Organ Systems: Midterm Review

Front 1

The peritoneal cavity is divided into?

Back 1

A greater Peritoneal Sac and a Lesser Peritoneal Sac

Front 2

Peritoneum Histology?

Back 2

Areolar CT covered by a simple squamous layer called Mesothelium

Front 3

What are the two types of Peritoneum?

Back 3

1. Visceral Peritoneum - surrounds organs like the stomach that project freely into the abdominal cavity.

2. Parietal Peritoneum - lines the wall of the cavity with ventral and dorsal components

Front 4

Intraperitoneal

Back 4

project into the abdominal cavity. i.e. stomach and most of the S.I.

Front 5

Retroperitoneal organs include?

Back 5

duodenum (most of its length)
kidney
adrenal glands
Aorta
Inferior Vena Cava
Pancreas

Front 6

Greater Omentum

Back 6

.

Front 7

The division of the two lobes of the liver you will find?

Back 7

The Falciform ligament and within it are parts of the umbilical cord like ligamentum teres.

Front 8

The abdominal aorta has paired and unpaired branches. The unpaired branches are?

Back 8

1. Celiac artery/trunk: supplies blood to the liver, gall bladder, stomach, part of the duodenum, and spleen
2. Superior Mesenteric artery: supplies some blood to the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, pancreas and part of the colon; the ascending and part of the transverse.
3. Inferior Mesenteric artery: supplies blood to the rest of the transverese colon the descending and sigmoid colons.
4. Sacral artery unless we have a tail doesn't concern us.

Front 9

The paired branches of the abdominal aorta are?

Back 9

1. Arteries to the Adrenal Glands
2. Ovarian a.
3. Renal Artery
4. Testicular a.

A.O.R.T. DON'T NEED TO KNOW THIS YET

Front 10

The abdominal aorta bifurcates into what two branches?

Back 10

Common iliac/Pelvic arteries and then they branch into the internal and external iliacs/pelvis arteries.

Front 11

Internal pelvic/iliac supplies?

Back 11

pelvic area such as: bladder, ureter and other organs close by

Front 12

Where the external and internal pelvic veins come together you get?

Back 12

The inferior vena cava

Front 13

External pelvic artery supplies?

Back 13

The leg

Front 14

The stomach is quite vascular and receives its blood supply from the?

Back 14

celiac artery

Front 15

From the middle of the transverse colon through the descending and sigmoid. These parts will receive blood from?

Back 15

the inferior mesenteric artery

Front 16

Portal System. There are 3 specific veins draining the digestive tract that feed into the Hepatic Portal vein. What are they?

Back 16

1. Inferior Mesenteric v.
2. Superior Mesenteric v.
3. The Splenic v.
4. and other veins from the stomach

Front 17

ANS Aortic Plexus have 4 ganglia that are associated with the peritoneal organs, what are they?

Back 17

1. Celiac
2. Superior Mesenteric
3. Inferior Mesenteric
4. Hypograstric (near the common iliac branches)

Front 18

In the pelvis major you will find?

Back 18

parts of the colon situated

Front 19

In the pelvis minor?

Back 19

this is the true pelvis and it is associated with the pelvic cavity. Obstetric pelvis.

Front 20

The female pelvis is wider and broader to accommodate a child. The female true pelvis includes?

Back 20

uterus, ovaries, vagina, urethra, and urinary bladder

Front 21

Mucosa has what 3 subdivisions?

Back 21

1. Epithelium
2. Lamina Propria (areolar CT)
3. Muscularis Mucosa (interna)

Front 22

What are the histological layers of the digestive tract?

Back 22

1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa
3. Muscularis Externa
4. Serosa or Adventitia

Front 23

In the esophagus, the epithelium starts out as?

Back 23

1. stratified squamous (non keratinized) and it then transitions into simple columnar as it joins the stomach

Oral cavity is keratinized

Front 24

The rest of the digestive tract is simple columnar epithelium until we get to the colon/anal canal and then the epithelium changes back to?

Back 24

stratified squamous becoming continuous with the rear cheeks of your body

Front 25

Areolar CT in the digestive tract.

Back 25

has many cells and many types of cells. Very vascular and a lot of collagen. Some elastic fibers and less reticular fibers

Front 26

In the lamina propria we will find the smaller?

Back 26

blood vessels and smaller nerves. It is a CT layer of Areolar CT.

Front 27

Muscularis Mucosa Interna is SM and consists of what two layers of SM fibers?

Back 27

1. circular
2. Longitudinal

Front 28

The Muscularis Mucosa Layer will extend up around glandular elements in the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine so when SM contracts it squeezes the?

Back 28

glands

Front 29

Submucosa

Back 29

thicker than lamina propria. Areolar CT. Density will vary by regions. Has lots of cells. A high degree of vascularity and more collagen fibers.

Front 30

Within the submucosa we have a nerve plexus called?

Back 30

Meissner's plexus-causes MM Interna to contract/relax

Front 31

Muscularis Externa

Back 31

SM Inner and Outer. In the stomach there are 3 layers with an Outer oblique. This has to do with the sphincters of the stomach.

Front 32

Auerbach's Plexus

Back 32

found between two layers of SM which controls functioning of SM of the Muscularis Externa resulting in peristaltic action forcing food down the gut tract.

Front 33

Serosa/Adventitia

Back 33

Serosa: is like adventitia has Areolar CT but with a mesothelium. It is found surrounds intraperitoneal organs like the stomach

Adventitia: found surrounding an organ like the kidney, adrenal gland, pancreas. things that are retroperitoneal

Front 34

Most of the esophagus is in the thoracic cavity and covered by?

Back 34

Adventitia

Front 35

An inch of the esophagus pushes through the diaphragm into the abdominal cavity this is covered by?

Back 35

Serosa

Front 36

Nasopharynx is lined by?

Back 36

Pseudostratified Columnar

Front 37

Oropharynx is lined by?

Back 37

stratified squamous

Front 38

The pharynx and the oral cavity is missing one layer, what is it missing?

Back 38

Muscularis mucosa. Adventitia surrounds both the naso and oropharynx

Front 39

In the esophagus, the Stratified Squamous are tightly held together by desmosomes. There are also _________________________ released by epithelia cells affording an additional protective barrier.

Back 39

glycoconjugates

Front 40

Langerhan cells

Back 40

act like macrophages and found in the oral cavity and the skin and any place you find stratified squamous epithelium. They sense viral material (antigens)

Front 41

The 1st 1/3 and last 1/3 of the esophagus you will find glands in what layer?

Back 41

lamina propria

Front 42

The middle 1/3 of the esophagus you will find glands where?

Back 42

in the sub mucosa

Front 43

_______________________ has the thickest Muscularis Mucosa of the entire digestive system.

Back 43

The esophagus

Front 44

The no name longitudinal folds of the esophagus are made of?

Back 44

Mucosa and submucosa

Front 45

What is the composition of muscle for the Muscularis Externa in the esophagus?

Back 45

upper 1/3: Skeletal muscle
middle 1/3: skeletal + SM
lower 1/3: SM

The rest of the digestive tract continues with SM until the very end when it change back into skeletal muscle.

Front 46

There are two sphincters at the end of the anal canal. What are they called and what is the muscular composition of both?

Back 46

1. Internal (SM)
2. External (Skeletal)

Front 47

What are the 4 regions of the stomach?

Back 47

1. Cardiac
2. Fundus
3. Body
4. Pyloris

Histologically there are only 3 regions though. The funds and the body have the same appearance.

Front 48

Extending from the greater curvature of the stomach you have the?

Back 48

greater omentum.

lesser curvature = lesser omentum, which ties the liver and gall bladder to the stomach

Front 49

Cytsic duct of the gall bladder and common bile duct empties into the?

Back 49

duodenum

Front 50

The pyloric region of the stomach has deeper gastric pits. The size of the gastric gland relates to the length of the pit. What are the pit to gland ratios for:
1. Fundus
2. Cariac
3. Pyloric

Back 50

1. Fundus 1:3
2. Cariac 1:1
3. Pyloric 3:1

Front 51

Stomach ph is?
Duodenum pH is?

Back 51

Stomach ph is? around 3/4
Duodenum pH is? 8

Front 52

Stomach has surface epithelial mucous cells that are simple columnar. These produce mucous and protects the stomach from acid attack. What other mucous cells are in the stomach?

Back 52

Neck mucous cells, which are low columnar and even cuboidal. It by the neck of the gland and protect against HCl and enzyme attack. Stem cells are there too which renew in both directions.

Front 53

Parietal Cells

Back 53

Large central nuclei. oval to wedge shaped with lots of mitochondria (40% of the cell composition). This produces HCl and bicarbonate ions. NaCl and carbonic acid within the cell combines outside the cell to form HCl

Front 54

The stomach also has an antipernicious anemia factor also known as?

Back 54

Gastric Intrinsic Factor. This enhances the absorption of Vit B12 leading to blood cell formation. Lack of it causes pernicious anemia.

Front 55

Chief Cells

Back 55

Zymogenic cell/serous cell. Has bright eosinophilic granules of pepsinogen--> and activates into pepsin when coming in contact with HCl in the stomach.

Front 56

Renin in the stomach digests?

Back 56

milk proteins

Front 57

APUD cell

Back 57

amine precursor for uptake and carboxylation. takes amino acids and carboxylates it to make hormones.

Front 58

G cells produce?

Back 58

gastrin, which stimulates gastric motility and parietal cells and mucosal growth.

Front 59

EC cells release?

Back 59

Seratonin and stimulate SM leading to gastric motility and squeezing glandular cells

Front 60

ECL cells release?

Back 60

Histamine and stimulate glands to release gastrin.

Front 61

A cells

Back 61

increase blood glucose levels

Front 62

D cells

Back 62

produce somatostatin and has an inhibitory effect on the stomach.

Front 63

This problem can be caused by bacteria causing more HCl release which eats away at the lining of the stomach. It can also be a problem in the duodenum which can leak out and cause hemorrhaging.

Back 63

Gastric Ulcer

Front 64

plicae circulares

Back 64

consists of mucosa and submucosa. circular and semicircular folds.

Front 65

Jejunum has the largest plicae circulares. These increase surface area by a factor of?

Back 65

3

Front 66

Villi

Back 66

simple columnar epithelium and goblet cells. Have argentiffin cells at the base in the Crypt of Lieberkuhn along with teracytes. Villi increase surface area by a factor of 10.

Front 67

Microvilli increase surface area by a factor of?

Back 67

20. So the Small intestine has a surface area of a factor of 600. Ex. Plicae 3 x Villi 10 x Microvilli 20 = 600.

Front 68

Paneth cells

Back 68

truncated simple columnar cells. serous cells. They play a role in the digestive process and have lysozymes. Can act as macrophages.

Located in the crypt of Lieberkuhn of the S.I. and migrate upward.

Front 69

Mitoses

Back 69

simple columnar regenerative cells. They undergo mitosis.

Located in the crypt of Lieberkuhn of the S.I. and migrate upward.

Front 70

What are the Argentiffin cells

Back 70

1. EC cells --> Seratonin
2. GL1Cells --> Glucagon
3. G cells --> gastrin (carry over from stomach)
4. I cells --> CCK which stimulates the gall bladder
5. Mo cells --> Motilin which stimulates motility in terms of the S.I.
6. S cells --> secretin

Front 71

The S.I. is 25 ft. in length and the duodenum 10-12 inches) has no plica circulares in the beginning but at the end it has a good amount. # increases in the?

Back 71

Jejunum

Front 72

In theDuodenum's Submucosa there's a special kind of gland called?

Back 72

Brunner's gland which releases mucous and helps neutralize the chyme. It also has Epidermal Growth factor called Urogastone which stimulates DNA activity. So it replaces worn out cells.

Front 73

Jejunum

Back 73

1. highly developed Plicae Circulares
2. villi
3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
4. Lamina propria is core of villus

Front 74

Peyer's Patch occupies the villus of?

Back 74

The Ileum

Front 75

M cells line the top of the villus of the Ileum and are like what other cell?

Back 75

Langerhan cells. Antigen Receptor type cells.

Front 76

The colon has no plicae circulares. No Villi. However it has an outer circular layer that enlarges and has?

Back 76

plicae semilunares to increase surface area.

Front 77

T-ni Coli on the colon puts pressure on the colon to cause?

Back 77

the bulges

Front 78

Epiploic appendages

Back 78

globules of fat

Front 79

what has the most goblet cells?

Back 79

ileum

Front 80

Cecum/appendix

Back 80

lymphocytes and under appendicitis has an increase in lymphocyte number.

Front 81

Colon

Back 81

has mostly goblet cells and some mitotic cells. Has mucosal columns and changes from simple columnar to stratified squamous and muscularis Mucosa disappears.

Front 82

Colon has a hemorrhoidal plexus.

Back 82

It's a vascular plexus. Going to the bathroom too often creates ware and tare on this exposing the underlying CT.

Front 83

Anal columns

Back 83

folds in the anal canal

Front 84

Liver is 2nd largest organ in the body. Liver is exocrine and endocrine. what's the largest lobe?

Back 84

Right Lobe
Quadrate lobe
Caudate lobe
Left lobe.

Front 85

In the center of a classic hexagonal lobule is the?

Back 85

central vein.

Front 86

A portal lobule connects?

Back 86

3 central veins

Front 87

The liver is separated by a CT capsule called?

Back 87

Gleasons capsule

Front 88

Celiac a./Hepatic Portal Vein enters the liver and empties into?

Back 88

Sinosoids --> Central vein --> Hepatic Veins --> Inferior Vena Cava

Front 89

The sinosoids receive the blood from the celiac/hepatic portal vein and the sinsoids have an incomplete lining where it then flows into the?

Back 89

Perisinosoidal space (space of dese) and then it flows to the central vein --> hepatic vein --> IVC

Front 90

Zone 1: gets the most nutrients and oxygen
Zone 2
Zone 3: gets least nutrients and oxygen so what happens to the cells?

Back 90

they constantly die off

Front 91

Hepatocytes also produce bile and it passes into the duct system through?

Back 91

Bile canaliculus

Front 92

Blood being brought into the liver is the ________________ supply?

Back 92

Afferent supply: Hepatic Artery (oxygenated) and Hepatic Portal Vein (deoxygenated)

Front 93

Blood exiting the liver is the __________________ blood.

Back 93

Efferent

Front 94

Functions of the Liver

Back 94

1. Digestion
2. Lymphatic Function (30% Thoracic Lymph)
3. Metabolic: storage of glucose/AA/Fats
4. Calcium --> Vitamin D3--> mineralization of Bone
5. Fe
6. Production of Cholesterol
7. Conversion of Ammonia to Urea to the kidney for excretion
8. production of RBCs an early embryonic function or in times of distress

Front 95

Calcified deposits in the Gall bladder are known as?

Back 95

Gall stones

Front 96

Delta Cells of the pancreas inhibit?

Back 96

A/B cells via somatostatin

The endocrine function comes from the Islet of Langerhans

Front 97

The respiratory system performs what other important functions:

Back 97

1. warming and moistening the incoming air 2. regulating the airflow 3. removing foreign airborne particles 4. cooling the entire organism 5. Olfaction.

Front 98

Right lung has how many lobes?

Back 98

3

Front 99

Left lung has how many lobes?

Back 99

2

Front 100

The lungs are lined by a serous membrane called?

Back 100

pleura.

Front 101

Parietal (outer) layer lines the?

Back 101

thoracic wall.

Front 102

Visceral (inner) layer is attached to the?

Back 102

lung tissue.

Front 103

Pleural cavity is lined with?

Back 103

mesothelial cells that normally produce a serous fluid.

Front 104

Pneumothroax

Back 104

Air leaks and accumulates into the space between lung and chest wall

Front 105

Buildup of fluid into the space between the lung and chest wall is called?

Back 105

pleural effusion

Front 106

Pleurisy is?

Back 106

inflammation of the pleura (pneumonia, tuberculosis)

Front 107

A Collection of blood into the space between the lung and chest wall is called a?

Back 107

hemothorax

Front 108

Outpouching of the foregut endoderm forms laryngotracheal tube. The laryngotracheal tube divides to form two?

Back 108

lung buds

Front 109

The digestive and respiratory tubes share what common chamber anteriorly?

Back 109

pharynx

Front 110

The laryngotracheal endoderm becomes the epithelia lining of the?

Back 110

trachea bronchi bronchioles and alveoli

Front 111

Other tissues of the lower respiratory tract are derived from?

Back 111

splanchnic mesoderm

Front 112

What are the stages of pulmonary development?

Back 112

1. Lung bud 2. Pseudo Glandular 3. Canalicular 4. Saccular 5. Alveolar

Front 113

Pseudoglandular stage

Back 113

(7 -17 weeks). Process of growth and branching setting up all pulmonary structures with the exception of the elements involved in gas exchange.

Front 114

Canalicular stage

Back 114

(17-27 weeks) The terminal bronchioles give rise to the tubes that make up the proper respiratory portion of the lung. Differentiation of the respiratory epithelium (Type I and Type II pneumocytes).

Front 115

Saccular-alveolar stage

Back 115

(27-40 weeks). The respiratory part of the bronchopulmonary tree develops with the formation of alveolar sacs which are progressively divided into smaller subunits, alveoli.

Front 116

The respiratory system consists of what two functional parts?

Back 116

Conducting Portion (brings air inside the lungs) and Respiratory Portion (site of gas exchanges)

Front 117

Conducting portion

Back 117

brings are inside the lungs and involve the nose pharynx larynx trachea bronch and bronchioles

Front 118

Respiratory portion

Back 118

site of gas exchange. Include: respiratory bronchioles alveolar ducts and sacs and alveoli.

Front 119

In the nasal cavity the vestibule (following the nostrils) is lined with what kind of epithelium?

Back 119

a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. There are also Hairs which filter large particles out of the airstream and sebaceous glands are also present.

Front 120

At the transition from the vestibule to the nasal cavity the epithelium becomes?

Back 120

pseudostratified columnar and ciliated. This type of epithelium is characteristic for all conductive passages of the respiratory system è respiratory epithelium

Front 121

The lateral side of the nasal cavity is organized into folds of bony projections known as conchae (turbinates). These folds do what?

Back 121

increase the surface area of the nasal cavity and create turbulence in the stream of passing air both of which facilitate the conditioning of the air.

Front 122

The superior concha and the nasal septum form the olfactory region of the nasal cavity. They are lined by what sort of epithelium?

Back 122

an olfactory epithelium.

Front 123

Olfactory epithelium includes what components?

Back 123

1. Ciliated olfactory neurons. 2. Non-motile cilia. 3. Olfactory receptors responding to odor-producing substances dissolved in the serous layer. 4. Sustentacular cells. 5. Basal cells.

Front 124

The pharynx connects the nasal cavity with the larynx. It is Divided into what 3 sections?

Back 124

1. Nasopharynx (epipharynx) 2. Oropharynx (mesopharynx) 3. Hypopharynx (laryngopharynx)

Front 125

The pharynx is lined with a respiratory epithelium (nasopharynx) or with a?

Back 125

stratified squamous epithelium (oropharynx & hypopharynx).

Front 126

The larynx connects the pharynx to the?

Back 126

trachea.

Front 127

The vocal folds of the larynx control airflow and allow the production of?

Back 127

sound.

Front 128

The vocal folds are lined by what sort of epithelium?

Back 128

stratified squamous epithelium and contain skeletal muscles and ligaments needed to control the tension of the vocal folds.

Front 129

The larynx is supported by a set of complexly shaped?

Back 129

cartilages.

Front 130

Epiglottis is a flap made of elastic cartilage tissue covered with a mucous membrane attached to the entrance of the?

Back 130

larynx. The epiglottis projects obliquely upwards behind the tongue.

Front 131

When swallowing the epiglottis is lowered to cover the entrance of the?

Back 131

larynx.

Front 132

The trachea is a flexible tubular structure. The trachea is stabilized by a number of C-shaped cartilages.

Back 132

.

Front 133

In the trachea. The free dorsal ends of the cartilages are connected by bands of ?

Back 133

smooth muscle (trachealis muscle) and connective tissue fibres.

Front 134

The trachea is Lined with what kind of epithelium?

Back 134

a respiratory epithelium (ciliated pseudostratified columnar)

Front 135

The Bronchi are Histologically very similar to the trachea. Lined with a respiratory epithelium (ciliated pseudostratified columnar) Bronchi have glands and supporting cartilage and muscle. Bronchi are surrounded by a layer of?

Back 135

smooth muscle.

Front 136

Bronchioles are Terminal segments of the conducting portion of the lung. Comprise of Primary secondary or tertiary (terminal) bronchioles. Glands and cartilage are absent. What different about the layer of smooth muscle?

Back 136

The layer of smooth muscle is thicker than in the bronchi.

Front 137

The Bronchioles Respiratory epithelium is?

Back 137

ciliated pseudostratified columnar to ciliated simple columnar.

Front 138

Terminal bronchioles are the Last bronchioles of the conducting portion of the lungs. And they have Respiratory epithelium becomes progressively?

Back 138

cuboidal.

Front 139

The terminal bronchioles have epithelium that contains Clara cells which secrete?

Back 139

glycoaminoglycans.

Front 140

When the wall of the terminal bronchiole breaks open into thin-walled alveolar structures it is then renamed as?

Back 140

respiratory bronchiole.

Front 141

+Small outpouchings of the walls of the respiratory bronchioles form?

Back 141

alveoli which is the site of gas exchange.

Front 142

The number of alveoli increases as the bronchioles continue to divide. They terminate into?

Back 142

alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs.

Front 143

The epithelium of the alveoli is formed by what two cell types:

Back 143

1. Alveolar type I cells (small alveolar cells or type I pneumocytes) 2. Alveolar type II cells (large alveolar cells or type II pneumocytes)

Front 144

Alveolar type I cells (small alveolar cells or type I pneumocytes) are

Back 144

Flattened cells and Form the bulk (95%) of the surface of the alveoli walls.

Front 145

Alveolar type II cells are?

Back 145

Cells rounded in shape attached to the aveoli wall. There are As many type II cells as type I cells. Type I cells Produce the pulmonary surfactant.

Front 146

The pulmonary surfactant is a complex mixture of saturated phospholipids and proteins that stabilize the alveoli and the distal airways of the lungs. Pulmonary surfactant increases the?

Back 146

surface tension preventing the alveolar sac from collapsing. These saturated phospholipids accumulate in lammelar bodies.

Front 147

Cilia are absent from the alveolar epithelium and cannot remove particles which continuously enters the alveoli with the inspired air. Who helps with this job?

Back 147

Alveolar macrophages take care of this job. Towards the end of their life span they migrate either towards the bronchioles where they enter the mucus lining the epithelium to be finally discharged into the pharynx.

Front 148

Hyaline membrane disease is also known as?

Back 148

Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)

Front 149

Hyaline membrane disease or Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) is Characterized by?

Back 149

a lack of surfactant due to immature development of the lungs (immature type II pneumocytes) The Alveaolar sacs collapse leading to respiratory difficulties.

Front 150

What are the treatments for Hyaline membrane disease aka Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)

Back 150

1. surfactant replacement therapy (synthetic surfactant) 2. breathing support (ventilator or nasal continuous positive airway pressure - NCPAP) 3. oxygen therapy 4. corticosteroids treatment to the mother during pregnancy (lungs can be induced to mature more rapidly, requires early detection)

Front 151

The pulmonary circulation delivers deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lung through what artery?

Back 151

the pulmonary artery.

Front 152

Within the lungs the pulmonary arteries follow the bronchial tree and divide ultimately forming?

Back 152

arterioles and capillaries.

Front 153

Pulmonary arterioles begin to fuse with?

Back 153

the pulmonary venules.

Front 154

Gas exchange take place as the capillaries come in close contact with the?

Back 154

alveolar epithelium.

Front 155

Venules and veins eventually returns oxygenated blood to the left side of the heart through what?

Back 155

pulmonary veins.

Front 156

Oxygenated blood is then delivered to the various organs via the systemic circulation through the?

Back 156

aorta.

Front 157

Between the connective tissue of the alveolar sacs the pulmonary arterioles fuse with the?

Back 157

pulmonary venules.

Front 158

A dense anastomosing network of pulmonary capillaries forms at the surface of the?

Back 158

alveoli. The capillaries assume a characteristic “waffle” pattern on top of the alveoli.

Front 159

Anastomosing capillaries are supported by a meshwork of what kinds of fibers?

Back 159

reticular and elastic fibers.

Front 160

The walls of the capillaries are in direct contact with the epithelial lining of the alveoli allowing for?

Back 160

passive gas exchanges.

Front 161

When capillary filtration exceeds capillary absorption - what might you have?

Back 161

extracellular edema.

Front 162

The impulse conduction pathway of the heart is composed of?

Back 162

modified cardiac muscle fibers.

Front 163

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart INCREASES contractility by?

Back 163

increasing calcium stores in the SR

Front 164

Cardiac output is expressed as a product of?

Back 164

stroke volume and heart rate

Front 165

The pulmonary valve prevents blood from flowing back into the?

Back 165

right ventricle

Front 166

In the normal cardiac cycle the volume of blood in the ventricle is greatest at?

Back 166

the end of diastole.

Front 167

Most tissues regulate blood flow by/to?

Back 167

maintain constant oxygen availability and by vasodilating in response to adenosine and other metabolic wastes.

Front 168

A decrease in total peripheral resistance results from?

Back 168

arteriole dilation

Front 169

An INCREASE in the frequency of action potentials in the carotid sinus baroreceptor will cause?

Back 169

decreased heart rate and decreased mean arterial pressure.

Front 170

Atrial fibrillation is typically associated with?

Back 170

irregular heart rate

Front 171

The initial length of cardiac muscle fibers affects the strength of contraction. This statement is fundamental to the idea that the heart must pump out all of the blood that enters it and it is explained by the changes in alignment of actin and myosin in sarcomeres as well as?

Back 171

Frank-Starling’s Law of the Heart

Front 172

In the denervated heart adjustments to INCREASED work load are mediated by mechanisms associated with?

Back 172

increased end diastolic volume

Front 173

T/F the pressure gradient driving bulk flow of blood decreases from arteries to capillaries to the veins.

Back 173

TRUE

Front 174

Both systemic and pulmonary circulations have the same?

Back 174

flow rate

Front 175

The PR interval in an electrocardiogram is a reflection on the?

Back 175

conduction time between the atria and ventricles.

Front 176

Long term mechanisms to increase a mean arterial pressure that is below normal set point of 100 mm HG invovles?

Back 176

1. Secretion of ADH by hypothalamus 2. Secretion of renin by juxtaglomerular cells 3. Production of angiotensin II in the lungs and 4. Changes in aldosterone levels.

Front 177

The rapid rise phase of an action potential recorded from a ventricular cell is due to?

Back 177

opening of sodium channels

Front 178

The cell body of a postganglionic neuron that innervates the heart is most often found?

Back 178

inside the pericardium

Front 179

Sympathetic postganglionic neuron activity speeds the heart by?

Back 179

decreasing Pk

Front 180

Parasympathetic postganglionic neuron activity decrease the force of cardiac contraction by?

Back 180

decreasing cAMP concentration

Front 181

In the parasympathetic innervation of the heart postganglionic neurons release a transmitter that has what metabotropic effects on the innervated heart cells?

Back 181

it decreases cAMP production

Front 182

The pressure in the cardiovascular system is lowest in the?

Back 182

veins

Front 183

A decrease in the mean arterial pressure from 150 to 100 mm HG reduces?

Back 183

oxygen consumption by the heart. Baroreceptor tell what the blood pressure is. Frequency goes down when the blood pressure drops. CVS #2 ↑ aortic pressure,↓blood being ejected ↓SV. Thus if ↓ aortic pressure then ↑ stroke volume.

Front 184

The contractility of the heart has increased so there should be a decrease in?

Back 184

end systolic volume

Front 185

Frank Starlings Law of the heart states that?

Back 185

initial length of cardiac muscle fibers affects the strength of contraction

Front 186

What occurs during isovolumetric ventricular contraction of the heart?

Back 186

the valves are closed

Front 187

During the plateau phase of an action potential recorded from a ventricular cell the calcium channels are?

Back 187

open

Front 188

Parasympathetic moves the pacemaker away from?

Back 188

threshold which decreases the heart rate

Front 189

Dub corresponds to?

Back 189

closure of aortic and pulmonary valves.

Front 190

In a normal electrocardiogram the RR interval corresponds to?

Back 190

The heart rate

Front 191

Sudden onset ventricular fibrillation decreases?

Back 191

cardiac output

Front 192

What is primarily responsible for the low permeability of the blood brain barrier?

Back 192

presence of tight intercellular junctions in continuous capillaries

Front 193

An increase in capillary pressure results in an increase in?

Back 193

the capillary filtration rate

Front 194

Tissues have an intrinsic ability to regulate their own blood flow. This ability results in an increase in?

Back 194

blood flow with increased metabolic rate

Front 195

Total peripheral resistance is controlled by?

Back 195

the diameter of the arterioles and affects both vascular and cardiac function. A decline can also increase venous return.

Front 196

Long term regulation of blood pressure is accomplished by?

Back 196

1. The kidney 2. And relies upon control of blood volume 3. Relies upon the renin-angiotensin system

Front 197

Edema can occur if the net filtration rate exceeds?

Back 197

the net absorption rate plus lymphatic flow.

Front 198

Long term mechanisms to decrease mean arterial pressure that is above normal set point of 100 mm HG invovles?

Back 198

changes in aldosterone levels

Front 199

What reduces the likelihood of the formation of edema?

Back 199

1. Increase in interstitial fluid hydrostatic fluid 2. Increase in plasma protein concentration 3. Decrease capillary hydrostatic pressure

Front 200

A decrease in TPR results from?

Back 200

arteriole dilation

Front 201

Mean arterial pressure can be calculated from?

Back 201

the pulse pressure

Front 202

What are some clinical outcomes of Coronary Artery Heart Disease?

Back 202

1. M.I. 2. Sudden Death 3. Unstable angina

Front 203

What are modifiable risk factors from CAHD?

Back 203

1. Hypertension 2. Smoking 3. Diabetes mellitus

Front 204

A stroke (CVA cerebrovascular accident) is a focal neurological deficit due to?

Back 204

lack of blood flow/oxygenation

Front 205

The heart functions to pump out as much blood as it receives. This phenomenon is described by?

Back 205

Frank Starlings Law of the Heart and the initial length of the cardiac sarcomere affects the strength of contraction.

Front 206

A patient has a MI resulting in right bundle branch block. What is the possible repercussions of this blockade?

Back 206

distension of the ne veins (e.g. jugular) is likely to occur.

Front 207

A patient has a heart transplant. What will likely occur?

Back 207

The SA node will drive the conduction system of the new heart

Front 208

The contractility of the heart has increased which immediately results in?

Back 208

decreased end diastolic volume

Front 209

Cardiac cells are identical to?

Back 209

skeletal muscle cells

Front 210

Sudden onset of atrial fibrillation immediately causes?

Back 210

ventricular tachycardia??? Or irregular heart rate (there are conflicting answers)

Front 211

Contractility of the heart relies upon?

Back 211

calcium levels in the SR

Front 212

Edema can occur if there is a decrease in?

Back 212

plasma oncotic pressure

Front 213

Microcirculation within most tissues relies upon?

Back 213

1. Fluid filtering out of the capillary on the arterial side and being absorbed into the capillary on the venous side.

Front 214

The SA node is located in the?

Back 214

upper outer wall of the right atrium.

Front 215

Most tissues regulate regional blood flow by?

Back 215

vasodilation in response to adenosine and other metabolic wastes.

Front 216

A significant increase in the frequency of APs in the carotid sinus baroreceptor sent to the cardiac center will elicit?

Back 216

decreased heart rate and decreased mean arterial pressure

Front 217

An important function of the arterioles is to?

Back 217

control the entrance of blood into the capillary bed

Front 218

Long term mechanisms to decrease mean arterial pressure that is above normal set point of 100 mm Hg involves?

Back 218

changes in aldosterone levels

Front 219

The mean arterial pressure can be calculated from?

Back 219

pulse pressure

Front 220

An increase in the mean arterial pressure from 100 to 150 mm Hg increases?

Back 220

end systolic volume and decreases cardiac output

Front 221

Cardiac cells in in the SA node have?

Back 221

pacemaker potential

Front 222

The left ventricle contains the maximal amount of blood at the end of?

Back 222

diastole

Front 223

What happens right after the end of isovolumetric contraction of the heart?

Back 223

ejection of blood

Front 224

The pressure in the cardiovascular system is?

Back 224

higher in the pulmonary circulation and can be regulated peripheral resistance by varying arteriole diameter.

Front 225

Increased end-diastolic volume will initially lead to?

Back 225

an increased stroke volume.

Front 226

On an ECG repolarization of the ventricles is associated with?

Back 226

the T wave

Front 227

Edema is likely to occur if there is a decrease in?

Back 227

plasma protein concentration

Front 228

In regards to the pacemaker cell the conduction velocity of conductile cells in the AV node modifies the?

Back 228

PR interval

Front 229

An increase in blood volume via an intravenous infusion will increase?

Back 229

action potential discharge frequency of the aortic baro-receptor.

Front 230

Sudden onset ventricular fibrillation increases?

Back 230

venous pressure

Front 231

A decrease in the mean arterial pressure from 150 to 100 mm Hg increases?

Back 231

the Cardiac Output.

Front 232

During the rapid depolarization phase of a cardiac action potential recorded from a ventricular cell potassium permeability is starting to?

Back 232

decrease

Front 233

Velocity of flow in blood vessels that are in parallel is inversely related to?

Back 233

cross sectional area

Front 234

10. All of the following apply to ischemia

Back 234

EXCEPT:, A. It represents a reduction in blood flow* B. It is an area of dead or necrotic tissue*
C. It leads to angina
D. It is a consequence of atherosclerotic disease, .

Front 235

What part of the heart does the left anterior descending coronary artery NOT supply with blood?

Back 235

SA node

Front 236

What is the most common form of medical treatment to reduce the risk for a CVA?

Back 236

Anticoagulant

Front 237

When examining the facial nerve sparing of the upper one third of the facial muscle function usually indicates a?

Back 237

UMN (upper motor neuron) lesion

Front 238

What tunic in an artery is responsible for vasoconstriction?

Back 238

tunica media

Front 239

At any given time the vessel type holding the largest volume of blood is the?

Back 239

vein

Front 240

Calcium levels are critical to appropriate cardiac contraction. Cytosolic calcium activates?

Back 240

the contractile apparatus.

Front 241

29. During inflammation capillary permeability increases and plasma proteins may leak into the interstitial fluid. Based on these observations which of the following statement is TRUE?

Back 241

Net absorption increases

Front 242

24. Long term regulation of blood pressure:
a. is accomplished by the kidney

b. relies upon control of blood volume

c. relies upon the rennin-angiotensin system
d.A,B
e. all of the above, d. A and B.

Back 242

e. all of the above

Front 243

During which of the following phases of the cardiac cycle are all cardiac valves OPEN?
a. rapid filling
b. Ejection
c. Isovolumetric relaxation
d. Isovolumetric contraction
e. None of the above

Back 243

e. none of the above

Front 244

23. Tissue have an intrinsic ability to regulate their own blood flow. This ability:

a. is related to the vasodilation induced by increased oxygen levels
b. is related to the vasoconstriction induced by metabolic wastes (e.g. adenosine)

c. results in an increase in blood flow with increased metabolic rate
d. is related to the relaxation of smooth muscle in response to stretch
e. none of the above

Back 244

e. none of the above

Front 245

26. The heart rate is regulated by several means. Which of the following is CORRECT?

a. Increasing the potassium permeability in the SA node increases the heart rate.

b. Acetylcholine released by the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate

c. Sympathetic stimulation hyperpolarizes the pacemaker potential which increases the heart rate.
d. Parasympathetic stimulation hyperpolarizes the pacemaker potential which decreases the heart rate.
e. none of the above.

Back 245

d. Parasympathetic stimulation hyperpolarizes the pacemaker potential which decreases the heart rate

Front 246

25. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases contractility by:
a. Phosphorylation of calcium-activated calcium-release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b. increasing calcium stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

c. Decreasing SERCA (sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium) pump activity
d. Decreasing the time L-type calcium channels are open
e. A B and C

Back 246

e. ABC

Front 247

Which of the following are necessary steps in the development of the heart?
a) Cranial-Caudal Folding of the embryo at the end of the third week of development
b) Lateral body folding
c) Migration of neural crest cells
d) Partitioning the Atria
e) All of the above

Back 247

E.

Front 248

Which of the following associations matches the embryonic structure with the appropriate adult structure?
a) Primitive right atrium – right auricular appendage
b) Ductus arteriosus – ligamentum arteriosus
c) Ductus venosus – ligamentus venosum
d) Septum primum – floor of fossa ovalis
e) All of the above are correct

Back 248

E

Front 249

Shunting of blood from from the right side of the heart to the left, bypassing the lungs, is essential for normal development of the embryo. Which of the following is/are right to left shunts?
a) Ductus venosus
b) Foramen ovale
c) Foramen pulmonale
d) Portal sinus
e) All of the above

Back 249

B. foramen ovale

Front 250

Which of the following is a component of the cardiac congenital defect known as Tetralogy of Fallot?
a) Aortic Stenosis
b) Left Ventricular Hypertrophy
c) Atrial Septal Defect
d) Overriding Pulmonary Trunk
e) None of the above

Back 250

E.

Front 251

Atrial septal defects (ASD) are more common in female while ventricular septal defects (VSD) are more common in males. Which of the following associations concerning cardiac defects is/are CORRECT?
a) ASD – most common is a probe patent foramen ovale
b) VSD – lack of cardiac cushion fusion
c) ASD – lack of cardiac cushion fusion
d) VSD – usually in the membranous septum
e) All of the above

Back 251

E

Front 252

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
a) The heart primordium is the most caudal structure in the 3-week embryo
b) The heart becomes situated in the chest due to right to left shunting of blood
c) The heart becomes situated in the chest due to left to right shunting of blood
d) The intraembryonic coelom gives rise to the pericardial cavity
e) All of the above are correct

Back 252

D

Front 253

The vessel containing the greatest proportion of smooth muscle in its wall compared to other components is:
a) arteriole
b) capillary
c) large vein
d) medium artery
e) sinusoid

Back 253

A

Front 254

Fenestrated membranes are composed of:
a) capillary endothelium
b) cardiac muscle
c) elastic CT
d) sinusoidal endothelium
e) smooth muscle

Back 254

C

Front 255

Which component of the cardiovascular system is not lined by endothelium?
a) heart
b) capillary
c) lymphatic
d) venule
e) none of the above

Back 255

E

Front 256

In the fetus, which vessel has blood with the highest oxygen content?
a) Umbilical vein
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Superior vena cava
d) Aorta
e) Pulmonary trunk

Back 256

A

Front 257

The sternal angle is a landmark for which of the following regions and structures?
a) The plane between the superior and inferior mediastinum.
b) The beginning and end of the arch of the aorta.
c) The bifurcation of the trachea
d) The second rib
e) All of the above

Back 257

E

Front 258

The thoracic duct is found in the posterior mediastinum. The thoracic duct runs along the anterior of the esophagus.
a) Both statements are true.
b) The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
c) The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
d) Both statements are false.

Back 258

B

Front 259

The vagus nerves can be found anterior to the root of the lungs. The vagus nerves contribute to the esophageal plexus.
a) Both statements are true.
b) The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
c) The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
d) Both statements are false.

Back 259

C

Front 260

The right coronary artery…
a) runs between the right and left ventricles.
b) runs with the great cardiac vein.
c) is a branch of the pulmonary trunk.
d) runs in the coronary (atrio-ventricular) sulcus.
e) is the primary blood supply for the left ventricle.

Back 260

D

Front 261

Which of the following structures are found in the right atrium?
a) papillary muscle
b) trabeculae carneae
c) chordae tendeneae
d) ostium (opening) of ductus venosus
e) fossa ovalis

Back 261

E

Front 262

Exchange of substances between the cardiovascular system and the interstitial fluid occurs mainly in which of the following?
A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
E. Veins

Back 262

C

Front 263

An INCREASE in the mean arterial pressure from 100 to 150 mm Hg:
A. increases action potential discharge frequency of the aortic baroreceptor.
B. increases the cardiac output.
C. causes atrial fibrillation.
D. increases the end diastolic ventricular volume.

Back 263

A

Front 264

The QRS waves in an electrocardiogram correspond to
A. repolarization of the ventricles.
B. depolarization of the ventricles.
C. atrial depolarization.
D. SA node pacemaker potential.

Back 264

B

Front 265

Edema is likely to occur:
A. in the lungs if there is right side heart failure.
B. if the net absorption rate exceeds the net filtration rate plus the lymphatic flow.
C. if there is an decrease in plasma protein concentration.
D. if there is a increase in plasma oncotic pressure.

Back 265

C

Front 266

Which of the following regarding blood flow is CORRECT?
A. Resistance is proportional to radius and inversely proportional to viscosity and length.
B. The total resistance of blood vessels in series is less than the smallest resistance.
C. Hydrostatic pressure is determined by the osmotic pressure gradient.
D. Velocity of blood flow in parallel vessels is inversely related to cross sectional area.

Back 266

D

Front 267

Michaeleen is a 64 year old female that came into a local emergency room complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Blood samples were taken for cardiac enzyme measurements, and an electrocardiogram was quickly taken. Her blood pressure is 90/60, pulse is 100/minute and respiratory rate is 20/minute. Her end systolic volume is 70 mL and end diastolic volume is 120 mL. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. Her Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is approximately 70.
B. Her cardiac output is 50 L/min.
C. Her cardiac output is 19 L/min.
D. Her heart sounds are cub lub, which is normal.

Back 267

A

Front 268

Which of the following conditions at the SA node will cause a DECREASE in heart rate?
A. Increased sodium permeability
B. Decreased acetylcholine levels
C. Increased norepinephrine levels
D. Increased potassium permeability
E. Increased calcium permeability

Back 268

D

Front 269

Which of the following statement(s) regarding homeostasis is CORRECT?
A. Opening of sodium channels during an action potential is an example of a negative feedback system.
B. In negative feedback systems, the control system initiates changes to move away from set point when deviations are detected by sensors.
C. Homeostasis relies on sensors and set points that have associated functional ranges.
D. Humans are the only animals that use negative feedback systems and set points to maintain homeostasis.

Back 269

C.

Front 270

The mitral valve opens when the ventricular pressure is greater than the atrial pressure and closes when the ventricular pressure is less than the atrial pressure. The aortic valve opens when the ventricular pressure exceeds the aortic pressure and closes when the ventricular pressure is less than the aortic pressure.
A. Both statements are true.
B. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
D. Both statements are false.

Back 270

C

Front 271

The right coronary artery (RCA) supplies blood to all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum
B. The entire right ventricular free wall
C. The posterobasal wall of the left ventricle
D. Sinuatrial (SA) node

Back 271

A

Front 272

Which of the following are part of the sequence of cellular interactions that lead to the development of an atherosclerotic plaque?
A. Injury to the intima
B. Ingestion of oxidized LDL by macrophages
C. Migration of smooth muscles cells from the media
D. Monocyte adhesion and emigration into the intima
E. All of the above

Back 272

E

Front 273

Complications from an MI include which of the following?
A. Sudden death
B. Rupture of the left ventricle
C. Thromboembolism
D. A and B only
E. All of the above

Back 273

E

Front 274

Which statement regarding the arterial circle of Willis is TRUE?
A. It is the terminal circulation to the external carotid arteries.
B. It provides an important means of collateral circulation partially overcoming blockage from feeder vessels.
C. It represents a high risk area for dangerous backflow of arterial blood and risk for rupture and bleed.
D. 75% of all strokes resulting from emboli occur in the Circle of Willis.
E. None of the above

Back 274

B

Front 275

Which statement is TRUE regarding a stroke affecting the pre-frontal cortex and the Upper Motor Neurons of Cranial nerve 7?
A. Paralysis of the contralateral lower 2/3 of the face.
B. Paralysis of the contralateral upper 2/3 of the face.
C. Paralysis of the ipsilateral lower 2/3 of the face.
D. Paralysis of the ipsilateral upper 2/3 of the face.
E. Paralysis of the contralateral entire face.

Back 275

A

Front 276

A warning sign of increased risk for a stroke are transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Which statement is FALSE regarding TIA?
A. TIAs result in reversible neurological deficits due to temporary diminished perfusion of brain tissue.
B. TIAs can be very subtle with only mild temporary deficits.
C. TIAs often result in medical or surgical treatment to reduce the risk for a stroke.
D. TIAs are limited to the cerebellar arterial supply and do not affect cerebral blood flow.
E. All of the above are true

Back 276

D

Front 277

The central chemoreceptor responds to blood PCO2. This is based on active transport of CO2 across the blood brain barrier.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Back 277

C

Front 278

In the theoretical lung, PaO2 will be less than PAO2 because right to left shunts will allow more oxygenated blood to raise the PaO2 as blood enters the left atrium.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Back 278

E

Front 279

Your patient is recovering from a heart attack. He is put on a treadmill to monitor his cardiovascular and respiratory system. As the treadmill reaches its peak speed, his pulse is 120 beats/min. His inspiratory volume is 1200 mls, dead space 200 mls and respiratory rate of 30 per minute. What is his total ventilation in liters?
A. 36
B. 30
C. 144
D. 120

Back 279

A

Front 280

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Hypoventilation will lead to an increase in blood pH.
B. Hypoventilation will lead to an increase in blood PCO2
C. Hyperventilation will lead to an increase in blood PO2
D. Hyperventilation will lead to a decrease in blood hydrogen ion concentration.

Back 280

A

Front 281

If a patient’s peripheral chemoreceptors are functioning properly, which of the following is an INCORRECT feedback control mechanism that might occur through a peripheral chemoreceptor?
A. low PaO2 is sensed leading to increased Vdot that leads to increased PaO2
B. decreased blood pH is sensed leading to decreased Vdot that leads to decreased PaCO2
C. decreased PaCO2 is sensed leading to decreased Vdot that leads to increased PaCO2
D. decreased PaO2 is sensed leading to increased Vdot that leads to decreased PaCO2

Back 281

B

Front 282

Last year, a trainer approached an Olympic caliber athlete and offered him a drug that cannot be tested for but would give him an advantage. The drug produces a systemic shift in his Hb-O2 saturation curve that mimics the effect of increased blood pH. He was told that this would allow his hemoglobin to deliver a maximum amount of oxygen and thus give him an advantage in the coming Olympics. The athlete took the drug but lost all races. During each race he felt exhausted and could not compete at his normal level. The most likely reason is:
A. A left shift occurred increasing HbO2 saturation in the lung
B. Not enough O2 was delivered to his muscles because of the increased affinity of Hb for oxygen
C. A right shift occurred leading to oxygen toxicity as too much oxygen was delivered to his muscles
D. The right shift occurred leading to increased affinity for oxygen and so that not enough oxygen was released to meet his needs

Back 282

B

Front 283

Which of the following statements is CORRECT on the effects of gravity on ventilation-perfusion ratio?
A. There is decreased compliance in lung base
B. There is increased compliance in lung apex
C. There is increased blood flow in lung base
D. There is increased blood flow in lung apex

Back 283

C

Front 284

An inexperienced mountain climber becomes hypoxemic as he begins to climb Mount Whitney. This means that systemically
A. His PCO2 is elevated
B. His HbO2 saturation curve has shifted to the left
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of his blood has increased
D. He has a systemic lowering of his PO2

Back 284

D

Front 285

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the air-conducting portion of the respiratory system?
A. The nasopharynx is lined with a respiratory epithelium
B. The vestibule is lined with a keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
C. The respiratory epithelium of the terminal bronchioles contains Clara cells
D. The respiratory epithelium of the trachea is ciliated pseudostratified columnar
E. All of the above are correct

Back 285

E

Front 286

The olfactory epithelium is found in which region of the nasal cavity?
A. Vestibule
B. Superior concha
C. Inferior concha
D. Middle concha
E. Superior meatus

Back 286

B

Front 287

The presence of a respiratory epithelium associated with smooth muscles cells and scattered plates of cartilage is diagnostic for which one of the following structures?
A. Larynx
B. Primary bronchiole
C. Secondary bronchus
D. Trachea
E. Pharynx

Back 287

C

Front 288

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the pulmonary surfactant?
A. Its production starts at birth
B. It is a complex mixture of saturated phospholipids and proteins
C. It is produced by alveolar type II cells
D. It prevents the alveolar sacs from collapsing
E. All of the above are correct

Back 288

A

Front 289

In emphysema, the problem involves the alveoli of the lung. Greater than ¾ of the lung parenchyma must be damaged in order for any signs or symptoms occur.
A. Both sentences are true.
B. Both sentences are false.
C. The first sentence is true and the second sentence is false.
D. The first sentence is false and the second sentence is true.

Back 289

C

Front 290

6. Which of the following has 3 layers in its muscularis externa?
 a) esophagus
 b) small intestine
 c) large intestine
 d) stomach

Back 290

D. Stomach

Front 291

Which of the following digestive organs has the most goblet cells?
 a) colon b) duodenum
 c) esophagus
 d) fundic stomach

Back 291

A.) colon

Front 292

Stomach has ____ cells that produce ____ that binds to vitamin B12
 a) argentaffin; serotonin
 b) chief; pepsinogen
 c) parietal; intrinsic factor d) goblet; mucous

Back 292

c) parietal; intrinsic factor

Front 293

9. Villi are projections of ______ layer to help increase surface area for nutrient absorption
 a) submucosa
 b) lamina propria
 c) muscularis externa
 d) all layers

Back 293

b) lamina propria

Front 294

10. ______ project above the surface in small intestine while ______ are under the surface and empty onto them
 a) glands; villi
 b) villi; glands c) plicae circulares; villi
 d) villi; plicae circulares

Back 294

b) villi; glands

Front 295

11. Large phagocytic cells that lie on the luminal surface of sinusoids are
 a) hepatocytes
 b) Ito cells
 c) Kupffer cells d) pit cells

Back 295

c) Kupffer cells

Front 296

12. Bile is produced by
 a) endothelial cells
 b) hepatocytes
 c) Ito cells
 d) Kupffer cells

Back 296

b) hepatocytes

Front 297

14. Which of the following layers does the gall bladder not have?
 a) mucosa
 b) muscularis mucosa c) muscularis externa
 d) adventitia or serosa

Back 297

b) muscularis mucosa

Front 298

15. Which of the following is associated with centroacinar cells?
 a) gall bladder
 b) stomach
 c) ileum
 d) pancreas

Back 298

d) pancreas

Front 299

2. Thin loop of the henle is in the?

Back 299

Medulla, not in every human

Front 300

Gall bladder lacks what layer?

Back 300

muscularis mucosa

Front 301

1. Which of the following organs is considered to be located in the intraperitonial position? a. Kidney b. Pancreas c. Descending colon d. Jejunum e. Sigmoid colon

Back 301

d. jejunum

Front 302

2. Select the correct statement concerning circulation in the abdominal-pelvic cavity. a. Blood drains out of the liver via the hepatic portal vein b. Three pairs of arteries bring blood into the kidney. c. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the ileum. d. All the paired veins join together to form the hepatic portal vein. e. The celiac artery supplies blood to the gall bladder.

Back 302

e. The celiac artery supplies blood to the gall bladder.

Front 303

3. Select the correct statement concerning the digestive tract a. The submucosa contains glands throughout the digestive tract b. The layer of elastic fibers in the pharynx is replaced by the muscularis mucosa in the esophagus. c. The muscularis externa of the esophagus has only muscle d. Langerhans cells are antigen presenting cells in the … stomach. e. Rugae increase the surface are in the esophagus

Back 303

b. The layer of elastic fibers in the pharynx is replaced by the muscularis mucosa in the esophagus.

Front 304

4. In contrast to the fundic stomach the jejunum:
a. Has a muscularis mucosa b. Has longer gastric pits c. Has 3 layers of smooth muscle in the muscularis externa d. Has submucosal glands e. Has well developed plicae circulars,

Back 304

e. Has well developed plicae circulars

Front 305

5. In humans parietal cells:
a. Are small, simple cuboidal cells b. Produce mucus c. Release a factor which enhances absorption of vitamin D d. Release serotonin e. Have acid present within the cell cytoplasm,

Back 305

c. Release a factor which enhances absorption of vitamin D

Front 306

12. Which of the following is not true of the Liver, pancreas and gallbladder? a. Associated with ducts b. Contain cells responsive to hormones c. Derived from endoderm d. Muscularis externa of skeletal muscle

Back 306

d. Muscularis externa of skeletal muscle

Front 307

What are the symptoms associated with Tetralogy of fallout?

Back 307

1. Stenosis of the pulmonary trunk
2. overriding aorta
3. interventricular septal defect
4. hypertrophy of the right ventricle

Front 308

The base of the heart consists of?

Back 308

the right and left ventricles

Front 309

Cardiac output is expressed as a product of?

Back 309

stroke volume and heart rate

Front 310

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart INCREASES contractility by?

Back 310

increasing calcium stores in the SR

Front 311

What promotes extracellular edema?

Back 311

Capillary filtration exceeds capillary absorption

Front 312

The impulse conduction pathway of the heart is composed of?

Back 312

modified cardiac muscle fibers

Front 313

Cardiac cells in the SA node have?

Back 313

pacemaker potential

Front 314

PR interval is a reflection of?

Back 314

conduction time for action potentials between the atria and ventricles

Front 315

A decrease in total peripheral resistance results from?

Back 315

arteriole dilation

Front 316

What reduces the likelihood of formation of edema?

Back 316

1. increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure
2. increase in plasma protein
3. decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure

Front 317

Parasympathetic stimulation moves the pacemaker away from threshold which _________________ heart rate.

Back 317

decreases

Front 318

During the plateau phase what channels are open?

Back 318

Calcium Channels are open

Front 319

Dub corresponds to the closure of the?

Back 319

aortic and pulmonary valves

Front 320

RR interval corresponds to?

Back 320

Heart rate

Front 321

The vessel that has the greatest proportion of smooth muscle in its wall compared to other components is a?

Back 321

arteriole

Front 322

The vessel allowing lymphocytes to pass from vessel lumen into tissues is the?

Back 322

venule

Front 323

Both systemic and pulmonary circulations have the same?

Back 323

flow rate

Front 324

The heart becomes situated in the chest in part due to?

Back 324

cranial caudal folding, lateral folding

Front 325

Intraembryonic coelom gives rise to the?

Back 325

pericardial cavity

Front 326

Septum primum is the floor of the?

Back 326

fossa ovalis

Front 327

Ductus arteriosus us a ______ to _________ shunt.

Back 327

Right to left

Front 328

ASD

Back 328

probe patent foramen ovale

Front 329

VSD and ASDs have lack of?

Back 329

cardiac cushion fusion

Front 330

Septum primum forms the valve of the?

Back 330

foramen ovale

Front 331

After birth the umbilical arteries become?

Back 331

medial umbilical ligaments

Front 332

The ductus arteriosus functions to?

Back 332

shunt blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta

Front 333

The location of the heart primordium in a 3 week old embryo is the most?

Back 333

cranial structure

Front 334

The base of the heart consist mostly of the?

Back 334

left atrium

Front 335

During cardiac tamponade, fluid would be found between?

Back 335

the serous parietal and serous visceral pericardium

Front 336

The pericardium is composed of two layers.

Back 336

1. serous pericardium
2. one fibrous layer

Front 337

The sterno-pericardial ligaments help hold the heart in place during?

Back 337

external cardiac massage

Front 338

The unusual pattern of cardiac muscle helps?

Back 338

efficiently eject blood from the ventricles

Front 339

Perkinje fibers make electrical connection with cardiac muscles via?

Back 339

gap junctions

Front 340

Pliable valave leaflets arise from the?

Back 340

annuli fibrosi

Front 341

The four major cardiac valves arise from the fibrous rings of the?

Back 341

cardiac skeleton

Front 342

The blood vessel of preference for coronary artery bypass is the?

Back 342

internal thoracic artery

Front 343

Cardiac plexus innervates what special fiber in the heart?

Back 343

SA node

Front 344

What vessel has the most elastic tissue?

Back 344

Large Artery

Front 345

Most tissue regulate regional blood flow by vasodilation in response to?

Back 345

adenosine and other metabolic waste

Front 346

MAP can be calculated from?

Back 346

Pulse pressure

Front 347

26. Organ Systems, Anatomy, Thorax, heart, sinu atrial node function, artery of the SA node
The artery to the SA node is a branch of what arteries:

Back 347

a. Right coronary artery**
b. Left coranay artery