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39 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Lab tests will reveal what based on this image?

Lab tests will reveal what based on this image?

Rickets. Abnormalities in calcium and phosphorous, vitamin D.

15yo boy has left hip pain while playing football 2 days ago. X rays are normal but MR shows anterior superior iliac spine avulsion fracture. How do you treat?

Activity restriction and partial weight bearing with crutches until symptoms resolve.

What is the most common type of neonatal brachial plexus palsy?

Upper trunk injury known as Erb palsy. Klumpke palsy involves the lower nerve roots and pulling the arm cranially.

12 year old boy with left foot pain has the following x rays. What would you expect on physical exam with regard to range of motion?

12 year old boy with left foot pain has the following x rays. What would you expect on physical exam with regard to range of motion?

This is a calcaneonavicular tarsal coalition. You would expect limited subtalar range of motion.


What organism is the most common cause of pediatric septic arthritis?

Staph aureus

Borrelia burgdorferi causes

Lyme disease

staph epidermidis is commonly associated with what type of infection?

periprosthetic infection.

What is the most effective initial treatment to improve an elbow flexion contracture exceeding 40 degrees in a child with underlying brachial plexus palsy?

Serial casting

Based on this 11 year old boy's x ray, what do you suspect is the cause?

Based on this 11 year old boy's x ray, what do you suspect is the cause?

Infection. single level spine fusion with fusion of 2 adjacent vertebral bodies and loss of vertebral height and disc space. No other levels involved to suggest congenital, developmental or metabolic disease and does not look traumatic.


What is the name of the posterior aspect of the apical ectodermal ridge that is responsible for
AP axis/ulno-radial development (thumb to small finger, great toe to small toe)

Known as the zone of polarizing activity.

Known as the zone of polarizing activity.

What embryologic structure/region controls proximal to distal limb growth?

Apical ectodermal ridge. Stimulated by FGF 10.

In the setting of the condition pictured here in a boy with right hip pain. The right leg will be in obligate ______________

In the setting of the condition pictured here in a boy with right hip pain. The right leg will be in obligate ______________

Shows SCFE. Right leg will be in obligate external rotation.

Immediately after birth following a long labor, the baby's arm looks like this. What is the next step?

Immediately after birth following a long labor, the baby's arm looks like this. What is the next step?

Emergent fasciotomy for neonatal compartment syndrome.


-very swollen, skin desquamation, hypoperfusion.

Marfan's syndrome is cause by a defect in what gene.

Fibrillin 1. This is an autosomal dominant inheritance

Defect in neurofibromin results in:

neurofibromatosis 1

Defect in type 1 collagen results in

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Defect in Type III collagen results in

Ehler's Danlos syndrome.

Defect in Fibrillin 2 gene results in:

congenital contractural arachnodactyly.

Upon seeing a child with this pictured deformity, how should you treat?

Upon seeing a child with this pictured deformity, how should you treat?

Just observe. This is posteromedial bowing of the tibia and fibula and is not pathologic but is physiologic. It will resolve with time.

Anteromedial tibial bowing is consistent with

Anteromedial tibial bowing is consistent with

Fibular hemimelia (fibular deficiency). Will also observe absent lateral rays and ball and socket ankle joint. Linked to sonic hedge-hog gene.

Anterolateral tibial bowing, which is also concerning for pseudoarthrosis, is consistent with:


Anterolateral tibial bowing, which is also concerning for pseudoarthrosis, is consistent with:

Neurofibromatosis. NF-1 is found in 50-55% of patients with anterolateral bowing, BUT only 6-10% of patients with NF have anterolateral bowing.

The 5 year old child pictured was treated with a Pavlik harness for right hip dislocation. Given his x ray findings, of acetabular index of 31 on the right, and 15 on the left, what is the appropriate treatment?

The 5 year old child pictured was treated with a Pavlik harness for right hip dislocation. Given his x ray findings, of acetabular index of 31 on the right, and 15 on the left, what is the appropriate treatment?


right Pemberton osteotomy due to acetabular dysplasia. In this setting, after age 5, bracing is not effective due to decreased remodeling potential of the acetabulum at this age.

2 months old with DDH being treated in a Pavlik can't kick his leg. What do you do?

decrease the hip flexion to 90 degrees and monitor with close follow up for return of motor function in the leg. This is due to the femoral nerve being compressed under the inguinal ligament. Incidence of 2.4%

10 year old child with heel pain and a limp. No trauma. Based on the x-rays, what lab abnormalities do you expect?

10 year old child with heel pain and a limp. No trauma. Based on the x-rays, what lab abnormalities do you expect?

This is a unicameral bone cyst, you expect no abnormal lab values.

After closed reduction of a 14 month old's left dislocated hip, the post op CT in spica cast is as follows: What is the next best step?

After closed reduction of a 14 month old's left dislocated hip, the post op CT in spica cast is as follows: What is the next best step?

The left femoral head is smaller because it was previously dislocated. Now, both hips are adequately reduced. No intervention necessary.

2 year old boy with worsening genu varum since he started walking. metaphyseal-diaphyseal angles are 18 degrees bilaterally. What should you do?

This is infantile Blount. Should do valgus-inducing knee-ankle-foot orthotic bracing as a metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle > 16 degrees is predictive of varus deformity progression. Consider valgus-producing osteotomy in a child younger than 4 years of age, but at 2 years, bracing can be effective.

17 year old GMFCS V with x-rays shown. How do you treat?

17 year old GMFCS V with x-rays shown. How do you treat?

The femoral head and acetabulum have degenerative changes. Best procedure is femoral head excision and realignment of the proximal femur.

The proximal humeral growth plate contributes what percentage of overall humeral length?

80%. The fact that so much growth comes from the proximal end also allows for the increased remodeling potential in proximal humerus fractures.

The 2 year old child pictured walks with a limp on the left side, left side is shorter than right and has less hip range of motion on the left.  This should be treated with:

The 2 year old child pictured walks with a limp on the left side, left side is shorter than right and has less hip range of motion on the left. This should be treated with:

Must treat with open reduction of hip with likely acetabular and/or femoral osteotomies. This is because this child has been walking and closed reduction will most likely be unsuccessful.

17 year old boy is being seen of scoliosis. Left upper thoracic curve Cobb angle is 28 degrees and right main thoracic curve Cobb angle is 29 degrees.

17 year old boy is being seen of scoliosis. Left upper thoracic curve Cobb angle is 28 degrees and right main thoracic curve Cobb angle is 29 degrees.

Only moderate curve in a skeletally mature child (age and Risser 5). Just observe.

5 year old boy who fell and then has x ray findings shown. What is the diagnosis and what further work up should be done?

5 year old boy who fell and then has x ray findings shown. What is the diagnosis and what further work up should be done?

Pathologic fracture due to unicameral bone cyst. No further work up is required.

6 year old boy with 2 weeks history of left foot pain and antalgic gait and diffuse foot swelling. No trauma. How do you treat?

6 year old boy with 2 weeks history of left foot pain and antalgic gait and diffuse foot swelling. No trauma. How do you treat?

This shows avascular necrosis of the navicular, known as Kohler's disease. Treat with foot immobilization and symptoms will resolve.

6 year old girl with Morquio syndrome is schedule for surgery for her deformity. Pre surgical work up should include:

This is a mucopolysaccharidosis (malfunctioning lysosomal enzymes which breakdown glycosaminoglycans). Associated with C1- C2 instability due to odontoid hypoplastia, genu valgum, abnormal epiphyses. Need to get a Cervical spine x ray due to likely instability of the neck at C1 - C2 prior to neck manipulation for intubation. In Morquio, there is proportionate dwarfism, no MR and there is keratan sulfate in urine. Also have corneal clouding, complex sugars in urine.

What do you do about this painful lesion in a 14 year old postmenarchal girl with prominence over her right hip.

What do you do about this painful lesion in a 14 year old postmenarchal girl with prominence over her right hip.

This is a large, but benign osteochondroma. Treat with excision.

For this 3.5 year old with painless limb on the left and lateral thrust during stance phase, what is the best treatment option?

For this 3.5 year old with painless limb on the left and lateral thrust during stance phase, what is the best treatment option?

This is infantile Blounts disease (unilateral). Since she is < 4 years old, tibial and fibular valgus producing osteotomies are indicated.

7 months old girl has the ultrasound of the right and left hip as shown. How do you treat?

7 months old girl has the ultrasound of the right and left hip as shown. How do you treat?

Bilateral closed reduction and spica casting. Pavlik is only indicated up to 6 months. Open reduction would only be performed after trying closed reduction.

what is the typical age range for a child to walk without assistance?

12 - 18 months.

12 year old girl with bilateral hand, wrist and ankle joint swelling along with inflamed eyes. ANA is elevated and ESR is elevated. What is the likely diagnosis?

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis.




-Lupus would not typically present at this early of an age


-Gonoccal also occurs in older children and is monoarticular.

After closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of a supracondylar humerus fracture, at what time point do you remove the pins?

3 weeks. Leaving in place for longer than 4 weeks poses risk for infection and loss of motion.