. Welcome sexual advances from a co-worker in which one has a romantic interest C. Physical and unwelcome sexual advances D. All of the above |
C. Physical and unwelcome sexual advances
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Unlawful harassment is a form of discrimination that violates Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and other federal authority. Which of the following constitutes workplace harassment?
A. Consensual relationships between employees on the same scale or level B. Welcome sexual advances from a co-worker in which one has a romantic interest C. Acceptance of sexual advancements is a condition of employment D. Hostile work environment pervasive enough to alter the conditions at work |
D. Hostile work environment pervasive enough to alter the conditions at work
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The Privacy Act of 1974 can generally be characterized as an omnibus "code of fair information practices" that attempts to regulate the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of personal information by federal executive branch agencies. Which of the following is a condition of disclosure under the Act?
A. No agency shall disclose any record to any person, or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, unless disclosure of the record would be to those officers and employees of the agency which maintains the record who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties B. No agency shall disclose any record to any person, or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of the governor of the state C. No agency shall disclose any record to any person, or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of the parents of the individual to whom the record pertains D. None of the above |
A. No agency shall disclose any record to any person, or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, unless disclosure of the record would be to those officers and employees of the agency which maintains the record who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties
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The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Pub.L. 88-352, 78 Stat. 241, July 2, 1964) was a landmark piece of legislation in the United States that outlawed racial segregation in schools, public places, and employment. Which of the following is stated in the Act?
A. Treating someone less favorably because of their possession of an attribute, compared with someone without that attribute in the same circumstances is justified B. Employers cannot file lawsuits for alleged discrimination C. An employer cannot discriminate against a person on the basis of national origin D. Employers and supervisors cannot be harassed and victimized, unless it is by minority classes |
C. An employer cannot discriminate against a person on the basis of national origin
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It is the policy of the Government of the United States to provide equal opportunity in Federal employment for all qualified persons. What does Executive Order 11246 prohibit?
A. The possibility of emotional distress damages B. Employers from filing lawsuits for alleged discrimination C. Federal contractors who do over $10,000 in Government business in one year from discriminating in employment decisions on the basis of race D. The right to modify some of the basic procedural and substantive rights provided by federal law in employment discrimination cases |
C. Federal contractors who do over $10,000 in Government business in one year from discriminating in employment decisions on the basis of race
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Age discrimination is the practice of letting a person's age unfairly become a factor when deciding who receives a new job, promotion, or other job benefit. What does the Act state?
A. It is unlawful for age to affect the benefits of persons age 40 or older B. Employers may file lawsuits for alleged discrimination C. Federal contractors who do over $I0,000 in Government business in one year from discriminating in employment decisions on the basis of age D. Programs for change must be put in effect to guard against discrimination |
A. It is unlawful for age to affect the benefits of persons age 40 or older
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The U.S. Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in programs conducted by Federal agencies, in programs receiving Federal financial assistance, in Federal employment, and in the employment practices of Federal contractors. Which of the following is a key section of the Act?
A. Section 499, requires employers to report all persons with disabilities who apply for a job B. Section 504, states that "no qualified individual with a disability in the United States shall be excluded from, denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under" any program or activity that either receives Federal financial assistance or is conducted by any Executive agency or the United States Postal Service C. Section 505, calls for disabled workers over 40 to be given any job they apply for, regardless of their ability to carry it out D. Section 509, enables the relatives of disabled persons to file suit against the company if the disabled worker falls ill on the job, whatever the nature of the illness |
B. Section 504, states that "no qualified individual with a disability in the United States shall be excluded from, denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under" any program or activity that either receives Federal financial assistance or is conducted by any Executive agency or the United States Postal Service
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The Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act (VEVRAA) requires covered federal government contractors and subcontractors to take affirmative action to employ and advance in employment specified categories of veterans protected by the Act and prohibits discrimination against such veterans. If a Vietnam veteran feels that he has been discriminated against, what course of action may he take?
A. Request equal access to healthcare and pension benefits B. Allow employers to file a lawsuit on their behalf C. Authorize the formula grant programs of vocational rehabilitation D. File complaint with the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs |
D. File complaint with the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
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Pregnancy discrimination occurs when expectant mothers are fired, not hired, or otherwise discriminated against due to their pregnancy or intention to become pregnant. Which of the following actions must be taken if the employee is unable to do her job due to pregnancy?
A. Employee must take paid leave for the duration of her pregnancy B. Employee must take unpaid leave for the duration of her pregnancy C. Equal treatment of pregnant employees D. Employee must be treated as a temporarily disabled staff member, and her tasks must be modified |
D. Employee must be treated as a temporarily disabled staff member, and her tasks must be modified
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Which of the following is a common form of pregnancy discrimination?
A. Not being hired because of visible pregnancy B. Sending an employee on paid leave for the duration of her pregnancy C. Holding open a job for a pregnancy-related absence D. Modifying the tasks of a pregnant woman for the duration of her pregnancy |
A. Not being hired because of visible pregnancy
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The Federal government's need for a uniform set of principles on the question of the use of tests and other selection procedures has long been recognized. Which of the following is a requirement of the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures 1978?
A. Employees should be selected based on tests set by the employee, regardless of their educational backgrounds B. Employee selection should be equal for everyone C. Employee selection should be based on criteria such as social status and family background to ensure the candidate is a good fit for the organization D. None of the above |
B. Employee selection should be equal for everyone
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The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN) protects workers, their families, and communities by requiring most employers with 100 or more employees to provide notification 60 calendar days in advance of plant closings and mass layoffs. What is the purpose of WARN?
A. To allow the company to hire temporary and peak-time workers B. To give the company time to find new employees when it restructures C. To give employers the chance to find money for severance pay packages D. To give workers and their families’ transition time to adjust to the prospective loss of employment |
D. To give workers and their families’ transition time to adjust to the prospective loss of employment
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In Albemarle Paper Company vs. Moody, the Supreme Court found that a test used for selection of employees must be validated with a population similar to that for whom it is used. Who has the burden of proof to show that the test is valid?
A. The employee B. The employer C. The testing agency D. Any of the above |
B. The employer
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Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, 438 U.S. 265 (1978) was a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of the United States on affirmative action. What did it decide?
A. Culturally biased tests are illegal, even if the employer was not discriminating intentionally B. Only intentional discrimination is unlawful C. It bars quota systems in college admissions but affirms the constitutionality of affirmative action programs giving equal access to minorities D. Employers' have the right to discriminate within certain guidelines |
C. It bars quota systems in college admissions but affirms the constitutionality of affirmative action programs giving equal access to minorities
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Availability is an estimate of the number of qualified minorities or women available for employment in a given job group. What is an availability analysis used for?
A. Occupational Safety B. Employment discrimination C. Illegal immigration D. Affirmative action |
D. Affirmative action
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Reverse discrimination is the practice of favoring a historically disadvantaged group at the expense of members of a historically advantaged group. What belief does the term reflect?
A. The belief that the group now being discriminated against had previously been the one doing the discriminating B. The belief that the group now doing the discriminating had previously been the one discriminated against C. The belief that discrimination against historically advantaged groups is not morally wrong D. The belief that only discrimination against historically disadvantaged groups is wrong |
A. The belief that the group now being discriminated against had previously been the one doing the discriminating
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The term glass ceiling refers to situations where the advancement of a qualified person within the hierarchy of an organization is stopped at a lower level because of some form of discrimination, most commonly sexism or racism. Why is the situation referred to as a "glass ceiling?"
A. Because there is no limitation on the advancement of qualified personnel B. Because there may be limitations on the advancement of less-qualified personnel C. There is a limitation blocking upward advancement "ceiling" that is not immediately apparent "glass" and is normally an unwritten and unofficial policy D. None of the above |
C. There is a limitation blocking upward advancement "ceiling" that is not immediately apparent "glass" and is normally an unwritten and unofficial policy
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Employers are required to collect certain information, known as "applicant data flow," for statistical reporting purposes. Which of the following is part of the information requested on the data flow?
A. Address B. Date of birth C. Experience D. Gender |
D. Gender
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Succession Planning involves having senior executives periodically review their top executives and those in the next lower level to determine several backups for each senior position. Why is this important?
A. It lets employees know who's next in line for a promotion B. To create a pool of candidates with high leadership potential C. There is a critical shortage of senior managers in companies D. To boost employee morale |
B. To create a pool of candidates with high leadership potential
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Identifying and attracting a diverse slate of candidates should be integral to any firm's recruiting strategy. Which of the following is a method of recruiting internally?
A. By scrutinizing skills and knowledge required B. By assigning work activities C. By writing job description and specifications D. By posting the job advertisement on the company's intranet |
D. By posting the job advertisement on the company's intranet
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Once the job requirements and selection criteria for the position have been determined, employers are immediately faced with a decision— how to generate the applications needed to fill its labor needs. Which of the following is a method of recruiting externally?
A. By advertising on websites such as Monster.com B. Posting the job on the company's intranet C. Categorizing skills to attract workers D. By relying on employee referrals |
A. By advertising on websites such as Monster.com
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Business leaders agree that hiring qualified, productive employees is one of the critical foundations for growth and profitability. Which of the following is a measure of recruiting effectiveness?
A. Number of applications B. Cost of advertising C. Quality of employee referrals D. None of the above |
A. Number of applications
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A contingent workforce is a provisional group of workers who work for an organization on a non-permanent basis. Which of the following would be considered a contingent worker?
A. Full time workers B. Retired workers C. Part time workers D. All of the above |
C. Part time workers
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Your prospective employer may require an employment application form even though you have sent in a resume and a cover letter. Why is an employment application form necessary?
A. It is a consistent format to collect potential job related applicant data B. For posting the job on the company's intranet C. For categorizing skills to attract workers D. It is better than relying on employee referrals |
A. It is a consistent format to collect potential job related applicant data
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An interview is a screening process in which the organization and the prospective employee can learn more about and evaluate each other. Which of the following should be the first step in the interviewing process?
A. Get proof of employment eligibility B. Pre-screen the candidate over the phone C. Develop categorizing skills to attract workers D. None of the above |
B. Pre-screen the candidate over the phone
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In the talent management universe, the new employee orientation and mainstreaming process is known as "employee onboarding." What does onboarding involve?
A. Interviewing the employee B. Orienting the employee into the organization by introducing him/her to other staff members C. Doing team exercises so that the employee can fit into the organization D. Encouraging the employee to do role plays |
B. Orienting the employee into the organization by introducing him/her to other staff members
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The term "constructive discharge" describes a situation in which an employee is forced to quit a job because the employer has made working conditions intolerable. Which of the following is a working condition that is usually considered intolerable?
A. The employee is discriminated against B. The employee is about to be transferred C. The employee has received a stern warning for his/her habitual absenteeism D. None of the above |
A. The employee is discriminated against
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An exit interview is typically a meeting between at least one representative from a company's HRs (HR) department and a departing employee. What form does an exit interview usually take?
A. An HR representative asks questions while taking notes B. Team exercises with other staff members C. Role plays during a training session D. Assessment centers |
A. An HR representative asks questions while taking notes
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The Permanent Labor Certification is the most generally used employment-based opportunity for attaining a permanent residency status ("green card") in the U.S. Which of the following is a requirement for attaining a green card?
A. The employee must prove that there are no qualified US employees available and willing to do the job B. PERM regulations must be followed for all Labor Certification applications filed on or after March 28, 2005 C. The employee must prove that he/she is a university graduate D. All of the above |
B. PERM regulations must be followed for all Labor Certification applications filed on or after March 28, 2005
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With the expansion of business operations into all regions of the world, employers are dealing not only with sending expatriates abroad but also hiring local nationals in those foreign countries. Which of the following is a role of local-nationals?
A. They fill roles no US citizen would be willing to take B. They fill quotas imposed by the host country C. They replace expatriates who are returning home or they may fill vacant or newly created positions D. None of the above |
C. They replace expatriates who are returning home or they may fill vacant or newly created positions
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A Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is any part of the selection process that gives the applicant a clear idea of what it will be like to work at the job if they are hired. What is the purpose of a RJP?
A. To eliminate candidates who may not be suitable for the job due to issues such as disability or national origin B. To give the candidate as much information about the job as possible so that they can make an informed decision about their suitability for it C. To introduce candidates to the rest of the workforce, who will decide whether the candidate is suitable for the position or not D. None of the above |
B. To give the candidate as much information about the job as possible so that they can make an informed decision about their suitability for it
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Employee relations involve developing, implementing, and communicating a company-wide policy. What is the goal of such a policy?
A. Developing a fair and consistent rating system to measure performance B. Maintaining employer-employee relationships that contribute to satisfactory productivity C. Identifying opportunities for employee development and how to maintain and improve their performance D. Determining whether any pay increase received is reasonable for the employee's position, tenure and skills |
B. Maintaining employer-employee relationships that contribute to satisfactory productivity
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The American Federation of Labor (AFL) was organized as an association of trade unions in 1886, growing out of an earlier Federation of Organized Trades and Labor Unions founded in 1881. What was the federation's concern?
A. Shorter hours B. Working conditions C. Equal pay for women D. Union recognized collective bargaining |
B. Working conditions
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The U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) enforces laws prohibiting job discrimination. What must it encourage employees who feel their rights have been violated to do?
A. File a formal complaint for unlawful discrimination B. Produce grievance procedures and safety and health provisions C. Protect skilled workers D. Seek equal opportunity employment |
A. File a formal complaint for unlawful discrimination
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A small construction company has neglected to maintain copies of the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for each hazardous chemical used by its office employees. This is an example of which type of violation?
A. Serious Violation B. Willful Violation C. Other-Than-Serious Violation D. Repeated Violation |
C. Other-Than-Serious Violation
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When the employer is free to discharge individuals "for good cause, bad cause, no cause at all," and the employee is equally free to quit, strike, or cease work anytime, this is referred to as:
A. Contractual Employments B. Willing Employment C. Free Employment D. Employment at-will |
D. Employment at-will
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Which of the following states that an employer may not fire an employee if it would violate the state's public policy or a state or federal statute?
A. Public policy Exception B. At-Will Employment Exception C. Implied Contract Exceptions D. Equal Employment Exception |
A. Public policy Exception
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Even though no express, written instrument regarding the employment relationship exists, an employer may not fire an employee when it is implied that a long-term agreement had been formed between an employer and employee. Which of the following covers the employee in this instance?
A. Public policy Exception B. Implied contract exceptions C. At-Will Employment Exception D. Equal Employment Exception |
B. Implied contract exceptions
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If the employer violated employment laws, or constitutional rights, or fired under the guise of false statement of fact, then the employer has engaged in which of the following:
A. Wrongful hiring practices B. Wrongful termination C. Improper termination D. False termination |
B. Wrongful termination
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If the employer violated employment laws, or constitutional rights, breached employee/employer contract, violated employers own firing policy, it has committed which of the following:
A. Wrongful termination B. Improper termination C. Wrongful hiring practices D. False Termination |
A. Wrongful termination
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An employer has implemented a wrongful termination when it has violated which of the following:
A. False termination B. Employment law C. Discrimination law D. Both B and C |
D. Both B and C
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Communicating a false claim implied to be factual that portrays a negative image of the individual is commonly known as:
A. Defamation B. Calumny C. Debauchery D. Vilification |
A. Defamation
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Communicating a false claim implied to be factual that portraits a negative image of the individual is defamation if it appears in which of the following forms:
A. Thoughts and images B. Images and speech C. Advertisements and thoughts D. Thoughts and speech |
B. Images and speech
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Physical or electronic intrusion of ones private quarters and public disclosure of private financial, personal, or health information are both examples of which of the following:
A. Privacy Infraction B. Attack of Privacy C. Assault on Privacy D. Invasion of Privacy |
D. Invasion of Privacy
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An employer can be held liable for an employee's negligence or abuse to other employees in the company. This may be a result of which of the following:
A. Negligent Training B. Negligent Evaluation C. Negligent Hiring D. Negligent Review |
C. Negligent Hiring
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An employer can be held liable for an employee's negligence or abuse to other employees in the company. Background checks, credit checks, criminal history must be used to prevent this:
A. Negligent Evaluation B. Negligent Hiring C. Negligent Training D. Negligent Review |
B. Negligent Hiring
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An employer may be guilty of Negligent Hiring if an employee was hired and he or she had a reputation or history of breaching law/rights/abuse or misusing authority or responsibility and the employer knew about it and it was easily discovered through proper investigation. This may be avoided by using all of the following except which this:
A. Criminal History B. Credit Checks C. A past Co-worker's word D. Background Checks |
C. A past Co-worker's word
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When an employee signs this, he or she agrees to not pursue a similar profession or trade in competition:
A. Mandatory Arbitration Agreement B. Anti Competition Agreement C. Non Compete Agreement D. Anti Compete Agreement |
C. Non Compete Agreement
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In the early to mid 1900s, several bills were passed in an attempt to protect the rights of both employees and employers. Which of the following protect the right of employees to organize and bargain collectively, and to curtail certain private sector labor and management practices?
A. National Labor Relations Act 1935 B. National Industrial Recovery Act 1933 C. Landrum-Griffin Act 1959 D. U.S. Antitrust Act 1896 |
A. National Labor Relations Act 1935
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Organizations that are democratic and hierarchical, as well as membership based, and which centers on employee wages, collective bargaining, benefits and working conditions, are known as which of the following:
A. Labor Boards B. Labor Unions C. Employee Unions D. Federation Unions |
B. Labor Unions
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Which of the following is a branch of the union organization that represents members in a specific area or business sector?
A. Labor Boards B. Federations C. Local Unions D. Labor Unions |
C. Local Unions
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In a Secret ballot Campaign several unfair labor practices are strictly prohibited. These include which of the following:
A. Management interference B. Discrimination C. Retaliation D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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In a Ballot Election, which of the following entities handles any voter problems:
A. AFL/CIO B. National Labor Union C. National Labor Relations Bureau D. National Labor Relations Board |
D. National Labor Relations Board
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Which of the following is a form of non-violent protest in which people congregate outside a place of work or a location where an event is taking place. Often, this is done in an attempt to dissuade others from going in, but it can also be done to draw public attention to a cause.
A. Common situs picketing B. Picketing C. Protesting D. Common situs protesting |
B. Picketing
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Which of the following refers to the situation when a employer subject to a strike effectively uses the employees of a neutral employer as strike breakers:
A. Protected Concerted Activities B. Sympathy C. Ally doctrine D. Sympathy doctrine |
C. Ally doctrine
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Which of the following is a strike action taken by workers without the authorization of their trade union officials? This is sometimes termed unofficial industrial action and has been considered illegal in the United States since 1935.
A. Jurisdictional strike B. Wildcat strike C. Common situs protesting D. Picketing |
B. Wildcat strike
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Coverage designed to protect employers from losses due to labor disruptions are referred to as:
A. Strike insurance B. Strike preparation C. Strike benefits D. Strike benefits |
A. Strike insurance
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This organization's regional offices investigate unfair labor practices and protected union acts complaints covered in National Labor Relations Act. It covers private sector and USPS only.
A. National Labor Relations Bureau B. National Labor Relations Department C. National Labor Relations Office D. National Labor Relations Board |
D. National Labor Relations Board
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Also known as the Wagner Act, this is a 1935 United States federal law that protects the rights of most workers in the private sector to organize labor unions, to engage in collective bargaining, and to take part in strikes and other forms of concerted activity in support of their demands:
A. National Labor Associations Act B. National Labor Relations Act C. National Labor Affairs Act D. National Labor Bureaus Act |
B. National Labor Relations Act
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This occurs when there is sincere resolve to reach a collective bargaining agreement represented by authorized representatives. Fair, legal, and reasonable effort is also shown to come to an agreement and bargain on mandatory issues.
A. Distributive Bargaining B. Good faith bargaining C. Integrative Bargaining D. Collective bargaining |
B. Good faith bargaining
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