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136 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What does G PTPAL stand for?
gravidity
Parity
- term
- preterm
- abortions
- living children
What is Naegle's Rule?
for estimated date of confinement/delivery (EDC) add one week to the FDLMP (first day of last menstrual period) minus 3 months
Where should the fundal height be at 12 weeks?
symphysis pubis
Where should the fundal height be at 16 weeks?
between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
Where should the fundal height be at 20 weeks?
umbilicus
Where should the fundal height be after 20 week?
each cm above the symphysis pubis equal to one additional week.
What percentage of women don't know their FDLMP?
40%
What does the first trimester US measure to try to determine fetal age?
crown to rump length - accurate between (+/-) 1-7 days
What does the second trimester US measure to try to determine fetal age?
measures femur length - accurate to within (+/-) 7 days
What is the accuracy of determining fetal age during 3rd trimester
accurate to within 3 weeks
When is fetal movement first felt?
primigravid: at ~20 weeks
multigravid: at ~15 weeks
How often should fetal movements be felt?
should be felt 10 times in a 12 hour period
What is the average weight gain during pregnancy?
25-35 lbs
When does the CNS develop?
formation starts at 2 weeks
(be on folic acid before getting pregnant!)
When can the heart beat be seen on US?
6-7 weeks gestation
When can the sex of the child be determined?
16-18 weeks
What are 3 major osteopathic considerations of pregnancy?
1. change in structure and biomechanics as a result of developing fetus.
2. change in body fluid circulation
3. hormonal changes
What happens to overall CO during pregnancy?
increases
How much blood goes to the uterus?
blood flow to the uterus must increase to about 1 L/min )20% of normal CO) at term
Why is hemoglobin lowered during pregnancy?
lowered by dilution, from about 13.3 to 12.1 g/dL
What happens to GFR during pregnancy?
increases
What happens to BUN and creat during pregnancy?
decrease
How much does the thoracic circumference increase during pregnancy?
10 cm
What is HPL?
human placental lactogen - placenta produces it
Maintains fetal glucose levels - associated with gestational diabetes
When is gestational diabetes screened for?
during 26-28 weeks
What increases the risk of getting gestational diabetes?
obesity
fam hx of DM
What causes the ligament laxity that occurs for passage of the baby?
relaxin is secreted by the corpus luteum
What is the correlation of relaxin to LBP?
the higher levels of relaxin, the greater the incidence of LBP
What are the risk factors for LBP in pregnancy?
multiparity
advanced maternal age
previous history of LBP or trauma
Factors NOT associated with LBP in pregnancy?
Race
Occupation
Fetal weight/size
pre-pregnancy weight
previous epidural injectin
exercise habits
sleep position
mattress type
heel height
weight gain
What causes the lower extremity edema in pregnancy?
the IVC is compressed by enlarging uterus and leads to decreased venous return and distal LE venous stasis
How much does body fluid increase in pregnancy?
~6.5 liters
What are some C/I's to OMT during pregnancy? Figure out causes to some of these things first...
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
ectopic pregnancy
placental abruption
untreated DVT
elevated maternal BP
preterm labor
unstable maternal vital signs
fetal distress
What is the vescerosomatic reflexes for uterus and urinary bladder?
T10-L1
What are the viscerosomatic reflexes for ovary and fallopian tubes?
T9-10
What are the parasympathetics for pelvis?
S2-S4
Why might neonates have asymmetric musculoskeletal mechanichs?
intrauterine forces or positioning
birth trauma
how many fontanels do babies have?
6
What are Synchondroses?
hinges - cartilaginous connections of osseous components - turn into bone before adult life
When does the SBS ossify?
between 8 and 18 years
When does the Sphenoid and Temporal bones ossify?
first 2 years
When does the occipital bone (originally 4 parts at birth) ossify?
7-9 years
When fused form occipital condyles and hypoglossal canal
Should you use direct or indirect techniques in pediatric patients?
indirect due to pliability of structures
What is the rule for HVLA in children?
no HVLA under 6 years
What are 2 absolute contraindications for cervical HVLA?
Down syndrome or RA
- due to odontoid ligament susceptible to rupture
What does APGAR stand for?
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration
Which type of birth trauma hematoma doesn't cross the midline?
cephalohematoma
Which type of birth trauma hematoma crosses the midline?
Caput seccundum
Which neurological reflexes should be evaluated in an infant exam?
Moro
Grasp
Asymmetrical tonic neck
DTR
Plantar reflexes
By the first month of life, what milestones should be hit?
makes jerky, quivering arm thrusts
brings hands within range of eyes and mouth
moves head from side to side while lying on stomach
Head flops backward if unsupported
Keeps hands in tight fists, strong reflex movements
By 3 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
Lifts head and chest when lying on stomach
turns head from side to side when lying on stomach
follows a moving object with his eyes
often holds hands open or loosely fisted
Grasps rattle
wiggles and kicks with arms and legs
By 6 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
single syllable words 6 months
sits up unsupported
shakes a rattle
rolls over
reaches for objects
By 9-10 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
crawls and pull to stand
combine syllables at 9 months
By 12 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
Drinks from a cup with help
Feeds themselves finger foods
Knocks 2 blocks together
Pull up to stand or take steps holding onto furniture
Pincer grasp - picks up objects by using thumb, index or forefinger
By 18 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
Walks without assistance
By 20-24 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
Combines 2 words
By 24 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
runs
walks up and down stairs alone
By 36 months of age, what milestones should be hit?
alternates feet with stair walking, jump on step
walk on toes or hop 2-3 times
By 3 years age, what milestones should be hit?
knows the parts of their own body
can draw a self portrait
What does molding after the first day of life mean?
bone deformation with or without cranial base strain
What is functional plagiocephaly?
a distorted shape of infant's skull, due to molding of unfused sutures
What needs to be ruled out when a child presents with functional plagiocephaly?
synostotic plagiocephaly - prematurely fused and misshapen. This will show up on head circumference growth curve
What are some causes of plagiocephaly?
intrauterine position
birth trauma
feeding and sleeping positions
What are the osteopathic findings in a plagiocephalic skull of a newborn?
Lateral strain - parallelogram towards flat side
OA rotation towards flat side
What is the muscle imbalance seen in torticollis?
SCM, Trap, and/or Scalenes
Rotated and sidebent opposite
What type of suckling do infants born at < 32 weeks gestation have?
non-nutritive suck predominates
What could be the cause of poor feeding in an infant?
nerve irritation may affect suck or swallowing:
hypoglossal foramen with CN XII --> tongue muslce weakness - poor suck
What runs through the jugular foramen and what effect can that have on suckling?
Jugular foramen gives passage to 95% of the venous drainage of the head and houses CN's IX, X, XI
Muscle weakness that coordinate sucking and swallowing
What might be wrong in an infant with GERD?
Vagus nerve between the occiput and temporal bone through the jugular foramen.
Throacoabdominal diaphragm - esophagus motility and dysfunction
What are some specific techniques that can be used for GI issues?
condylar decompression
Mesentery release
Where do the extraocular muscles originate from?
sphenoid, frontal, and maxilla bones
(the sphenoid bones also house the cavernous sinus and the innervation of the EOMs)
What are some clinical signs that there is a craniofacial somatic dysfunction?
myopia
hyperopia
strabismus
lachrymal duct stenosis
Where is the Eustachian tube narrowest?
at junction of osseous and cartilaginous parts - though the petrosphenoid articulation
When do ear structures (ET, EAC) mature?
~ age 6
What are some specific techniques used for Ear problems?
Mandibular drainage of Galbreath
Sinus effleurage
Ear pull
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children?
viral: RSV, influenza, parainfluenza
List the top 4 common causes of pneumonia in children under 5 years old.
Strep pneumoniae
M. pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae
H influenza (uncommon in immunized populations
What is included in the OMT evaluation for pneumonia?
Upper thoracic vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.
T1-T5 to address sympathetics to the lungs.
OA junction to address parasympathetics
Accessory muscles of respiration
Throracic diaphragm: phrenic nerve C3-5 from cervical plexus
Chapman's reflexes for lungs, sinuses
Cranial sacral mechanism, SBS compression
What is the leading cause of childhood ER visits, hospital admissions, and school absenteeism?
Asthma
What is the normal tone of the lungs?
PNS dominant via vagus nerve
What is the OMT evaluation for asthma?
neuromuscular imbalance: a restriction of exhalation phase of respiration (stuck in inhalation), hypertonic accessory muslces of respiration (especially scalenes, SCM, QL, psoas) Flattened diaphragm
Increased lumbar lordosis
T1-12 (esp T1-6) paraspinal tissue texture changes (hypertonic, swollen, tender) restricting rib cage excursion further.
What OMT can you perform on an asthmatic pediatric patient?
Rib raising: start in thoracics T2-T6 include TL jxn
Diaphragm release
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar:
- OA, vagus - decrease parasympathetic hyperactivity
Chapman's reflexes (lungs, sinuses, adrenals)
Lymphatic pump (pedal or thoracic)
Cranial sacral (CV4)
When should the pacifier be discontinued?
by age 2
If the baby had trouble breathing at first, where is the problem?
suggests one or both temporal bones are not working in an integrated fashion - the PRM drives proper breathing in lungs/rib cage
If the baby had difficulty learning to suck, where is the problem?
space exists between the Ant 1/3 and Posterior 2/3 of condylar parts.
Hypoglossal Nerve (XII) passes within this space and can be compressed resulting in trouble suckling
Does your baby spit up or vomit after feeding? Where is the problem?
compression of the vagus nerve at the jugular foramen in the occipital-mastoid suture which is ant and lat to the occ condylar parts.
Decompression of the condylar parts also helps this
Can V spread from long diagonal of the head
Which suture is most often injured in boys?
naso-maxilla suture (left) due to trauma - "my right handed friend hit me"
What does sinus effleurage do?
stimulates trigeminal centers
stroking moves the lymphatic fluid in superficial fascia
When you pull the ears up and out what are you doing?
increasing external rotation
When you pull the ears down and in what are you doing?
increasing internal rotation
What is the 2nd most common reason people present to primary care?
LBP
What is the lifetime incidence of LBP?
80%
What % of workers comp cases are related to LBP?
33%
What age group do most acute cases of LBP occur?
20-50 years
What is the most common cause of LBP?
mechanical, muscle imbalance
What are the alarm symptoms of LBP?
Age >50
Prior cancer hx
unexplained fevers, night sweats, weight loss
pain lasting more than one month often intractable and unrelieved with rest
no improvement following conservative therapy
When doing straight leg raise, how high do you raise the leg?
between 20 and 60 degrees of flexion - because tight hamstrings can give a false positive
What is the most common cause of discogenic LBP?
irritation of a nerve root
Describe the pain in discogenic LBP.
Sensory is often affected first with motor function last
Which is the most common type/location of a herniated nucleus palposus?
posterolateral herniation is the most common overall and L4-L5 is most common vertebral disc
What can you use to treat neuropathic pain that is unresponsive to opioids?
TCA's and Gabapentin
What % of 20-80 yo have bulging or protruding discs on MRI and are asymptomatic?
52%
What % of cauda equina is due to tumor?
50%
Describe the pain of spinal stenosis.
chronically progressive
often B/L and poorly localized
Pain radiates to buttocks, thighs, legs
Worsened with extension (stand/walk)
Improves with flexion (sit/stoop)
Stopping ambulation may not improve sx, unlike vascular claudication
Describe the pain of PVD claudication.
chronically progressive
other risk factors/vascular disease: smoking, DM, hyperlipidemia, FmHx
U/L or B/L, poorly localized
Worse with any LE exertion
Stopping ambulation will improve (like angina)
PE reveals diminished pulses and cap refill w/ cyanotic coole extremities
What is spondylosis?
a degenerative disease of the spinal column, especially one leading to fusion and immobilization of the vertebral bones
What is spondylolysis?
a separation of the pars interarticularis of the vertebral arch
*stress fracture*
What is spondylolysis associated with?
associated with hyperextension injuries. Pain is often worse with extension and compressive loads
How is spondylolysis diagnosed?
oblique view lumbar XR
What is spondylolithesis?
slippage of one vertebral body onto the next
Grades I thru IV
Describe the pain of facet joint syndrome.
pain in the back, in the facet region, with no radiation below the knee.
pain is felt in the morning, upon rising, tending to lessen with physical activity.
Painful motion especially with hyperextension
Normal neurologic exam
What are the major muscles involved in acute and chronic LBP are?
Psoas
Piriformis
QL
Erector Spinae
Gluteal muscles
Abdominal muscles
Hamstrings
How is spondylolisthesis diagnosed?
lateral x-ray
How is spondylolysis diagnosed?
oblique x-ray
What is the Gold standard for diagnosis of herniated disc?
MRI
What is the etiology of an anterior innominate rotation?
tight quads
What is the etiology of a posterior innominate rotation?
tight hamstrings
What is the etiology of a superior pubic shear?
trauma or tight rectus abdominus muscle
What is the etiology of an inferior pubic shear?
trauma or tight adductors
What the S2 axis of the sacrum called?
Respiratory and Craniosacral axis
Describe the motion of the respiratory axis of the sacrum.
Engaged by respiration.
Sacral base moves posterior during inhalation.
Sacral base moves anterior during exhalation.
Describe the motion of the craniosacral axis of the sacrum.
Engaged by respiratory motion on sacrum.
During craniosacral flexion, sacral base counternutates (moves posterior)
During craniosacral extension, sacral base nutates (moves anterior)
What is the middle transverse axis of the sacrum?
postural motion: mostion of the ilia in relation to the sacrum.
During flexion, sacral base moves posterior (sacrotuberous ligaments are taut)
During extension, sacral base moves anterior
For a sacral shear, what does it indicate if the sphinx test is negative/findings improve?
Unilateral flexion
For a sacral shear, what does it indicate if the sphinx test is positive/findings worsen?
unilateral extension
Treatment for sacral flexion or extension includes the pt up on the elbows in the sphinx position?
Unilateral extension
How do you treat a unilateral sacral flexion?
Abduct the affected leg to area of maximum relaxation of the SI joint.
Using the heel of your hand, induce a CEPHALAD and anterior force to the affected ILA as the patient INHALES deeply (this will bring the sacral base up)
How do you treat a unilateral sacral extension?
Abduct the affected leg to area of maximum relaxation of the SI joint.
Have pt come up into sphinx position (flexes sacrum)
Using the heel of your hand, induce a CAUDAD and anterior force to the affected sacral base as the pt EXHALES deeply (this will help to further flex the sacrum)
What is the only thing that changes for the technique of unilateral sacral flexion/extension to bilateral?
abduct BOTH legs to area of maximum relaxation of BOTH SI joints.
Unilateral/Bilateral sacral flexion....GO!
Cephalad and anterior
Pt inhales
pressure on ILAs
Unilateral/Bilateral sacral extension...GO!
Caudad and anterior
Pt exhales
pressure on sacral base
What is the viscerosomatic relfex for morning sickness?
C2, T5-9
What does sacral inhibition help with?
to decrease severity of dysmenorrhea
What does ischial tuberosity spread help with?
urinary incontinence, hemorrhoids, and pelvic pain
What does Thoracolumbar stimulation help with?
to improve the quality of contractions in uterine dystocia or prolonged labor
Where is the percussion applied in Thoracolumbar stimulation?
T12-L2 for 1 minute every 15 minutes as the pt tolerates or until the desired effect is achieved (labor)