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318 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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It causes a non-TB disease in AIDS and a prophylaxis with Azithromycin when CD4+ count is less than 50 cells/mm. |
M. avium intracellulare |
acid fast bacteria |
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What are the symptoms of TB? Name at least two. |
fever, night sweats, weight loss, cough |
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It is caused by M. leprae that affects superficial nerves. |
Hansen Disease/Leprosy |
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The lethal form of leprosy. |
Lepromatous |
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Leprosy has two treatments for its two forms.
What is the DOC for its tuberculoid form and lepromatous form? |
Dapsone and Rifampin for Tuberculoid form; Clofazimine is added for lepromatous form |
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A form of leprosy with little tissue destruction, and has a positive reaction with Lepromin skin test. |
Tuberculoid leprosy |
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A tinea which occurs in inguinal area. |
Tinea cruris |
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The hardest Tinea to treat that can be managed for at least 3 months. It occurs on nails. |
Tinea unguium |
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A Tinea that occurs on hair, nails and skin. |
Trichophyton |
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Dermophytes/Tinea such as Microsporum and Epidermophyton occurs both on skin. What is their difference based on occurrence? |
Microsporum - hair Epidermophyton - skin |
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A Tinea that occurs on head, and scalp that is associated with alopecia. |
T. capitis |
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It has a "Spaghetti and Meatballs" appearance on microscopy and is caused by Malassezia spp. |
T. versicolor |
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Treatment for T. versicolor |
Selenium sulfide |
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Treatment for Rose Gardener's Disease |
Itraconazole or Potassium Iodide |
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A dimorphic fungus that causes sporotrichosis and it exists as a cigar-shapes yeast at 37°C in human body. |
Sporothrix schenckii |
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The only fungus that can form germ tubes. |
Candida albicans |
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Candida albicans have different forms: at 20°C it forms _______ and _______ at 37°C it forms ________ |
20°C = pseudohyphae and budding yeasts 37°C = germ tubes |
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It is a hypersensitivity response to Aspergillus growing in lungs that is associated with asthma and cystic fibrosis. |
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) |
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It is a disc shaped yeast that is originally classified as protozoan. It is diagnosed by bronchoalveolar lavage or lung biopsy. |
Pneumocystis jirovecii |
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It is used as a prophylaxis when CD4+ count drops to less than 20 cells/mm in HIV patients. |
Pneumocystis jirovecii |
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Treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii |
TMP-SMX Pentamidine Dapsone |
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Histoplasmosis has a pathologic feature of a macrophage filled with histoplasma. It is endemic in ______. |
Mississippi and Ohio |
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It is the predisposing factor of Histoplasmosis. |
spelunking - bat or bird dropping |
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Blastomycosis has a broad-based budding of Blastomyces that is endemic in _________. |
Eastern and Central US |
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A systemic mycoses that is endemic in California usually affects _________. |
Filipinos |
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A spherule filled with endospores of coccidioides which is associated with dust exposure. |
Coccidioidomycosis |
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It is endemic in Latin America that has a "Captain's Wheel" formation. |
Para-coccidioidomycosis |
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A disease characterized by bloating, flatulence, foul-smell, and fatty diarrhea. |
Gardiasis |
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A protozoa that causes Giardiasis. |
Giardia lambia |
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A disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica. |
Amebiasis |
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Amebiasis is a disease causes by Entamoeba histolytica is characterized by __________. |
bloody diarrhea liver abscess flaske-shaped ulcer anchovy paste |
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It causes severe diarrhea in AIDS. |
Cryptosporidium |
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A donut shaped protozoa in acid-fast staining. It can be prevented by filtering water supplies. |
Cryptosporidium |
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A free living amoeba that can be transmitted in warm freshwater. It can be treated with Amphotericin B. |
Naegleria fowleri |
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It can cause rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis. |
Naegleria fowleri |
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Trypanosoma brucei can be treated by _______ for blood-borne disease and _______ for CNS penetration. |
blood - Suramin CNS - Melarsoprol |
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A protozoa that has a transmission through a painful bite of a Tsetse fly. |
Trypanosoma brucei |
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Congenital toxoplasmosis has a classic triad of: 1. chorioretinitis 2. _______________ 3. _______________ |
hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications |
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A benign plasmodium with a 48hr cycle. It is in dormant form (hypnozoite) in liver. |
P. vivaxlovale |
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A malignant plasmodium that can cause cerebral malaria. |
P. falciparum |
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A plasmodium that has a 72hr cycle of: cold stage —> fever —> sweating |
P. malariae |
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Transmission of Plasmodium is through ________. |
Anopheles mosquitos |
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Transmission of Babesia is through _______. |
Ixodes tick |
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It has a diagnosis of "Maltese cross". |
Babesia |
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It causes Chagas disease. |
Trypanosoma cruzi |
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A disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi that is characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy that predominates in South America. |
Chagas disease |
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Transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi is through ________. |
Triatomine insect/kissing bug |
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Visceral leishmaniasis is characterized by spiking fever, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia caused by what kind of leishmania spp? |
L. donovani |
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Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by skin ulcers that is caused by what kind of leishmania? |
L. brazillensis |
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Treatment for Trypanosoma cruzi |
Benznidazoles |
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Treatment for Leishmania spp. |
Na stibogluconate Amphotericin B |
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Vaginitis is characterized by foul smelling, greenish discharge, itching, and burning. What organism is responsible for this? |
Trichomonas vaginalis |
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A type of helminth that is almost treated with Bendazoles except Strongyloides stercoralis |
Nematodes/Roundworms |
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Treatment for Strongyloides stercoralis. |
Ivermectin |
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It is transmitted by fecal-oral route which can cause anal pruritus. |
Enterobius vermicularis |
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A type of nematode that is most common in the Philippines that causes ileococal obstruction, intestinal perforation which migrates from nose/mouth. |
Ascaris lumbricoides |
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It is transmitted by a larvae that can penetrate the skin which causes microcytic anemia. |
Ancylostoma spp. |
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It is transmitted through undercooked meat that causes Trichinosis which is characterized by periorbital edema and myalgia. |
Trichinella spiralis |
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It is often asymptomatic and causes rectal prolapse in children. |
Trichuris trichuria |
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It is transmitted by a female black fly and treated by Ivermectin. "black skin nodules, black sight" |
Onchocerca volvulus |
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A worm in conjunctiva transmitted by Deer, Horse, and Mango fly. |
Loa loa |
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It is common in abaca workers transmitted by female mosquito that invades the lymph nodes. |
Wuchereria bancrofti |
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2 nematode (tissue) treated with Diethylcarbamazine. |
Loa loa and Wuchereria bancrofti |
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Intermediate host of Schistosoma |
snails |
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A type of Schistosoma that can cause liver and spleen enlargement. |
S. mansoni |
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The chronic infection of S. haematobium can lead to _______. |
squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder |
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Trematodes are treated with ________. |
Praziquantel |
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An organism transmitted in undercooked fish that can cause biliary tract inflammation. |
Clonorchis sinensis |
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Tinea solium transmitted by ingestion of larvae in undercooked pork caused what disease? |
Intestinal tapeworm |
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Tinea solium transmitted by ingestion of egg in food contaminated with human feces can cause what disease? |
cysticercosis |
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A cestode that can cause Vit b12 deficiency that it is transmitted by ingestion of larvae in raw freshwater fish. |
Diphyllobothrium latum |
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A disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus. It is also known as "egg shell calcification". |
Hydatid cysts |
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It transmitted by ingesting of eggs in food contaminated with dog feces. |
Echinococcus granulosus |
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A cestode that is treated with Albendazole and its immediate hosts are sheep. |
Echinococcus granulosus |
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T or F Retrovirus cannot replicate in the cytoplasm. |
True. All RNA viruses can replicate in the cytoplasm except Retrovirus and Influenza virus. |
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Why are pox virus not replicated in the nucleus? |
It is the largest DNA virus so it cannot enter the nucleus. |
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A DNA virus that is most commonly latent in trigeminal ganglia Transmission: secretion, saliva Significance: temporal lobe encephalitis |
Herpes simplex virus-1 |
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A DNA virus latent in sacral ganglia. It can cause herpes genitalis and neonatal herpes. |
Herpes simplex virus-2 |
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A DNA virus latent in dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia. |
Varicella-Zoster virus (HHV-3) |
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The most common complication in shingles. |
post-herpetic neuralgia |
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Mononucleosis is caused by what DNA virus? |
Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4) |
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The use of Amoxicillin in mononucleosis can cause ________. |
characteristic maculopapular rash |
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Epstein-Barr virus can cause __________ which is characterized by fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis. It is advised to avoid contact sports. |
Mononucleosis |
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Enumerate the Naked DNA Virus |
Papillomavirus Adenovirus Parvovirus Polymavirus |
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Enumerate the Naked RNA Virus |
Calicivirus Picornavirus Reovirus Hepevirus |
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It has a characteristic of "owl eye" intranuclear inclusions and is latent in mononuclear cells. |
Cytomegalovirus |
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A type of DNA virus that can cause high fevers for several days that can lead to seizures. |
Roseola infantum (exanthem subitum) - HHV6&7 |
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It is often seen in HIV/AIDS and transplant patients. |
Kaposi sarcoma - HHV-8 |
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It is the largest DNA virus |
Poxvirus |
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T or F Poxvirus has no envelope. |
F. Poxvirus, Herpevirus, Hepadnavirus has an envelope. DNA viruses without envelopes are Adenovirus, Papillomavirus, Polymavirus, Parvovirus. |
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Smallpox was eradicated worldwide by the use of ________. |
live-attenuated vaccine |
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A flesh-colored papule with central umbilication. |
Molluscum contagiosum |
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Its medical importance includes: Febrile pharyngitis Conjunctivitis Mycocarditis |
Adenovirus |
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Its medical importance includes: HPv-warts (serotypes 1,2,6,11) Cervical cancer (commonly 16,18) |
Papillomavirus |
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Medical importance of Polymavirus: _________ - progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy _________ - transplant patient, commonly targets the kidney |
JC virus BK virus |
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Aplastic crises in sickle cell disease, "slapped cheek" rash in children. |
B19 virus |
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DNA virus that is partially DS and circular. |
Hepadnavirus |
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DNA virus with DS and circular structure. |
Papillomavirus, Polymavirus |
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A reovirus that can cause fatal diarrhea in children. |
Rotavirus |
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aka. Colorado tick fever |
Coltivirus |
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A Picornavirus also known as hand, foot, and mouth disease. |
Coxsackievirus |
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The name the 5 medically important Picornavirus. |
Poliovirus Echovirus Rhinovirus Coxsackievirus HAV |
PERCH |
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A Picornavirus known as the "common cold". |
Rhinovirus |
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A calicivirus that is common in older children. It causes viral gastroenteritis and is also known as "Norwalk virus". |
Norovirus |
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What is known as the "Toga CREW"? |
Chikungunya virus Rubella Eastern and Western equine encephalitis |
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Enumerate at least 3 medically important Flavivirus |
HCV Yellow fever Dengue St. Louie encephalitis West Nile virus Zika virus |
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A Paramyxovirus that causes bronchiolitis in babies. |
RSV - Respiratory Syncytial Virus |
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A Paramyxovirus that causes croup especially in babies. |
Parainfluenza |
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An RNA virus that causes influenza virus. |
Orthomyxovirus |
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An RNA virus that causes rabies. |
Rhabdoviruses |
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An RNA virus that causes Ebola/Marbug hemorrhagic fever that can often be fatal. |
Filovirus |
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An RNA virus that have reverse transcriptase that can cause T-cell leukemia (HLTV) and AIDS. |
Retrovirus |
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An Arenavirus can cause ________ that is spread by rodents. |
Lassa fever encephalitis |
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It is a defective virus that needs presence of HBV to replicate. |
HDV |
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The only DNA hepatitis virus. |
HBV - DNA Hepadnavirus |
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Enumerate the two Hepatitis virus that is transmitted through fecal-oral route. |
HAV - RNA Picornavirus HEV - RNA Hepevirus |
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It is transmitted primarily by blood (IVDU) and may progress to Cirrhosis or Carcinoma. |
HCV - RNA Flavivirus |
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A hepatitis virus that has a short incubation time that can cause fulminant hepatitis and has a high mortality in pregnant women. |
HEV - RNA Hepevirus |
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A hepatitis virus that has superinfection (HDV after HBV) = short coinfection (HDV with HBV) = long. |
HDV - RNA deltavirus |
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A hepatitis virus that has a carrier state. |
HBV - DNA Hepadnavirus HCV - RNA Flavivirus |
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A torch infection that manifests as "blueberry muffin" rash. |
Toxoplasma gondii Cytomegalovirus |
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What is the classic triad experienced when you have Rubella? |
eye - cataracts ear - deafness heart - congenital heart disease |
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A torch infection that can cause periventricular calcifications. |
Cytomegalovirus |
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Enumerate the torch infections that can be transmitted through sexual contact. |
Cytomegalovirus HIV Syphilis |
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The classic triad experienced in Toxoplasma gondii. |
Chorioretinitis Hydrocephalus Intracranial calcifications |
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A torch infection that often results in stillbirth. |
Syphilis |
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A torch infection that manifests as recurrent infection, accompanied with chronic diarrhea. |
HIV |
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A torch infection that can cause Meningoencephalitis and herpetic lesions. |
Herpes simplex virus-2 |
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In gram staining, A ______ intensifies the color of the stain. |
mordant |
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Mordant used in gram staining |
Iodine |
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color of gram(+) bacteria in gram staining |
blue-violet/blue |
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color of gram(-) bacteria in gram staining |
pinkish-red |
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It is used to differentiate the stains in gram staining. |
decolorizer |
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A part of gram(-) cells that can cause a disorganized immune response(septic shock). |
LPS - lipopolysaccharide |
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A type of cells that are vulnerable to lysosome and penicillin attack. |
gram(+) cells |
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A type of cell that has no endotoxin, periplasmic space and porin channel. |
gram(+) cells |
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The only spirochete that can be stained on gram staining because of its size. |
Borrelia |
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What is the reason why Treponema and Leptospira cannot be gram-stained? |
too thin |
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A bacteria that cannot be gram-stained because it has high lipid content on its cell wall. |
Mycobateria |
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Treponema and Leptospira can be detected using __________. |
Darkfield microscopy |
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Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma can be detected by ___________. |
Serology |
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A bacteria that lacks classic peptidoglycan because of muramic acid. |
Chlamydia |
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Enumerate the gram(+) circular/cocci bacteria |
Staphylococcus Streptococcus Enterococcus |
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Enumerate the gram(+) rod/bacilli bacteria |
Bacillus Corynebacterium Listeria Clostridium
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What is an example of gram(-) circular/cocci bacteria? |
Neisseria Moraxella |
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Enumerate the gram(-) spiral bacteria |
Spirochetes - Treponema - Borrelia - Leptospira
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Enumerate the gram(+) branching bacteria |
Nocardia Actinomyces |
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Enumerate the gram(-) pleomorphic bacteria |
Chlamydia Rickettsia
- both are also called obligate intracellular organisms |
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Bacterial Structures
_________ - motility _________ - adheres to cell surfaces _________ - for survival; resist heat, chemicals, and dehydration |
Flagellum Pilus/Fimbriae Spore |
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The core of a spore contains _______. |
Dipicolinic acid |
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Spores are killed by autoclaving at what temperature? |
121°C for 15 minutes |
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Cell Envelope Structures It is the site of oxidative and transport enzymes. |
Cytoplasmic membrane |
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Cell Envelope Structure A rigid polysaccharide that protects against phagocytosis. |
Capsule |
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Cell Envelope Structure A loose polysaccharide that mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces. |
Slime layer |
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Cell Envelope Structure A bet-like structure that gives rigid support against osmotic pressure damage. |
Cell wall |
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Bacterial staining _______ - acid-fast bacteria _______ - Cryptococcus neoformans |
Ziehl-Nelseen stain India Ink stain |
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Bacterial staining Tannic acid salt tx - __________ Welch method - ___________ |
Flagella Capsule |
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Bacterial staining Feulgen stain - ________ Malachite green - _________ Periodic acid-schiff stain - _______ |
Nucleoid Spore Glycogen |
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Media used for isolation of H. influenzae |
chocolate agar |
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It is isolated in eaton agar and it requires cholesterol. |
M. pneumoniae |
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B. pertussis is isolated in ______ and _______. |
Bordet-Gengou agar Regan-Lowe medium |
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It is isolated using MacConkey agar and the fermentation produces acids causing the colonies to turn pink. |
Lactose-fermenting enterics |
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It is isolated using Eosin-methylene blue agar and have a colonies with green metallic sheen. |
E.coli |
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It is isolated in charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and iron. |
Brucella, Francisella, Legionella, Pasteurella |
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A fungi is isolated in ________. |
Sabouraud agar |
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T or F Are exotoxins located in bacterial chromosome? |
F. Exotoxins are located in a plasmid or bacteriophage while endotoxins are located in bacterial chromosome. |
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T or F Exotoxins are sourced from certain species of gram(+) and gram(-) bacteria. |
True. Exotoxins - gram(+) and gram(-) Endotoxins - gram(-) |
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A toxin that is destroyed rapidly at 60°C. |
Exotoxins |
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A toxin that has a high adverse effect (ex. botulism). |
Exotoxins |
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A toxin that is stable at 100°C for 1hr. |
Endotoxins |
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Enumerate the typical diseases caused by Exotoxins. |
Botulism, diphtheria, cholera, tetanus |
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Enumerate the typical disease caused by endotoxins. |
Meningococcemia, sepsis |
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What are the two causes of S. aureus? |
Inflammatory and Toxin-mediated diseases |
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Predisposing factor of S. aureus |
Vaginal tampons or nasal packing |
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Treatment for community-acquired infections |
Clindamycin |
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Treatment for hospital-acquired infections |
Vancomycin |
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S. aureus that cause skin infections, organ abscess, pneumonia, acute endocarditis
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Inflammatory disease |
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S. aureus toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, and rapid-onset food poisoning |
Toxin-mediated disease |
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It is used to differentiate Streptococcus and Staphylococcus |
Catalase test |
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An important cause of serious nosocomial and community-acquired infection due to altered penicillin-binding protein |
MRSA (methicillin-resistant S. aureus) |
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A staphylococcus that is Novobiocin sensitive and does not ferment mannitol. It infects prosthetic devices and IV catheters by producing adherent biofilms. |
S. epidermidis |
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A staphylococcus that is Novobiocin resistant and it is the second most cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women (1st - E.coli). |
S. saprophyticus |
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Enumerate the alpha-hemolytic streptococcus |
S. pneumoniae Viridans |
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Streptococcus pneumoniae commonly causes:
1. 2. 3. 4. |
Meningitis Otitis media Pneumonia Sinusitis
MOPS |
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T or F Is S. viridans optochin sensitive and bile soluble? |
F S. Viridans - optochin resistant and bile insoluble S. pneumoniae - optochin sensitive and bile soluble |
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A streptococcus that is gram(+), alpha-hemolytic, lancet shaped diplococci, encapsulated, IgA protease. |
S. pneumoniae |
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A Viridans group that causes dental caries. |
S. mutans and S. mitis |
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A Viridans group that causes subacute bacterial endocarditis. |
S. sanguinis |
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Where does Viridans group live? |
mouth |
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It is also known as Group A streptococci. |
S. pyogenes |
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It is also known as Group B streptococci. |
S. agalactiae |
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Group A streptococcus can cause: 1. 2. 3. |
Pyogenic Toxigenic Immunologic |
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A blanching, sand-paper-like body rash, strawberry tongue, and circumoral pallor in the setting of group A streproccocal pharyngitis. |
Scarlet fever |
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A streptococcus that can give rise to rheumatic fever. |
S. pyogenes |
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A streptococcus that mainly occurs in babies. |
S. agalactiae |
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Enumerate the y-hemolytic Streptococcus. |
S. bovis Enterococci |
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A type of S. bovis that can cause bacteremia and is associated with colon cancer. |
S. gallolyticus (S. bovis biotype 1) |
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An important cause of nosocomial infection. |
VRE (vancomycin-resistant enterococci) |
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A type of Streptococcus that are normal colonic flora that are penicillin G resistant. |
Enterococci |
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T or F Streptococci are more resilient than Enterococci. |
F. Enterococci are more resilient as it can grown in 6.5% NaCl and bile lab test. |
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A spore-forming rod that produces anthrax toxin and has a polypeptide capsule. It is refered to as "medusa head". |
Bacillus anthracis |
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An ulcer with black eschar that uncommonly progresses to bacteremia and death. |
Cutaneous anthrax |
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A potential bioweapon that can cause pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis, and shock. It is also known as woolsorter's disease. |
Pulmonary anthrax |
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It is known as the reheated rice syndrome that can be managed by supportive care (antibiotics are ineffective against toxins). |
Bacillus cereus |
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Enumerate the Bacilli that are spore-forming and aerobic. |
Bacillus anthracis Cutaneous anthrax Pulmonary anthrax Bacillus cereus |
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A bacilli that produces tetanospasmin that blocks release of GABA and glycine. It can cause spastic paralysis. |
Clostridium tetani |
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Predisposing factor of Clostridium botulinum |
Canned goods |
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Symptoms of Botulism |
Diplopia Dysarthria Dysphagia Dyspnea |
4Ds |
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Clostridium botulinum can cause botulism in adults by ________ and in babies by _______. |
Adults - ingestion of preformed toxins Babies - ingestion of spores |
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It produces alpha toxin that can cause gas gangrene. |
Clostridium perfringens |
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Complications associates with Clostridioides difficile. |
Toxic megacolon |
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It can cause pseudomembranous colitis that are often secondary to antibiotic use especially clindamycin or ampicillin. |
Clostridioides difficile |
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Enumerate the Bacilli that are spore-forming and anaerobic |
Clostridium tetani Clostridium botulinum Clostridium perfringens Clostridioides difficile |
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Enumerate Bacilli that are nonspore-forming and aerobic |
Listeria monocytogenes Corynebacterium diptheriae |
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A bacilli that has a tumbling motility characteristic in a broth and acquired by ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products. |
Listeria monocytogenes |
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Enumarate at least 2 disease associated with Listeria monocytogenes |
Amnionitis Septicemia Spontaneous abortion Granulomatosis infantiseptica Meningitis (immunocompromised) Self-limited gastroenteritis (healthy individuals) |
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Treatment for Listeria monocytogenes |
Ampicillin |
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A gram(+) rods occuring in angular arrangements that have symptom that includes pseudomembranous pharyngitis. |
Corynebacterium diptheriae |
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Toxin dissemination of _________ may cause mycocarditis, arrhythmias, and neuropathics. |
Corynebacterium diptheriae |
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Corynebacterium diptheriae are black colonies on ___________. |
cystine-tellurite agar |
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T or F Nocardia are found in soil while Actinomyces are found in normal oral, reproductive, and GI flora. |
T |
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A type of branching filament that forms yellow sulfur granules. |
Actinomyces |
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T or F Nocardia is treated with Ampicillin. |
F Nocardia - TMP-SMX Actinomyces - Penicillin |
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A branching filament that can mimic TB. |
Nocardia |
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Actinomyces are anaerobic and not acid-fast. |
T Nocardia - aerobe, acid-fast(weak) |
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Enumerate the branching filaments |
Nocardia Actinomyces |
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A Neisseria that has NO polysaccharide capsule, maltose acid detection, and vaccine due to antigenic variation of pilus proteins. |
Gonococci |
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T or F Meningococci is transmitted sexually or perinatally. |
F Gonococci - sexually or perinatally Meningococci - respiratory, oral secretions |
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T or F Gonococci and Meningococci are treated with Ceftriaxone. |
T |
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Enumerate the four Haemophilus influenzae causes |
Pneumonia Otitis Media Epiglottis Meningitis |
POEM |
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The most infectious clinical stage of Bordetella pertussis |
Catarrhal |
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Three clinical stages of Bordetella pertussis |
Catarrhal Paroxysmal Convalescent |
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A coccobacilli that may be mistaken as viral infection due to lymphocytic infiltrate resulting to immune response and is prevented by Tdap, DTaP vaccines. |
Bordetella pertussis |
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Treatment for Bordetella pertussis |
Macrolides and if allergic, TMP-SMX |
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It is transmitted via ingestion of unpasteurized milk and can cause undulant fever. |
Brucella |
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Treatment for Brucella |
Doxycycline + Rifampin or Streptomycin |
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A commensal opportunist but increasingly associated with resistant hospital-acquired infection. |
Acinetobacter baumannii |
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An S-shaped, gram(-) organism that grows at 42°C and is a major cause of bloody diarrhea. |
Campylobacter jejuni |
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It is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis (ascending flaccid paralysis). |
Campylobacter jejuni |
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It grows in alkaline media that produces profuse rice-water diarrhea and can be transmitted by ingestion of contaminated water or uncooked food like raw shellfish. |
Vibrio cholerae |
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Treatment for Vibrio cholerae |
Oral hydration solution |
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Enumarate the Curved rods |
Campylobacter jejuni Vibrio cholerae Helicobacter pylori |
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A gram(-) rod that is triple (+): catalase, oxidase and urease that can cause gastritis and peptic ulcers |
Helicobacter pylori |
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Treatment for H. pylori |
Triple therapy Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin + Proton Pump Inhibitor |
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E coli virulence factors Fimbriae - __________ Capsule - ___________ LPS endotoxin - ________ |
1. cystitis and pyelonephritis 2. pneumonia, neonatal meningitis 3. septic shock |
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An E.coli that has a similar manifestation with Shigella. The microbes invades intestinal mucosa and causes inflammation and necrosis. |
Enteroinvasive E. coli |
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An E. coli that produces heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins. It does not cause inflammation or invasion. |
Enterotoxigenic E. coli |
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An E. coli that usually causes diarrhea in children as it adheres to apical surfaces flattens villi, thus, preventing absorption. |
Enteropathogenic E. coli |
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The most common serotype in US that is transmitted via undercooked meat, raw leafy vegetables. |
O157:H7 |
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Enumarate the triad of hemolytic-uremic syndrome |
Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney failure |
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An E.coli that does not ferment sorbitol. |
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli |
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ABCDE's of Klebsiella |
Aspiration pneumonia aBscess in lung and liver Currant jelly sputum Diabetes EtOH abuse |
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A dark red currant jelly sputum that causes lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetes and is associated with evolution of mutlidrug resistance. |
Klebsiella |
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Enumerate the lactose fermenter Bacilli |
E. coli Klebsiella |
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A nom lactose fermenting bacilli that is usually found in water and has a grape fruit-like odor. |
P. aeruginosa |
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It is rapidly progressive necrotic cutaneous lesion caused by P. bacteremia, typically seen in immunocompromised patients. |
Ecthyma gangrenosum |
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Treatment for P. aeruginosa |
Carbapenems Aminoglycosides Monobactams Polymyxins Fluoroquinolones thIRd and fourth gen cephalosporins Extended-spectrum penicillins |
CAMPFIRE |
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Enumarate the infections/diseases associated with Pseudomonas |
Pneumonia Sepsis Ecthyma gangrenosum UTI Diabetes Osteomyelitis Mucoid polysaccharide capsule Otitis externa (swimmer's ear) Nosocomal infections Addicts Skin infections (hot tub folliculitis) |
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T or F The reservoirs of Salmonella typhi and Shigella are humans. |
T. Only Salmonella spp (except typhi) have human and animal reservoir |
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Y or N Does Shigella produce H2S? |
N Salmonella typhi and Salmonella spp (except typhi) produces H2S |
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Salmonella vs Shigella
It does not have a flagellum. |
Shigella Salmonella can swim 👹 |
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Salmon vs Shigella In terms of injection dose, it has a very small inoculum required and resistant to gastric acid |
Shigella |
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Salmonella vs Shigella It has a prolonged effect of antibiotics on fecal excretion. |
Salmonella |
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Salmonella vs Shigella It does not have a vaccine. |
Salmonella spp except typhi amd Shigella S. typhi requires oral vaccines |
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Unique properties of Salmonella and Shigella It causes typhoid fever that can be treated with Ceftriaxone. It is also a carrier state with gallbladder colonization. |
Salmonella typhi |
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Unique properties of Salmonella and Shigella It can cause gastroenteritis. |
Salmonella spp except typhi |
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4F's of Shigella |
Fingers Flies Food Feces |
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A disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi which is transmitted by Ixodes deer tick. |
Lyme disease |
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Treatment for lyme disease |
Doxycycline |
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Manifestation of Lyme disease |
Facial nerve palsy Arthritis Cardiac block Erythema migrans |
FACE |
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Erythema migrans is a lyme disease manifestation at what stage? |
Stage 1 |
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Facial nerve palsy is a lyme disease manifestation at what stage |
Stage 2 |
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Encephalopathy is a lyme disease manifestation at what stage? |
Stage 3 |
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What is the natural reservoir of Borrelia burgdorferi? |
Mouse |
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A spirochete with hook-shaped ends found in water contaminated with animal urine. |
Leptospira interrogans |
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A disease caused by Leptospira interrogans that have flu-like symptoms, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion, common in surfers and tropics. |
Leptospirosis |
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A disease caused by Leptospira interrogans that is a severe form with jaundice and azotemia from lover and kidney dysfunction, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia. |
Weil disease |
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Causative agent of syphilis |
Treponema pallidum |
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Treatment for syphilis |
Penicillin G |
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A type of syphilis with localized disease presenting with painless chancre. |
Primary |
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A type of syphilis that is a disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash. |
Secondary |
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A type of syphilis that is often called prostitute's pupil as it accommodates but never reacts. A gummas that can cause neurosyphilis and stroke without hypertension. |
Tertiary |
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A syphilis that presents with facial abnormalities. |
Congenital |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Anaplasmosis |
CA - Anaplasma spp T/S - Ixodes tick |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Cat scratch disease |
CA - Bartonella spp T/S - Cat scratch |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Lyme disease |
CA - Borrelia Burgdorferi T/S - Ixodes tick |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Relapsing fever |
CA - Borrelia recurrentis T/S - Louse |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Brucellosis/Undulant fever |
CA - Brucella spp T/S - Unpasteurized dairy |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Blood diarrhea |
CA - Campylobacter T/S - feces from infected pets/animals; contaminated food/hands |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Psittacosis |
CA - Chlamydophila psittaci T/S - Parrots |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Q fever |
CA - Coxiella burnetii T/S - Aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Ehrlichiosis |
CA - Ehrlichia chaffeensis T/S - Ambylomma (Lobe star tick) |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Tularemia |
CA - Francisella tularensis T/S - tick, rabbit, deer flies |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Leptospirosis |
CA - Leptospira spp T/S - animal urine in water |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Leprosy |
CA - Mycobacterium leprae T/S - humans with lepromatous leprosy, armadillo |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Cellulitis and Osteomyelitis |
CA - Pasteurella multocida T/S - animal bites, cats, dogs |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Epidemic typhus |
CA - Rickettsia prowazekii T/S - human to human via human body louse |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Rocky mountain spotted fever |
CA - Rickettsia rickettsii T/S - dog ticks (dermacentor) |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Endemic typhus |
CA - Rickettsii typhi T/S - fleas |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Diarrhea, Vomiting, Fever, Abdominal cramps |
CA - Salmonella except typhi T/S - reptiles and poultry |
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Causative agent and Transmission/Source of Plague |
CA - Yersinia pestis T/S - Fleas |
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A screening for nontreponemal syphilis |
RPR VDRL |
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A confirmatory treponemal test for syphilis |
FTA-ABS TPPA |
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A declaration that states that health is a human right and it should be made available for everyone. |
Declaration pf Alma Mata (1978) |
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A level f disease that even one case can cause a concern in the specific area. An example is Huntington's disease in the Philippines. |
Sporadic |
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A level of disease thay refers to persistent, high levels of disease occurrence. |
Hyperendemic |
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Three core functions of Public Health |
Assessment Policy Development Assurance |
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A level of disease that refers to the constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease in a population within a geographic area. |
Endemic |
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A level of disease that refers to an increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is expected in an area. |
Epidemic |
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A level of disease that carries the same definition of epidemic but is often used for a more limited geographic area. |
Outbreak |
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A level of disease that refers to an aggregation of cases grouped in place and time that are suspected to be greater than the number expected. |
Cluster |
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A level of disease that refers to an epidemic that has spread over several countries. |
Pandemic |
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T or F An epidemiologic triad does not work on non-infectious disease. |
T Common causes and Casual pies works for non-infectious disease. |
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A type of pie that is proposed by Rothman in 1976 that assigns the individual factors that causes a disease in a pie, and after the pie is completed — the disease is predicted. |
Rothman Casual Pie |
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T or F A disease and other health events occurs randomly in a population. |
F |
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It is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related state in a specified population, and the application of this study to control health problems. |
Epidemiology |
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It is a result of medical condition that directly affects the length or quality of a person's life. |
Health outcome |
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It is a factor that contributes to the generation of a trait. |
Determinants |
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