Pharmacology Exam 4

Front 1

Which of the following agents can be administered to prevent the adverse effects of high-dose methotrexate?
A. 5-Fluorouracil
B. Folic Acid
C. Leucovorin
D. Methoprim
E. Methotrexate

Back 1

Leucovorin

Front 2

Which of the following is a typical side-effect associated with the administration of doxorubicin?
A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypotension
E. Stimulation of myeloproliferative cells

Back 2

Cardiomyopathy

Front 3

Which of the following agents inhibits dihydrofolate reductase to limit purine biosynthesis?
A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Doxorubicin
D. 5-Fluorouracil
E. Methotrexate

Back 3

Methotrexate
Immunosuppressant: inhibits dihydrofolate reductase; inhibits lymphocyte proliferation (folate antagonist)

Front 4

Which of the following agents directly inhibits dTMP synthesis?
A. Cisplatin
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. 5-Fluorouracil
D. Leucovorin
E. Methotrexate

Back 4

5-Fluorouracil

Front 5

Which of the following agents crosslinks DNA specifically at guanine residues?
A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Doxorubicin
E. Methotrexate

Back 5

Cisplatin

Front 6

Which of the following agents induces DNA damage in a process requiring Fe2+ or Cu2+?
A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Methotrexate
D. Mitoxantrone
E. Taxol

Back 6

Bleomycin

Front 7

All of the following are major types of anticancer agents EXCEPT
A. antagonists of hormones.
B. antibiotics.
C. antimetabolites.
D. dealkylating agents.
E. microtubule inhibitors

Back 7

Dealkylating agents
(But ALKYLATING agents are!)

Front 8

Tamoxifen is an effective chemotherapeutic agent because it
A. enhances the rate of seminiferous tubule formation.
B. is an antagonist of estrogen.
C. is an antagonist of Her2 receptors.
D. is an antagonist of progesterone.
E. inhibits prolactin production

Back 8

Is an antagonist of estrogen

Front 9

Which of the following agents is a phase non-specific drug that covalently modifies DNA?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Cyclosporine
C. Hydroxyurea
D. 6-Mercaptopurine
E. Vincristine

Back 9

Cyclophosphamide

Front 10

Which drug is used to inhibit topoisomerase activity to induce DNA strand breaks?
A. Bleomycin
B. Cyclosporine
C. Etoposide
D. Taxol
E. Vincristine

Back 10

Etoposide

Front 11

AraC (Cytarabine) is an
A. antagonist of the estrogen receptor.
B. antagonist of the androgen receptor.
C. inhibitor of DNA polymerase.
D. inhibitor of L-asparaginase.
E. inhibitor of thymidylate synthase.

Back 11

Inhibitor of DNA Polymerase

Front 12

Thioguanine acts as a chemotherapeutic agent by inhibiting
A. DNA methylation patterns specifically at GC sites.
B. DNA mutagenesis.
C. DNA repair.
D. the purine salvage pathway.
E. transcription.

Back 12

The purine salvage pathway

Front 13

Which of the following agents inhibits mitosis by promoting tubulin polymerization?
A. Bleomycin
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Doxorubicin
D. 6-Mercaptopurine
E. Taxol

Back 13

Taxol
Promotes formation and inhibits disassembly of stable microtubules, inhibiting mitosis (toxoid)

Front 14

Compared to local anesthesia, general anesthesia has all of the following advantages EXCEPT
A. amnesia regarding the surgery/trauma.
B. cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided.
C. patient cooperation is not completely essential.
D. the patient is unconscious.
E. titration of the level of anesthesia is easier.

Back 14

Cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided

Front 15

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT
A. muscle wasting.
B. nervousness.
C. poor cold resistance.
D. tachycardia.
E. tremor

Back 15

Poor cold resistance

Front 16

All of the following statements concerning glucocorticoids are correct EXCEPT that it
A. blocks arachidonic acid release from membranes.
B. causes body fat redistribution
C. decreases blood pressure.
D. enhances cataract formation
E. suppresses immune response

Back 16

Decreases blood pressure

Front 17

Addison’s disease is due to primary adrenocortical insufficiency and is diagnosed by lack of patient response to ACTH. Which of the following drugs could be used to treat this disease?
A. Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Prednisone
E. Tamoxifen

Back 17

Prednisone

Front 18

Although androgens have therapeutic utility in the treatment of hypogonadism, they may have all of the following adverse effects EXCEPT
A. impotence.
B. increased fertility.
C. liver damage.
D. priapism.
E. prostate enlargement.

Back 18

Increased Fertility

Front 19

The major clinical use of progestins (progesterone derivatives) is
A.contraception.
B.halitosis.
C.male pattern baldness.
D.stimulation of ovulation.
E.treatment of polycystic ovarian disease

Back 19

Contraception

Front 20

Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of cancer cells?
A. Limitless replicative potential
B. Metastasis
C. Sensitivity to growth/cell cycle checkpoints
D. Sustained angiogenesis

Back 20

Sensitivity to growth/cell cycle checkpoints

Front 21

Tamoxifen
A. activates progesterone receptors.
B. antagonizes estrogen receptors.
C. blocks androgen receptors.
D. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.
E. stimulates prolactin receptors.

Back 21

Antagonizes estrogen receptors
binds to estrogen receptors, producing estrogenic and anti-estrogenic effects.

Front 22

Prednisone is an effective chemotherapeutic agent for which of the following conditions?
A. Bone resorption
B. Breast cancer
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Leukemia
E. Lung cancer

Back 22

Leukemia

Front 23

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A.Diabetic patients may exhibit increased incidence of oral infections.
B.Patients being treated with iodide may have gum soreness and increased salivation.
C.Poor control of blood sugar is associated with increased caries.
D.Prophylaxis with antibiotics is contraindicated in patients on glucocorticoids.
E.Unmanaged hypothyroid patients generally have low blood pressure.

Back 23

Prophylaxis with antibiotics is contraindicated in patients on glucocorticoids.

Front 24

A certain pharmacology professor has a root canal performed by student dentists. To alleviate the extreme pain caused by the prolonged daylong procedure, he washes down 25 tablets of Tylenol™ with half a bottle of Johnny Walker Black Label. Which organ or tissue will most likely be adversely affected by the acetaminophen?
A. Brain
B. Gums
C. Kidney
D. Liver
E. Teeth

Back 24

Liver

Front 25

Which of the following drugs is used as an anti-thrombic agent to prevent deep vein thrombosis?
A.Aspirin
B.Heparin
C.Ibuprofen
D.Streptokinase
E.Vitamin K

Back 25

Heparin

Front 26

Which of the following agents is a selective thrombolytic agent?
A. AlteplaseTM
B. Aspirin
C. Heparin
D. Naproxen
E. Vitamin K

Back 26

Alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator)

Front 27

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are contraindicated in
A. bilateral renal artery stenosis.
B. hepatic cirrhosis with ascites.
C. hypertension.
D. myocardial infarction with pulmonary edema.
E. moderate renal dysfunction.

Back 27

Bilateral Renal Stenosis

Front 28

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are used clinically for all of the following indications EXCEPT
A. management of hypokalemia.
B. prevention of cardiac remodeling in hypertensive states.
C. therapy of normal-renin associated hypertension.
D. treatment of acute coronary thrombosis and pulmonary edema.
E. treatment of cardiac systolic dysfunction.

Back 28

Management of hypokalemia

Front 29

Angiotensin receptor-1 (AR1) antagonists are primarily used for
A. acute coronary thrombosis with pulmonary edema.
B. combination with ACE inhibitors.
C. hepatic cirrhosis with ascites.
D. hypertension.
E. patients with increased aldosterone secretion

Back 29

Hypertension

Front 30

Angiotensin receptor-1 (AR1) antagonists differ from angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in that AR1 antagonists cause
A. cough and angioedema in some patients.
B. greater decreases in tissue levels of angiotensin II.
C. more secretion of renin.
D. more stimulation of aldosterone secretion.
E. superior antihypertensive responses in some patients

Back 30

Superior antihypertensive responses in some patients

Front 31

Nearly two-thirds of filtered sodium is reabsorbed in which segment of the nephron?
A. Collecting ducts
B. Distal convoluted tubules
C. Proximal renal tubules
D. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
E. Thin descending limb of the loop of Henle

Back 31

Proximal renal tubules

Front 32

Which portion of the nephron utilizes the greatest amounts of ATP?
A. Collecting ducts
B. Distal convoluted tubules
C. Proximal renal tubules
D. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
E. Thin descending limb of the loop of Henle

Back 32

Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

Front 33

Which of the following drugs is LEAST effective when used alone for prolonged treatment of patients with edema?
A. Amiloride
B. Ethacrynic acid
C. Furosemide
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Mannitol

Back 33

Amiloride

Front 34

Which of the following drugs is used to treat hypocalcemic states?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Amiloride
C. Captopril
D. Furosemide
E. Hydrochlorothiazide

Back 34

Hydrochlorothiazide

Front 35

Which of the following drugs has an antihypertensive effect at low doses and an antidiuretic effect at high doses?
A. Bumetanide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Lisinopril
D. Losartan
E. Spironolactone

Back 35

Hydrochlorothiazide

Front 36

Furosemide can produce all of the following effects EXCEPT
A. acute renal failure.
B. enhanced renin secretion.
C. hypokalemia.
D. metabolic alkalosis.
E. toxicity similar to that of sulfonamides.

Back 36

Enhanced renin secretion

Front 37

All of the following diuretics act at the lumenal side of renal tubules EXCEPT
A. bumetanide.
B. ethacrynic acid.
C. hydrochlorothiazide.
D. spironolactone.
E. triamterene.

Back 37

Spironolactone

Front 38

Administration of which of the following drugs may ‘unmask’ an underlying diabetes?
A. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
B. Furosemide
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Triamterene
E. Spironolactone

Back 38

Hydrochlorothiazide
Inhibits distal convoluted tubule sodium and chloride resorption.

Front 39

Tubuloglomerular feedback involves all the following EXCEPT
A. juxtaglomerular cells.
B. macula densa cells.
C. regulation of renin secretion.
D. sensing osmolarity.
E. sensing sodium reabsorption.

Back 39

Sensing osmolarity

Front 40

Which of the following agents does not require oxygen to function as a chemotherapeutic agent?
A. Bleomycin
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Doxorubicin
D. Flutamide
E. Temozolomide

Back 40

Temozolomide

Front 41

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents will work most effectively in a cancer that is deficient in p53?
A. Cisplatin
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Etoposide
D. Temozolomide
E. Vincristine

Back 41

Vincristine

Front 42

Which of the following is an effective antidote for an overdose of warfarin?
A. Aspirin
B. Codeine
C. Hydroxyurea
D. Streptokinase
E. Vitamin K

Back 42

Vitamin K

Front 43

Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of cardiovascular disease would be contraindicated for someone undergoing major oral surgery?
A. Aspirin
B. Captopril
C. Furosemide
D. Nitroglycerin
E. Propranolol

Back 43

Aspirin

Front 44

A deficiency of which of the following vitamins can cause gingivitis?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K

Back 44

Vitamin C

Front 45

Which of the following drugs or groups of drugs are responsible for the most accidental overdoses?

A. Heroin and similar “narcotics”
B. Alcohol
C. OTC drugs such as analgesics and antihistamines
D. OTC vitamins

Back 45

OTC drugs such as analgesics and antihistamines

Front 46

A patient who has been taking large quantities of aspirin might show increased postoperative bleeding because aspirin inhibits

A. synthesis of thromboxane and thus prevents platelet aggregation.
B. synthesis of prostacyclin and thus prevents platelet disaggregation.
C. synthesis of prostaglandin and thus prevents production of blood platelets.
D. thrombin and thus prevents formation of the fibrin network.
E. intestinal absorption of vitamin K and thus prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors.

Back 46

Synthesis of thromboxane and thus prevents platelet aggregation

Front 47

Niacin at high doses can be used as an antihyperlipidemic agent because it

A. inhibits HMG-CoA reductase.
B. inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue.
C. removes bile acids from the gastrointestinal tract.
D. inhibits cholesterol uptake by the intestine.
E. inhibits cholesterol uptake by the liver.

Back 47

Inhibits lypolysis in adipose tissue

Front 48

Which of the following pharmacologic actions is NOT produced by prostaglandins?
A. Pyrexia
B. Uterine contraction
C. Decreased gastric acid secretion
D. Increased renal vasoconstriction
E. Decreased sensitivity to pain

Back 48

Increased renal vasoconstriction was marked but pretty sure that it is the following)
decreased sensitivity to pain

Front 49

Which of the following conditions or effects does NOT result from prolonged treatment with corticosteroids?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Skeletal muscle atrophy
E. Redistribution of body fat

Back 49

Gastric Ulcer

Front 50

All of the following agents useful for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can be used simultaneously with anakinra EXCEPT
A.aspirin.
B.celecoxib (Celebrex).
C.infliximab (Etanercept).
D.methotrexate.
E.prednisone

Back 50

Infliximab

Front 51

The most prominent acute toxic effect associated with acetaminophen use is
A. hemorrhage.
B. renal nephropathy.
C. hepatic necrosis.
D. gastric ulceration.
E. respiratory alkalosis

Back 51

Hepatic Necrosis

Front 52

All of the following statements concerning prostanoid synthesis via the COX-1 isoform of cyclooxygenase are correct EXCEPT
A. COX-1 expression is constitutive.
B. arachidonic acid is the primary substrate of COX-1.
C. COX-1 is expressed primarily in macrophages, monocytes and the vascular endothelium.
D. the downstream prostanoid synthases are soluble cytosolic enzymes.
E. aspirin and ibuprofen selectivity inhibit COX-1 versus COX-2.

Back 52

COX-1 is expressed primarily in macrophages, monocytes, and the vascular endothelium

Front 53

Which of the following agents inhibits the release of arachidonic acid from the membrane?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Acetaminophen
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Corticosteroids
E. Cephalosporins

Back 53

Corticosteroids

Front 54

23. All are correct statements about prostanoids except
a. PGE enhances acid secretion in stomach elicited by hormonal stimuli

Back 54

yep

Front 55

25. All of the following are risk factors for thrush except
a. Use of ACE inhibitors

Back 55

yep

Front 56

Trimethoprim and a sulfonamide are administered together because

Back 56

Each inhibits a different step in a metabolic pathway required for thymidylate biosynthesis

Front 57

45. All correct statements about OTC drugs EXCEPT
a. OTCs must meet same standards of efficacy as prescription drugs

Back 57

yep

Front 58

Methotrexate inhibits
a) biosynthesis of thymine-containing nucleotides
b) dihydrofolate reductase
c) both
d) neither

Back 58

I think this is BOTH (I am sure that dihydrofolate is one answer)
Biosynthesis of thymine-containing nucleotides (I am not positive, but dihydrofolate reductase is inhibited by trimethoprin)
Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that is a Folic acid antagonist. It Inhibits 1-carbon transfers in Thymidine biosynthesis

Front 59

Which of the following drugs has antiinflammatory activity?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Codeine
c) Cortisol
d) Lidocaine
e) Penicillin

Back 59

Cortisol

Front 60

Prednisone and other glucocorticoids are used in chemotherapy of leukemias because they
a) activate cell death / apoptotic pathways in lymphocytes
b) activate toll-like receptors to prevent infection
c) prevent release of histamine from mast cells in the lungs
d) provide good pain relief to the bone
e) suppress the immune system

Back 60

Activate cell death/apoptotic pathways in lymphocytes

Front 61

Microtubule inhibitors are used for cancer chemotherapy because they
a) block mRNA synthesis
b) block protein synthesis
c) inhibit motility of cells
d) prevent chromosomal segregation in rapidly growing cells
e) prevent invading bacteria from taking over the cell's cytoskeleton

Back 61

Prevent chromosomal segregation in rapidly growing cells

Front 62

Which drug is teratogenic in men?

Back 62

Methotrexate

Front 63

Nutraceuticals are regulated by the Food and Drug Administration as
a) Foods
b) Regular prescription drugs
c) Scheduled prescription drugs
d) The FDA does not regulate nutraceuticals

Back 63

Foods

Front 64

When you prescribe a drug for a patient who is taking a nutraceutical, which of the following drug nutraceutical interactions or effects should you be MOST concerned about?
a) Altered bioavailability
b) Altered drug metabolism
c) Altered protein binding
d) Competition for elimination by the kidney
e) Sedation

Back 64

(not sure)
I think the answer is altered drug metabolism

Front 65

A drug sold over-the-counter must be
a) effective
b) safe
c) both
d) neither

Back 65

SAFE ONLY
(Prescription drugs have to be safe and effective)

Front 66

Depending on the drug, an over the counter drug can be marketed as helping a particular symptom
a) that is related to its primary physiological effect
b) that is related to one of its side effects
c) both
d) neither

Back 66

Both (due to the following rationale)
Advertising/labeling cannot claim that the OTC drug treats a specific disease. UNLESS, a drug trial has been performed (excedrin for arthritis, previous prescription drugs, now OTC)

Front 67

What is the most involved participant during the beginning of clot formation?

Back 67

Platelets

Front 68

Which histological surface of a blood vessel has an anticoagulant surface?

Back 68

Endothelium

Front 69

Which of the following do not prevent coagulation?
a) aspirin
b) warfarin
c) Clopidogrel (Plavix) & Ticlopidine (Ticlid)
d) histamine
e) Hirudin (Lepirudin)

Back 69

Histamine

Front 70

All of the following prevent coagulation by dissolving clots and/or inactivating clotting factors EXCEPT
a) leukotrienes
b) proteins C & S
c) TPA tissue plasminogen activator
d) antithrombin III
e) fibrinogen

Back 70

Leukotrienes do NOT

Front 71

Which drugs have an adverse drug reaction with warfarin that increases its effect?

Back 71

1. Fluoroquinolones
2. Erythromycin
3. Acetaminophen
4. NSAIDs
(NOTE: penicillins and cephalosporins do NOT have any effect on warfarin)

Front 72

What general anesthetic is not okay to give to pregnant women?

Back 72

Nitrous Oxide

Front 73

T/F
Malignant hyperthermia is a risk involved with all general anesthetics

Back 73

True

Front 74

What general anesthetic causes hallucination in humans upon recovery?

Back 74

Ketamine

Front 75

What is a hand wash agent that stains the skin?

Back 75

Betadine, Povidine

Front 76

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a) Carbamide peroxide is an oxidizing agent used to whiten teeth
b) Fluoride, calcium carbonate, & potassium nitrate are desensitizing agents
c) Hydrogen peroxide is an effective anti microbial agent used in the mouth
d) Herbal agents are Not effective
e) Silicates and aluminum oxide are abrassive

Back 76

Hydrogen peroxide is an effective anti microbial agent used in the mouth

Front 77

In chemotherapy DNA damaging agents do all of the following EXCEPT
a) Activate DNA repair mechanisms
b) Alkylate bases & promote mutation
c) Stimulate cells to enter cell cycle and replicate
d) Slowing DNA replication or promoting mutation
e) Cross link DNA

Back 77

Stimulate cells to enter cell cycle and replicate

Front 78

What does hydroxyurea do?

Back 78

Inhibit Ribonucleotide Reductase

Front 79

How do cancerous cells become resistant to alkylating agents?

Back 79

Epipodophyllotoxins inhibit topoisomerase activity to induce DNA strand breaks

Front 80

What is used to prevent adverse effects of high dose methotrexate?

Back 80

Leucovorin supplies appropriate folate
(methotrexate is used for inhibition of Dihydrofolate Reductase)

Front 81

What directly inhibits dtmp synthesis?

Back 81

5-fluorouracil

Front 82

T/F
Antiseptics kill anaerobic bacteria below the gum line

Back 82

FALSE
Antiseptics do NOT kill anaerobic bacteria below the gum line

Front 83

All of the following are major types of anticancer agents EXCEPT
a) Hormone antagonists
b) Antibiotics
c) Antimetabolites
d) Dealkylating agents
e) Microtubule inhibitors

Back 83

Dealkylating inhibitors

Front 84

What is Tamoxiphen used for?

Back 84

Estrogen Receptor Antagonist

Front 85

What is a phase specific drug that covalently modifies DNA?

Back 85

Cyclophosphamide

Front 86

T/F
cancer is sensitive to growth cycle check points

Back 86

FALSE
Cancer is NOT sensitive to growth cycle check points

Front 87

All of the following are major problems caused by drugs used in chemotherapy EXCEPT
a) Depression
b) Weight gain
c) Vomitting
d) Acute myelosuppression
e) Alopecia

Back 87

Weight gain

Front 88

What is hydrocortisone used to treat?

Back 88

Addison's disease

Front 89

What are progestins mostly used for?

Back 89

Contraception

Front 90

T/F
Thromboxane does NOT dissolve blood clots

Back 90

True

Front 91

All of the following are involved in making the laws for prescriptions EXCEPT
a) State insurance agencies administering medicare
b) Practicing dentists and physicians
c) Insurance companies
d) State pharmacy and dental boards
e) DEA

Back 91

Practicing dentists and physicians are not the ones who make the rules

Front 92

All of the following are reasons for patient non-compliance of prescriptions EXCEPT
a) Poor doctor-patient relationship
b) Forgetfulness
c) Mistakes by pharmacy in filling Rx
d) Lack of information
e) Complexity of drug regimen
f) Total number of drugs

Back 92

Mistakes by pharmacy in filling Rx

Front 93

When writing a Rx all of the following should be done EXCEPT
a) Write the quantity in both numbers and words
b) Review the prescription with both the patient and/or the caretaker
c) Designate the number of refills, even if that number is zero
d) Use a trailing zero after all trailing decimal points

Back 93

Use a trailing zero after all trailing decimal points i.e. don't write 5.0 instead write 5.
(Also no naked decimal points i.e. .5 use 0.5)

Front 94

What is a serious adverse effect that Chlorhexidine can cause?

Back 94

Toxic if absorbed through eye or if used as a whole body wash. This can lead to brain degeneration

Front 95

What is an effective hospital skin wash for MRSA?

Back 95

Triclosan

Front 96

All of the following are required on the prescription EXCEPT
a) Prescriber name both printed and signature
b) Patient address
c) Patient Name
d) Office name, address and phone number
e) Dosage schedule, route of administration, duration of treatment

Back 96

Apparently Patient address is not REQUIRED

Front 97

If your teacher undergoes a small heart attack, what should be part of his pharmaceutical regimen to decrease the chances of clotting and stroke over the next year, so he can stick around to torture future students?

Back 97

Plavix (clopidogrel)

Front 98

T/F
Hydrogen peroxide is a good antiseptic for the oral cavity

Back 98

FALSE
Hydrogen Peroxide is NOT a good antiseptic for oral cavity

Front 99

All of the following are mechanisms of Resistance to Alkylating Agents EXCEPT

a) Cancer cells become resistant to alkylating agents by upregulating intestinal transport system increasing first pass effect
b) Cross link formation can be slow and effectively repaired
c) p53 important in DNA repair and cell cycle controls
d) Increased metabolism of drug
e) Increased production of good nucleophiles
f) Entry of drug into cell is decreased
g) Gene duplication of affected host protein

Back 99

Cancer cells become resistant to alkylating agents by upregulating intestinal transport system increasing first pass effect

Front 100

T/F
Iodine containing antibacterial agents are NOT safe for use in children

Back 100

True

Front 101

T/F
Hypothyroid patients are NOT less sensitive to opioid analgesics

Back 101

True

Opioid analgesics, barbiturates and other CNS depressants are contraindicated in hypothyroid patients, because they cause excessive CNS depression

Front 102

What are some reasons to suspect Drug Abuse?

Back 102

...

Front 103

What is the cortisol feedback loop and what is its function?

Back 103

Allows cortisol to be made but not too much of it

Front 104

What is not an adverse effect in chronic cortisol use?

a) nephropathy
b) Obesity
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) Muscle atrophy
e) Osteoporosis
f) Growth suppression
g) Vascular necrosis
h) Cataracts
i) Suppresses response to infection
j) Suppresses menstruation
k) Psychic effects
l) thinning of skin
m) Atrophy of adrenal cortex

Back 104

nephropathy