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269 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Meningococcal meningitis is caused by _______________ ________________.
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1. Meningococcal meningitis is caused by Neisseria meningitidis.
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2. Meningococcal meningitis is diagnosed by _______________________
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2. Meningococcal meningitis is diagnosed by Spinal Tap.
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3. Clinical meningococcal disease can be arbitrarily classified into what 3 general forms?
a. __________________________________________________ b. __________________________________________________ c. __________________________________________________ |
3. Clinical meningococcal disease can be arbitrarily classified into what 3 general forms?
a. Uncomplicated bacteremic process. b. A metastatic infection that commonly involves the meninges c. An overwhelming systemic infection with circulatory collapse and evidence of dissemated intravascular coagulation (DIC) |
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4. Causes the formation of inappropriate clots taking up all of the clotting factors in the blood and leads to hemorrhages.
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4. Causes the formation of inappropriate clots taking up all of the clotting factors in the blood and leads to hemorrhages.
DIC |
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5. Most cases of meningococcal meningitis occur in ______________.
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5. Most cases of meningococcal meningitis occur in children.
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6. Meningococcal meningitis is the _____________________ cause of bacterial meningitis in children and the _______________________________ cause of bacterial meningitis in adults.
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6. Meningococcal meningitis is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children and the 2nd most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults.
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7. Risk factors for meningococcal meningitis include recent __________________________________________________________________________________________________________.
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7. Risk factors for meningococcal meningitis include recent exposure to meningococcal meningitis and a recent upper respiratory infection.
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8. _____________________ meningitis has been prevalent in preschool children.
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8. Haemophilus meningitis has been prevalent in preschool children.
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9. Haemophilus meningitis is caused by ____________________
a. Treated with ______________ b. Immunized with ________________________. |
9. Haemophilus meningitis is caused by Haemophilus influenzae
a. Treated with antibiotic. b. Immunized with acellular components. |
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10. A bacterial meningitis infection has a clinical manifestation of a ___________ fever and viral meningitis as a ________ fever.
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10. A bacterial meningitis infection has a clinical manifestation of a high fever and viral meningitis as a low fever.
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11. The decline in the amount of incidence of maemophilus meningitis is a result of _____________
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11. The decline in the amount of incidence of maemophilus meningitis is a result of Tetramune 4 in 1 vaccine
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12. DTap contains what?
a. ________________ b. ________________ c. ________________ |
12. DTap contains what?
a. Diptheria b. Tetanus c. Acellular pertussis |
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13. Tuberculosis is caused by ___________________ __________________
a. Diagnosed by __________________________ b. Early detections by _______________________ c. Treated with ________________________ d. Immunization with ____________________________. e. MDR = ___________________________________ |
13. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. Diagnosed by acid-fast testing b. Early detections by TB test c. Treated with Antibiotics, MDR-TB antimicrobial therapy 6 – 9 months d. Immunization with BCG. e. MDR = Multi-drug resistant TB |
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14. ________ of the population worldwide is infected with TB.
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14. 1/3 of the population worldwide is infected with TB.
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15. TB is the greatest cause of death in ______________________________.
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15. TB is the greatest cause of death in women of reproductive age.
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16. Pneumonia is caused by _____________ ________________ .
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16. Pneumonia is caused by Pneumococcal pneumonia.
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17. Typical versus atypical, which is usually more severe?
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17. Typical versus atypical, which is usually more severe? Typical
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18. ____________________ - is the inflammation of the alveoli in the lung and abnormal alveolar filling with fluid.
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18. Pneumonia - is the inflammation of the alveoli in the lung and abnormal alveolar filling with fluid.
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19. ___________________ is common in young children.
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19. Haemophilus influenzae is common in young children.
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20. ___________________ is common in the elderly.
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20. Streptococcus pneumoniae is common in the elderly.
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21. ___________________ is acquired from a health care environment.
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21. Klebsiella pneumonia is acquired from a health care environment.
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22. Pneumococcal pneumonia is considered community acquired.
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22. Pneumococcal pneumonia is considered community acquired.
True |
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23. ________________ ___________________ is the most common bacterial cause of pneumonia in all age groups except newborn infants.
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23. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common bacterial cause of pneumonia in all age groups except newborn infants.
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24. _____________________ is gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic, bile soluble aerotolerant anaerobe.
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24. Pneumococcus is gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic, bile soluble aerotolerant anaerobe.
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25. ________________ is a heptavalent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and is recommended since 2000 for all children.
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25. Prevenar is a heptavalent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and is recommended since 2000 for all children.
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26. _________________- means it can react against 7 different strains of streptococcal pneumonia.
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26. heptavalent- means it can react against 7 different strains of streptococcal
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27. ______________ _________________- is a pleomorphic organism that lacks a cell wall.
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27. Mycoplasma pneumoniae- is a pleomorphic organism that lacks a cell wall.
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28. Mycoplasma pneumonia causes ___________________________.
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28. Mycoplasma pneumonia causes walking pneumonia.
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29. Mycoplasma pneumonia has two properties that seem to correlate well with its pathogenicity in humans:
a. ______________________________________________________________ b. ______________________________________________________________ |
29. Mycoplasma pneumonia has two properties that seem to correlate well with its pathogenicity in humans:
a. Selective affinity for respiratory epithelial cells b. Ability to produce hydrogen peroxide |
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30. ______________________ pneumonia is a hospital acquired infection.
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30. Klebsiella pneumonia is a hospital acquired infection.
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31. __________________________ is a disease that is acquired in a hospital or other health care setting.
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31. Nosocomial is a disease that is acquired in a hospital or other health care setting.
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32. Serratia pneumonia is caused by ________________ _______________ and it is _____ pigmented.
a. Nosocomial infection particularly in the following: ___________________, ________________, _____________________, & ____________________. |
32. Serratia pneumonia is caused by Serratia marcescens and it is red pigmented.
a. Nosocomial infection particularly in the following: catheter associated bacteremia, Urinary tract infection, Pulmonary tract infections, & wound infections. |
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33. Legionnaires disease is caused by _________________ _______________ and has a mortality rate of ___-___ %
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33. Legionnaires disease is caused by Legionella pneumophila and has a mortality rate of 15-20 %
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34. _______________________ is a fastidious aerobic rod.
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34. Legionella pneumophila is a fastidious aerobic rod.
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35. Q fever is a ____________ disease and is caused by ______________- _______________.
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35. Q fever is a zoonotic disease and is caused by Coxiella burnetii.
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36. ____________________ and _______________________ are airborne diseases
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36. Psittacosis and Chlamydial pneumonia are airborne diseases
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37. The three most common human pathogenic Chlamydia are:
a. ______________________ - relationship to psittacine birds (parrot) b. ______________________ - chlamydial pneumonia c. ______________________ - transmits the STD, chlamydia |
37. The three most common human pathogenic Chlamydia are:
a. C. psittaci - relationship to psittacine birds (parrot) b. C. pneumoniae - chlamydial pneumonia c. C. trachomatis - transmits the STD, chlamydia |
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38. If microbes can avoid ______________________- or survive once they are _________________ they can survive in the lung.
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38. If microbes can avoid phagocytosis- or survive once they are phagocytized they can survive in the lung.
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39. Mechanisms used to avoid phagocytosis:
a. ____________________ b. ____________________ c. ____________________ d. ____________________ |
39. Mechanisms used to avoid phagocytosis:
a. Capsule production b. Toxin production c. Replication inside cells d. Mimicry |
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40. Mechanisms used to survive in the phagocyte:
a. ______________________________________________ b. ______________________________________________ c. ______________________________________________ d. ______________________________________________ e. ______________________________________________ |
40. Mechanisms used to survive in the phagocyte:
a. Inhibition of lysosome fusion with the phagosome b. Escape from the phagosome c. Resistance to killing and digestion in the phagolysome d. Growth in the phagocytic cell e. Entry into the phagocyte other than by phagocytosis |
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41. The following avoid phagocytosis by producing capsules:
a. ____________________ b. ____________________ c. ___________________ d. ___________________ e. ___________________ |
41. The following avoid phagocytosis by producing capsules:
a. S. pneumoniae b. H. influenza c. B. anthracis d. N. meningitidis e. K. pneumoniae |
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42. Toxins produced can include:
a. ________________ b. ________________ c. ________________ d. ________________ e. _________________ produces leukocidins and cytotoxins f. _________________ produces exotoxin |
42. Toxins produced can include:
a. cytotoxins b. leukocidins c. exotoxins d. ________________ e. Saureus produces leukocidins and cytotoxins f. P. aeruginosa produces exotoxin. |
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43. Replication inside cells:
a. ____________ and _____________ are obligate intracellular parasites that replicate inside the cells of the lungs avoiding the phagocyte. |
43. Replication inside cells:
a. Viruses and Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites that replicate inside the cells of the lungs avoiding the phagocyte. |
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44. Mimicry:
a. Some ________________ produce surface proteins which are very similar to host proteins or acquire host proteins and appear to the phagocyte as self. b. Some ________________ produce proteins that cause host proteins to bind to their surfaces |
44. Mimicry:
a. Some parasites produce surface proteins which are very similar to host proteins or acquire host proteins and appear to the phagocyte as self. b. Some bacteria produce proteins that cause host proteins to bind to their surfaces |
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45. Examples of inhibition of lysosome fusion with the phagosome: _______________, _____________, _______________
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45. Examples of inhibition of lysosome fusion with the phagosome: Toxoplasma gondii, Aspergillus sp, C. psittaci.
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46. Examples of viruses that escape from the phagosome: ________________, _________________, ____________________________
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46. Examples of viruses that escape from the phagosome: Mycobacterium leprae, Trypanosoma cruzi, Influenza.
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47. Examples of those resistance to killing the digestion in the phagolysosome: _____________________, ____________, _______________
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47. Examples of those resistance to killing the digestion in the phagolysosome: Mycotacterium tuberculosis,Nocardia sp, Yersinia pestis.
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48. Examples of viruses that grow in the phagocytic cell: ______________, ______________________, ____________________
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48. Examples of viruses that grow in the phagocytic cell: M. tuberculosis, Legionella pneumophila, Cytomegelovirus.
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49. Examples of those that enter into the phagocyte other than by phagocytosis:
a. Some avoid destruction by getting into the phagocyte’s ___________. No phagosome-lysosome fusion occurs and the organism can survive the phagocyte. |
49. Examples of those that enter into the phagocyte other than by phagocytosis:
a. Some avoid destruction by getting into the phagocyte’s cytoplasm. No phagosome-lysosome fusion occurs and the organism can survive the phagocyte. |
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50. _____________________ - ingestion of bacterial toxins
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50. Intoxication - ingestion of bacterial toxins
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51. _____________________ - live bacteria are ingested & grow in our body
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51. Infection - live bacteria are ingested & grow in our body
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52. _____________________ - delay between ingestion & symptons (hrs-days: depending on species, & infectious dose)
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52. Incubation period - delay between ingestion & symptons (hrs-days: depending on species, & infectious dose)
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53. Botulism is caused by an exotoxin in improperly _______________.
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53. Botulism is caused by an exotoxin in improperly canned foods.
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54. _____________ _______________ is an obligate anaerobe that causes botulism.
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54. Clostridium botulinum is an obligate anaerobe that causes botulism.
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55. _________________ is the most powerful toxin known.
a. Treatment = ______________________________________ b. Endospores in ____ of all honey, grow in the GI tract and release _____________ c. ______________ anaerobe cannont live in an oxygen environment. |
55. Botulinum is the most powerful toxin known.
a. Treatment = neutralizing antibodies and ventilator. b. Endospores in 10% of all honey, grow in the GI tract and release exotoxin. c. Obligate anaerobe cannot live in an oxygen environment. |
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56. Staphylococcal food poison is caused by and _____________.
a. ________________ ____________________ causes staph food poisoning. b. Incubation period of ______ c. Food as source of food poisoning = _________ rich foods. d. Mode of transmission = _______________________ e. Temp for growth = ____________ f. Diagnosis = ____________________ g. Facultative anaerobe = can make _____ in the absence of _____. |
56. Staphylococcal food poison is caused by an exotoxin.
a. Staphylococcal aureus causes staph food poisoning. b. Incubation period of 1-6 hours c. Food as source of food poisoning = protein rich foods. d. Mode of transmission = sneeze into food e. Temp for growth = 8-45celcius f. Diagnosis = gram-stain g. Facultative anaerobe = can make ATP in the absence of O2. |
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57. Clostridial food poisoning results from an ________________.
a. Caused by _______________ ________________. b. Incubation = ________________ c. ______________ reported cases/year. d. ______________________ are toxins that specifically act on enterocytes and infections can cause gas gangrene. e. _____________ in meat and poultry that may be killed during cooking. |
57. Clostridial food poisoning results from an enterotoxin.
a. Caused by Clostridium perfringens. b. Incubation = 8-24 hours. c. 250,000 reported cases/year. d. Enterotoxins are toxins that specifically act on enterocytes and infections can cause gas gangrene. e. Spores in meat and poultry that may be killed during cooking. |
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58. Typhoid fever involves a ______ infection.
a. Caused by _______________ _______________ _____________ ____________ b. Transmitted by the ______ _____. i. _________ ii. __________ iii. _____________ iv. _____________ v. __________ c. _____________ are inanimate objects that can transmit the bacterium. d. Incubation = __________ e. _____ die if untreated. f. Treatment = g. There are vaccines but not in America. h. ______________ incidence in the US. i. Serotypes = ____________________ and ________________ j. Diagnosis - ________________________________ k. Contracted by _______ and ____________, pet turtles. l. __________________ are vaccinated against this. m. Typhimurium was first discovered in ________________ animals |
58. Typhoid fever involves a blood infection.
a. Caused by Salmonella enterica Serotype Typhi b. Transmitted by the 5 f’s. i. Flies ii. Food iii. Fingers iv. Feces v. Fomites c. Fomites are inanimate objects that can transmit the bacterium. d. Incubation = 5-21 days e. 15% die if untreated. f. Treatment = antibiotics – Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) g. There are vaccines but not in America. h. ______________ incidence in the US. i. Serotypes = S. enterica and S. typhimurium j. Diagnosis – stool exam k. Contracted by poultry and eggs, pet turtles. l. Laying hens are vaccinated against this. m. Typhimurium was first discovered in murine animals |
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59. Shigellosis = bacterial ________________
a. Occurs were sanitary conditions are _____________ b. Caused by ________________- ____________ c. Sources = ________ and _______ i. _______ ii. ____________ iii. _____________- iv. ________ d. Treatment = _______________________ |
59. Shigellosis = bacterial dysentery
a. Occurs were sanitary conditions are lacking b. Caused by Shingella-sonnei c. Sources = food and water i. eggs ii. vegetables iii. shellfish iv. dairy d. Treatment = oral rehydration and antibiotics |
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60. Cholera can involve enormous _______ loss.
a. Caused by __________________ _______________- b. Spread by ____________________________ and contaminated _________/ c. Colonize the intestines and secrete an ___________________. d. Treatment = ____________________ and _______________________ e. Incidence - _________________/year. f. In most severe cases infected patients my die within __________ if medical treatment is not provided. |
60. Cholera can involve enormous fluid loss.
a. Caused by Vibrio cholera. b. Spread by ingestion of raw food and contaminated water. c. Colonize the intestines and secrete an enterotoxin. d. Treatment = tetracycline and oral rehydration. e. Incidence – 100,000/year. f. In most severe cases infected patients my die within 3 hours if medical treatment is not provided. |
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61. E.coli _____________ case various forms of gastroenteritis.
a. Causes = _________________ b. Transmitted - _________ - __________ route. c. Treatment = __________________________ d. Traveler’s diarrhea = _____________________ _________________ aka _____ e. Infantile diarrhea = ______________- ________________ aka ______ f. The strains that we are most concerned about are the _________________ aka ____ and named ______________________ _______________ |
61. E.coli diarrhea cause various forms of gastroenteritis.
a. Causes = E. coli b. Transmitted - oral - fecal route. c. Treatment = rehydration w/ H2O, electrolytes, glucose, & antibiotics. d. Traveler’s diarrhea = enterotoxigenic E. coli aka ETEC e. Infantile diarrhea = Enteropathogenic E. coli aka EPEC f. The strains that we are most concerned about are the Enterohemorhagic aka EHEC and named 0157:H7 |
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62. Peptic ulcer disease can be spread _________________________________
a. Caused by _________________ ____________________ b. ________ of population is infected but only _____ get peptic ulcers. c. Secretes ________ and a _____________ which together kill mucous producing cells in the stomach. d. Treated with _______________ & __________________ e. Detected |
62. Peptic ulcer disease can be spread person to person.
a. Caused by Helicobactor pylori b. 50% of population is infected but only 2% get peptic ulcers. c. Secretes urease and a cytotoxin which together kill mucous producing cells in the stomach. d. Treated with antibiotics & acid blockers e. Detected – urea breath test or endoscopic biopsy and culture. |
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1. Relapsing fever is carried by __________ and ___________.
a. Endemic is caused by ____________________ & _______________________. i. Relapse up to _________________ b. Epidemic is caused by _________________________. i. Relapse up to _________________ |
1. Relapsing fever is carried by ticks and lice.
a. Endemic is caused by Borrelia hermsii & B. taracatae. i. Relapse up to 13 times b. Epidemic is caused by B. recurentis. i. Relapse up to 5 times |
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2. ____________ ______________ causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
a. Transmitted by _________. b. Is parasitic or __________________. c. Incidence is over ___________ in 2004 d. Treatment with ______________. |
2. Rikettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
a. Transmitted by ticks. b. Is parasitic or __________________. c. Incidence is over 1700 in 2004 d. Treatment with Doxycycline or Chlorophenical. |
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3. _____________ _____________ produces epidemic typhus
a. Decimated the __________ populations. b. Hit _____________- soldiers c. Associated with war, famine, & poverty. d. Transmitted by _______ ___________. e. ____ die if untreated f. Treatment with _____________. g. Direction of rash is ____________________________ h. Prolific Killer |
3. Rickettsia prowazekii produces epidemic typhus
a. Decimated the Aztek populations. b. Hit Napoleon’s soldiers c. Associated with war, famine, & poverty. d. Transmitted by lice feces. e. 75% die if untreated f. Treatment with antibiotics. g. Direction of rash is trunk to extremities h. Prolific Killer |
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4. Endemic typhus is caused by _____________ ___________
a. Transmitted by ________ & _________. b. Milder than epidemic typhus. c. Direction of rash is ___________________________. d. Many will recover without antibiotic treatment. e. More prevalent in _____________ US. |
4. Endemic typhus is caused by Rickettsia typhi
a. Transmitted by rat fleas & lice. b. Milder than epidemic typhus. c. Direction of rash is trunk to extremities. d. Many will recover without antibiotic treatment. e. More prevalent in Southwest US. |
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5. Scrub typhus is spread by a __________.
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5. Scrub typhus is spread by a mite.
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6. Rickettsial pox is spread by _______ but is overall benign.
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6. Rickettsial pox is spread by mites but is overall benign.
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7. Trench Fever is caused by ____________- ___________
a. Spread by ________ ______________. b. Can be cultured in a laboratory outside of a host which is not possible with _______________ disease. c. _______________ trench fever afflicts the homeless. |
7. Trench Fever is caused by Bartonella quintana
a. Spread by lice feces. b. Can be cultured in a laboratory outside of a host which is not possible with _______________ disease. c. Urban trench fever afflicts the homeless. |
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8. Ehrlichiosis have two forms:
a. ___________ ___________ b. ___________ ____________ c. Both effect human ___________ d. Transmitted by __________. |
8. Ehrlichiosis have two forms:
a. Ehrlichia chaffeensis b. Ehrlichia phagocytophilia c. Both effect human leukocytes d. Transmitted by ticks. |
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9. _________________ are the first responders to the site of infection.
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9. Leukocytes (neutrophil) are the first responders to the site of infection.
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10. STARI is different from lyme disease because it has not been linked to any __________, ___________, or _______ symptoms
a. May be caused by __________ _____________ |
10. STARI is different from lyme disease because it has not been linked to any arthritic, neurological, or chronic symptoms
a. May be caused by Amblyomma americanum |
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11. The only two Required Immunizations and Vaccines currently required by the International Health Regulations are :
a. _________________ - certain parts of sub-Saharan Africa and South America b. _________________ - Saudi Arabia |
11. The only two Required Immunizations and Vaccines currently required by the International Health Regulations are :
a. Yellow Fever - certain parts of sub-Saharan Africa and South America b. Meningiococcal - Saudi Arabia |
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12. 6 of the top 10 reported cases of infectious diseases in the US are:
a. _______________ b. _______________ c. _______________ d. _______________ e. _______________ f. _______________ |
12. 6 of the top 10 reported cases of infectious diseases in the US are:
a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Salmonellosis d. Syphilis e. Chicken Pox f. AIDS |
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13. Some public health officials believe that for every 1 case of syphilis reported, __ cases go unreported.
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13. Some public health officials believe that for every 1 case of syphilis reported,9 cases go unreported.
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14. Memphis has the highest rate of gonorrhea in the country.
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14. Memphis has the highest rate of gonorrhea in the country.
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15. Syphilis is caused by ______________ _________________
a. Penetrates through break in skin or _________ ___________. b. Incubation is about __ weeks. c. Primary stage is the ____________ at the site of entry. d. Secondary stage may result in a latent phase lasting __ to ___ years. e. Tertiary stage develops in about ___ of cases. f. Congental syphilis i. Infected in __ or ___ month ii. Infected children develop _____________, ____________, and ___________. iii. May be born with Hutchinson’s triad ________, ____________, and _______________. g. ______________________ is the only human infectious disease to have been eradicated. i. Responsible for ____ - _____ million deaths. |
15. Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum
a. Penetrates through break in skin or hair follicle. b. Incubation is about 3 weeks. c. Primary stage is the chancre at the site of entry. d. Secondary stage may result in a latent phase lasting 3 to 30 years. e. Tertiary stage develops in about 40% of cases. f. Congental syphilis i. Infected in 3rd or 4th month ii. Infected children develop skin lesions, poor bone formation, and meningitis. iii. May be born with Hutchinson’s triad deafness, impaired vision, and notched peg-shaped teeth. g. Smallpox is the only human infectious disease to have been eradicated. i. Responsible for 300 - 500 million deaths. |
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16. Known as the clap - ______________
a. Gonorrhea is caused by _______________ ____________ b. Diplococcus c. Causes swelling in ___________ ____________ d. Can also be contracted in the ________ & _______ cavity. e. Treated with _____________. f. Diagnosed with _________________ g. There are some strains that are ___________ resistant. h. Study chart on slide 6 |
16. Known as the clap - Gonorrhea
a. Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Diplococcus c. Causes swelling in lymph glands d. Can also be contracted in the oral & anal cavity. e. Treated with tetracycline. f. Diagnosed with smear microscopic observation g. There are some strains that are ___________ resistant. h. Study chart on slide 6 |
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17. Chlamydial urethritis is caused by ___________________ ______________.
a. Most frequently reported STD & notifiable infectious disease in the US. b. Can be ____________ - does not display symptoms. c. Diagnosed with _______________ d. Treated with ____________. e. Intracellular f. Can cause blindness |
17. Chlamydial urethritis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
a. Most frequently reported STD & notifiable infectious disease in the US. b. Can be asymptomatic - does not display symptoms. c. Diagnosed with fluorescent antibody test of swab d. Treated with Doxycycline or Azithromycin. e. Intracellular f. Can cause blindness |
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18. ________________ - is a general term that refers to infection of the uterus (womb), uterine tubes (tubes that carry eggs from the ovaries to the uterus) and other reproductive organs.
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18. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) - is a general term that refers to infection of the uterus (womb), uterine tubes (tubes that carry eggs from the ovaries to the uterus) and other reproductive organs.
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19. Ureaplasmal urethritis is caused by _____________ _____________-
a. Treated with __________ b. Is part of the normal _________ ________ in both men and women. c. Relatively low pathogenicity. d. There is some argument that this should not be considered an STD |
19. Ureaplasmal urethritis is caused by Ureaplasma urealyticum-
a. Treated with antibiotics b. Is part of the normal genital flora in both men and women. c. Relatively low pathogenicity. d. There is some argument that this should not be considered an STD |
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20. Chancroid is caused by ____________ ______________.
a. Treated with ____________. |
20. Chancroid is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.
a. Treated with antibiotics. |
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21. Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by ___________ ____________
a. Causes a disease of the __________. |
21. Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
a. Causes a disease of the lymphatics. |
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22. Granuloma inguinale is caused by the bacteria _______________ ____________________.
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22. Granuloma inguinale is caused by the bacteria Calymmatobacterium granulomatis.
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23. Leprosy is caused by ________________ _____________
a. Incubation period of __ - __ years. b. Longest doubling time of all known bacteria c. Treated with ________________ d. Contracted by ______________________________. |
23. Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae
a. Incubation period of 3 – 5 years. b. Longest doubling time of all known bacteria c. Treated with MDT d. Contracted by inhaled respiratory droplets. |
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24. Staphylococcal skin diseases have several ______________.
a. Staphylococcal is caused by _______________ _______________ b. Causes __________, ________________, & ___________________ c. _________________________ - red rash followed by diffuse epidermal exfoliation. d. _______________ _________________ - superficial bacterial skin infection most common among pre-school children. e. Produces _______________ toxins. f. Treated with _______________- g. _________________ resistance in some strains of MRSA. |
24. Staphylococcal skin diseases have several manifestations.
a. Staphylococcal is caused by Staphylococcus aureus b. Causes Abcess, boils, & carbuncles c. Scalded skin syndrome - red rash followed by diffuse epidermal exfoliation. d. Impetigo contagiosum - superficial bacterial skin infection most common among pre-school children. e. Produces exfoliative toxins. f. Treated with antibiotics- g. Vancomycin resistance in some strains of MRSA. |
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25. TSS is caused by an ____________
a. Caused by _______________ ________________- and ___________________ ______________. b. Caused by the reaction of the human immune system to _______________ ________________ c. Infection via the ________, ___________, or ____________. d. Which of the two causative bacteria also causes strep throat? |
25. TSS is caused by an exotoxin
a. Caused by Staphylococcus aureus - and Streptococcus pyrogenes. b. Caused by the reaction of the human immune system to bacterial superantigens c. Infection via the skin, vagina, or pharynx. d. Which of the two causative bacteria also causes strep throat? Streptococcus pyrogenes. |
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26. _____________ is a bacterial infection of the eye that can lead to blindness.
a. Leading cause of the world’s preventable ___________ ___________. b. Caused by ________________ __________________. c. Estimated ___ million worldwide are blind and more than ____ million people need treatment. |
26. Trachoma is a bacterial infection of the eye that can lead to blindness.
a. Leading cause of the world’s preventable infectious blindness. b. Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. c. Estimated 6 million worldwide are blind and more than 150 million people need treatment. |
|
|
27. Yaws is spread from person to person by skin to skin contact.
a. Caused by ______________ ____________ b. Also causes what STD? |
27. Yaws is spread from person to person by skin to skin contact.
a. Caused by Treponema pertenue b. Also causes what STD? Syphilis |
|
|
28. Several endogenous bacterial diseases are :
a. ______________ ______________ b. _________________ ________ |
28. Several endogenous bacterial diseases are :
a. Bacteroids infection b. Pseudomembranous colitus |
|
|
29. Pseudomembranous colitis is often caused by _____________ ___________.
|
29. Pseudomembranous colitis is often caused by Clostidium difficile.
|
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|
30. Two fungal like bacterial diseases:
a. __________________ - aka lumpy jaw b. __________________ - soil bacteria i. Caused by ______________ ________________ or _____________ ______________ |
30. Two fungal like bacterial diseases:
a. Actinomycosis - aka lumpy jaw b. Norcardiosis - soil bacteria i. Caused by Norcardia asteroides or Norcardia brasiliensis |
|
|
31. Two animal bite diseases are:
a. ____________ b. ____________ |
31. Two animal bite diseases are:
a. Pasterurellosis b. Cat Scratch disease |
|
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32. Pasterurellosis is caused by _____________ _______.
|
32. Pasterurellosis is caused by Pasturella multocida.
|
|
|
33. Cat scratch fever is caused by ______________ ______________
|
33. Cat scratch fever is caused by Bartonella henselae
|
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34. Bartonella henselae is an _______________ bacteria.
|
34. Bartonella henselae is a proteobacterium bacteria.
|
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35. ______ ____________ arise from bacteria normally found in the mouth.
|
35. Oral diseases arise from bacteria normally found in the mouth.
|
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36. ______________________________________ - biofilm that takes approx. 3 months for the pathogenic type of bacteria to grow back after dental cleaning.
|
36. Development of dental plaque - biofilm that takes approx. 3 months for the pathogenic type of bacteria to grow back after dental cleaning.
|
|
|
37. ______________ ____________ - also known as tooth decay.
a. Caused by _______________ ____________ & ___________. |
37. Dental caries - also known as tooth decay.
a. Caused by Streptococcus mutans & Lactobacillus. |
|
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38. ANUG = ___________ ___________ __________ ____________ aka trench mouth.
|
38. ANUG = Acute Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis aka trench mouth.
|
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39. ANUG is caused by ____________ _________ and ______________., ____________ and ________________.
|
39. ANUG is caused by Prevotella intermedia and Fusobacterium, Borrelia and Treponema.
|
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|
40. Urinary tract infections are more common in ________.
a. Most common cause is ____________ _______ b. Other common causes are ___________ & _____________. c. Infection locations - _________________, ____________, _______, __________ d. Treatment with _________ |
40. Urinary tract infections are more common in Women.
a. Most common cause is E. coli b. Other common causes are Chlamydia & Mycoplasma. c. Infection locations - urethra, bladder, ureter, kidneys d. Treatment with Bactrium, macrodantin, Cipro |
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41. ________________ diseases are acquired in a health care setting.
a. Prevalence in the US – roughly ___ million infections. b. Contribute to ________________ deaths each year. |
41. Nosocomial diseases are acquired in a health care setting.
a. Prevalence in the US – roughly 1.7 million infections. b. Contribute to 99,000 deaths each year. |
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42. There are _______ that are specific for animals.
|
42. There are _______ that are specific for animals and animals
|
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|
43. Viruses were first identified in ________.
|
43. Viruses were first identified in 1892.
|
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44. _______________ was the first record of a human disease being due to a virus and was noted by ___________________.
|
44. Yellow fever was the first record of a human disease being due to a virus and was noted by Walter Reed.
|
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45. Viruses do not grow on nutrient agar plates like bacteria. Instead they can be grown in ____________ _____________ __________.
|
45. Viruses do not grow on nutrient agar plates like bacteria. Instead they can be grown in fertilized chicken eggs.
|
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|
46. The first polio vaccine was developed by _______ ______ and it was a ______ poliovirus.
|
46. The first polio vaccine was developed by Jonas Salk and it was a killed poliovirus.
|
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|
47. The second polio vaccine was an ________ one that was developed by _______ ______ and is an _______________ virus.
|
47. The second polio vaccine was an oral one that was developed by Albert Sabin and is an attenuated virus.
|
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48. _________ causes paralysis and death
|
48. Polio causes paralysis and death
|
|
|
49. Most viruses have _______________ and _________________
|
49. Most viruses have nucleic acid and protein coat
|
|
|
50. More than _____________ viruses have been identified.
|
50. More than 5,000 viruses have been identified.
|
|
|
51. The __________ and _______________ shaped viruses produce surface proteins that they use to attach to a host cell.
|
51. The Helical and Icoschedral shaped viruses produce surface proteins that they use to attach to a host cell.
|
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52. The ___________________ have a tale that has proteins on it that are used to attach to the host cell.
|
52. The Complex have a tale that has proteins on it that are used to attach to the host cell.
|
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|
53. Viruses have to have at least _______ or _____ (nucleic acid) AND a surrounding ___________ _______.
|
53. Viruses have to have at least DNA or RNA (nucleic acid) AND a surrounding Protein Coat.
|
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|
54. The ______________ has both DNA & RNA.
|
54. The Mimivirus has both DNA & RNA.
|
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|
55. _______________________________ - coiled or folded DNA or RNA
|
55. Genome composition - coiled or folded DNA or RNA
|
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|
56. _________________________________ - protein coat often composed of individual protein subunits called _____________.
|
56. Capsid composition - protein coat often composed of individual protein subunits called capsomeres.
|
|
|
57. Some _________ are spiked.
|
57. Some capsids are spiked.
|
|
|
58. _________________________ - some are surrounded by a flexiable membrane called an _______________ that is made of proteins, phospholipids & glycoproteins.
|
58. Envelope composition - some are surrounded by a flexible membrane called an envelope that is made of proteins, phospholipids & glycoproteins.
|
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|
59. _______________ - a completely assembled virus assembled virus outside its host cell.
|
59. Virion - a completely assembled virus assembled virus outside its host cell.
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|
60. A virus in naked form lacks an _________________________.
|
60. A virus in naked form lacks an cellular structure.
|
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|
61. Repeating subunits of capsomeres add up to make the ____________.
|
61. Repeating subunits of capsomeres add up to make the envelope.
|
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|
62. Virus structure determines ____________________ and ___________________.
|
62. Virus structure determines host range and specificity.
|
|
|
63. ________________________- - what organisms that a virus can infect is based on its __________ structure.
|
63. Host range - what organisms that a virus can infect is based on its capsid structure.
|
|
|
64. _______________________ - within a given host organism usually only certain cell types or tissues can be infected.
|
64. Tissue tropism - within a given host organism usually only certain cell types or tissues can be infected.
|
|
|
65. The replication of bacteriophages in E.coli is a ________________________.
a. _______________________ - sites on phages tail fibers bind to host cell wall b. _______________________ - tail releases lysozyme that dissolves part of cell wall inserting tail and injected phage DNA. c. _______________________ - phage genome replicates using bacterial cell enzymes and nucleotides and the phage DNA is transcribed into mRNA and E. coli synthesizes phage enzymes and capsid proteins. d. ______________________ - viral parts assembled. e. ______________________ - lysis stage – releasing virions to infect other host cells. |
65. The replication of bacteriophages in E.coli is a 5 step process.
a. Attachment - sites on phages tail fibers bind to host cell wall b. Penetration - tail releases lysozyme that dissolves part of cell wall inserting tail and injected phage DNA. c. Biosynthesis - phage genome replicates using bacterial cell enzymes and nucleotides and the phage DNA is transcribed into mRNA and E. coli synthesizes phage enzymes and capsid proteins. d. Maturation - viral parts assembled. e. Release - lysis stage – releasing virions to infect other host cells. |
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66. The only phages approved in the US for use are those for killing Listeria.
|
66. The only phages approved in the US for use are those for killing Listeria.
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|
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67. Animal virus replication has similarities to _______________-replication.
|
67. Animal virus replication has similarities to phage-replication.
|
|
|
68. ________________ - at plasma membrane via ____________ instead of tail fibers.
|
68. Attachment - at plasma membrane via spikes instead of tail fibers.
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69. ______________________________ as nucleocapsid.
|
69. Penetration of whole virus as nucleocapsid.
|
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70. _____________________ - is separation of the internalized nuecleocapsid into the genome and the capsid.
|
70. Uncoating - is separation of the internalized nuecleocapsid into the genome and the capsid.
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|
|
71. _______________________ - enter the cell nucleus and get transcribed into mRNA that is transported to the cytoplasm to be used for translation into viral capsid proteins.
a. Capsid proteins enter host cell nucleaus and are assembled with DNA into ________________________. |
71. Replication of DNA viruses - enter the cell nucleus and get transcribed into mRNA that is transported to the cytoplasm to be used for translation into viral capsid proteins.
a. Capsid proteins enter host cell nucleaus and are assembled with DNA into nucleocapsids. |
|
|
72. ______________________ - viral RNA acts as mRMA and can begin translation in cytoplasm.
|
72. Replication of RNA viruses - viral RNA acts as mRMA and can begin translation in cytoplasm.
|
|
|
73. _____________________- -envelope proteins are inserted into either nuclear membrane or plasma membrane.
|
73. Envelope aquisition -envelope proteins are inserted into either nuclear membrane or plasma membrane.
|
|
|
74. Naked viruses leave host cells only when _____________________________.
|
74. Naked viruses leave host cells only when the cell ruptures.
|
|
|
75. An enveloped virus
|
75. An enveloped virus (Replication of Animal Virus)
|
|
|
Interferons______________ with viral replication or tumor cell replication
|
Interfere
|
|
|
___________________ puts cells in an antiviral state (alert cells to a viral infection)
|
Interferon (IFN)
|
|
|
__________________ mobilizes natural killer cells & macrophages that attack tumor cells or virally infected cells
|
IFN g Intermune
|
|
|
Botulism is an example of a
|
foodborne intoxication
|
|
|
Cases of cholera are caused by _____ cholerae.
|
Vibrio
|
|
|
Which one of the following genera is not associated with a foodborne intoxication?
|
Salmonella
|
|
|
Traveler's diarrhea is most often caused by a species of _____.
|
Escherichia
|
|
|
Shigellosis is primarily a disease of the _____.
|
gastrointestinal tract
|
|
|
Brucellosis can be an occupational hazard of _____.
|
farmers
veterinarians dairy workers |
|
|
Hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated with
|
Escherichia coli.
|
|
|
Which one of the following parts of the body is not associated with listeriosis?
|
Lungs
|
|
|
One could make a case for _____ being the most extensive diarrheal disease.
|
cholera
|
|
|
The majority of bacterial species that cause foodborne and waterborne illnesses in humans are _____.
|
gram-negative rods
|
|
|
John Snow was able to correlate the spread of cholera with a contaminated _____ in London in 1866.
|
water pump
|
|
|
Where do the indigenous microbiota come from to repopulate the gut after diarrhea?
|
the appendix
|
|
|
It has been discovered that Helicobacter pylori is the cause of ______.
|
acute gastritis and
stomach cancer |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a condition seen with the development of dental caries?
|
chewing a lot of gum
|
|
|
What is the most common infectious disease today?
|
dental caries
|
|
|
Which group of people would be more susceptable to intestinal infections?
|
infants
|
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a way to prevent food from being contaminated?
|
re-freeze food after cooking
|
|
|
Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning?
|
Staphylococcus aureus.
|
|
|
Which is the most common food causing infant botulism?
|
honey
|
|
|
What is the best treatment for cholera?
|
antibiotics
|
|
|
Which one of the following is not a form of plague?
|
Relapsing
|
|
|
Lyme disease is transmitted by _____.
|
ticks
|
|
|
Epidemic, endemic, and scrub typhus are caused by a different species of _____.
|
Rickettsia
|
|
|
Clostridium tetani grows in a/an _____ environment.
|
anaerobic
|
|
|
Tularemia is also called _____ fever.
|
rabbit
|
|
|
The cells of Leptospira interrogans, the causative agent of leptospirosis, has a _____ shape.
|
spirochete
|
|
|
A hyperbaric oxygen chamber may be used to treat a patient suffering from _____.
|
gas gangrene
|
|
|
Bacillus anthracis is a gram-_____ rod.
|
positive, spore-forming
|
|
|
Ehrlichiosis is transmitted by _____ and infects _____.
|
ticks; leukocytes
|
|
|
Currently, the most common arthropodborne disease in the United States is _____.
|
Lyme disease
|
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a method of getting anthrax?
|
urinary
|
|
|
What disease is described by: "the toxin acts at the neuromuscular junction, preventing the release of neurotransmitters needed to inhibit muscle contraction."
|
tetanus
|
|
|
Gas gangrene is caused by _____.
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
|
______ is the most wide-spread zoonosis.
|
Leptospira interrogans
|
|
|
_____ is an ancient disease now endemic in the southwestern US in gophers and prairie dogs.
|
Yersinia pestis
|
|
|
An early symptom of ________ is a spreading bulls-eye rash at the site of a tick bite.
|
Lyme disease
|
|
|
________ is seen with periods of fever and chills when many spirochetes are present in the blood.
|
Relapsing fever
|
|
|
The Rickettsias demonstrate a characteristic ______ and ______.
|
fever and rash
|
|
|
________ is a tickborne pathogen that inhabits human leukocytes.
|
Ehrlichia
|
|
|
Which of the following is a soilborne disease?
|
Tetanus
|
|
|
The rapid plasma reagin test and VDRL test are both used _____.
|
in the diagnosis of syphilis.
|
|
|
Two methods for transmitting leprosy are
|
skin contact and respiratory droplets.
|
|
|
Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
|
Leprosy-liver damage
|
|
|
Newborns exposed to Chlamydia trachomatis from an infected mother may experience
|
disease of the eyes or lungs.
|
|
|
The scalded skin syndrome is generally associated with
|
high mortality rates in untreated cases.
|
|
|
Organisms that normally inhabit the body
|
cause endogenous diseases.
|
|
|
All the following apply to trachoma except:
|
the agent of the disease is Treponema pertenue.
|
|
|
All the following are among the opportunistic organisms that may cause nosocomial disease except:
|
Mycobacterium leprae.
|
|
|
The condition known as pseudomembranous colitis is associated with
|
excessive antibiotic use in the intestine.
|
|
|
Impetigo is a skin disease caused by
|
Staphylococcus aureus.
|
|
|
What is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States?
|
Chlamydia
|
|
|
Which organism is found in the acidic vagina of women of reproductive age?
|
Lactobacillus
|
|
|
Which of the following may result from untreated STDs in females?
|
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
infertility |
|
|
Which of the following STIs start with a chancre, then a rash and if untreated results in gummas and death many years later?
|
Syphilis
|
|
|
Which of the following are antimicrobial defense mechanisms in the urethra?
|
shedding of cells in the mucosal lining and bacteria with urination
|
|
|
______ is a bladder infection.
|
cystitis
|
|
|
Which of the skin microbiota is responsible for most cases of the inflammatory condition of acne?
|
Propionebacterium
|
|
|
_____ is a widespread and highly contagious staphylococcal skin disease with thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid that forms a crust.
|
impetigo
|
|
|
Of the hemolytic groups of streptococci, _____ is the most dangerous because the organisms completely destroy red blood cells.
|
the beta hemolytic group
The beta hemolytic destroy completely red blood cells. |
|
|
Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the flesh-eating disease?
|
Group A streptococcus
GAS causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS). |
|
|
The genome of a virus may contain either ______ or ______.
|
RNA; DNA
|
|
|
Though few in number, some drugs, such as _____, can be used to treat some viral infections.
|
amantadine and acyclovir
|
|
|
Attenuated viruses are those that _____.
|
multiply in cells but at a low rate.
|
|
|
Viroids and prions differ in that viroids are believed to contain only ______, while prions are believed to contain only _______.
|
nucleic acid; protein
|
|
|
Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase _____.
|
reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA.
|
|
|
Rivers' postulates can be used to
|
relate a particular virus to a particular disease.
|
|
|
Cancer cells interfere with cell functions in all the following ways:
|
they rob cells of their nutrients and induce cell starvation.
they clog the vascular network and reduce the oxygen supply to cells. they overwhelm cells through sheer force of numbers. |
|
|
The protein coat of a virus particle is called a _____.
|
capsid
|
|
|
An example of a large complex virus is _____.
|
smallpox
|
|
|
When a viral nucleic acid becomes part of the host cell chromosome it is called _____.
|
lysogeny
|
|
|
is a retrovirus with reverse transcriptase?
|
HIV
|
|
|
An example of a virus causing cytopathic effects is _____.
|
Paraxyxoviruses causeing syncytia
Rabies causing Negri bodies |
|
|
Viruses can be grown on _____.
|
tissue culture
|
|
|
Which of the following are oncogenic viruses?
|
HPV
|
|
|
Which of the following cause new emerging infectious diseases?
|
mutation
cross host ranges |
|
|
_____ are infectious RNA particles
|
Viroids
|
|
|
Which of the following are the cause of "mad cow disease"?
|
Prions
|
|
|
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral disease characterized by wart-like skin lesions.
|
True
|
|
|
Influenza C causes the most epidemics.
|
False
Reason: Influenza A is responsible for most epidemics. |
|
|
Type II herpes simplex virus has been related to cancer of the cervix in women.
|
False
Reason: HPV has been linked to cervical cancer in women. |
|
|
Kaposi's sarcoma is a tumor of the blood vessel walls.
|
True
|
|
|
Most cases of measles are transmitted by skin contact with an infected individual.
|
False
Reason: It is transmitted by respiratory droplets. |
|
|
The mortality rate for chickenpox is low and the disease is considered benign.
|
True
|
|
|
Smallpox is rarely encountered in the United States but is remains common in some African and Latin American countries.
|
False
Reason: The virus has been eradicated globally. |
|
|
SARS is a viral disease of the lower respiratory tract.
|
True
|
|
|
Orchitis is a condition of the male genital organs caused by the measles virus.
|
False
Reason: It is caused by the mumps virus. |
|
|
Touching a cold sore and then touching the eyes can cause blindness.
|
True
Reason: Sarring of the cornea is a leading cause of blindness in the US. |
|
|
_____ is the most common lower respiratory tract disease among infants and young children
|
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
|
|
|
Rhinoviruses and some adenoviruses are responsible for many cases of the common cold.
|
True
|
|
|
SARS has a reservoir of infection in _____.
|
bats
|
|
|
Hanta virus is present in the desert southwest for those in contact with _____.
|
mouse droppings
|
|
|
Medications that can be used early in influenza are ____ and ____ because they inhibit the release of new virions.
|
Relenza, Tamiflu
|
|
|
A common trait among Herpes viruses is _____.
|
latency
|
|
|
Chickenpox can resurface years later as _____.
|
shingles
|
|
|
_____ can spread from person to person in respiratory secretions or it may be inherited congenitally.
|
roseola
|
|
|
Which of the following viruses has a vaccine to prevent it?
|
HPV
|
|
|
The fecal-oral route is the mode of transmission for the _____.
|
hepatitis A virus.
|
|
|
Dengue fever is transmitted primarily by
|
arthropods.
|
|
|
Researchers have associated the ______ virus with infectious mononucleosis and have evidence that the virus also causes _______.
|
Epstein-Barr; Burkitt's lymphoma
|
|
|
Which investigator developed a polio vaccine containing inactivated viruses?
|
Sabin
|
|
|
Rotavirus and the noroviruses can both be causes of viral ______ when transferred to humans by ______.
|
gastroenteritis; water
|
|
|
Which one of the following is not a viral disease of the nervous system?
|
Hantavirus
|
|
|
The rabies virus is shaped like a/an ______ and enters the body by a _______.
|
bullet; skin wound
|
|
|
The ______ causes a viral hemorrhagic fever that has been responsible for many outbreaks in Africa.
|
Ebolavirus
|
|
|
Infectious _____ is caused by the ________virus infecting the B lymphocytes.
|
mononucleosis, Epstein Barr
|
|
|
The ______ can cause serious birth defects including mental impairment.
|
Cytomegalovirus
|
|
|
Which of the following can be prevented by a vaccine?
|
hepatitis B
|
|
|
Damage from ________ is the major cause of liver transplants in the US, alcohol and drug use are cofactors.
|
hepatitis C
|
|
|
Arboviruses are _____ viruses.
|
arthropod-borne
|
|
|
_________ fever was the first human disease associated with a virus. Walter Reed identified _________ as the carrier.
|
Yellow, mosquitoes
|
|
|
The zoonotic reservoir for Ebolavirus and Marburgvirus may be _____.
|
rats
|
|
|
Lassa fever is transmitted by the zoonotic host, _______ which are used for food.
|
bush rats
|
|
|
The majority of cases of rabies are from _____ and ______.
|
raccoons, bats
|
|
|
Where in the body does polio attack?
|
the gray matter of the spinal cord
|
|
|
Hutchinson's triad of deafness, impaired vision, and notched peg-
shaped teeth in a child suggests congenital _______________ . |
syphilis
|
|
|
The causative agent of the “great pox” is a spirochete bacterium
with the scientific name ________ . |
Treponema pallidum
|
|
|
Most states have laws requiring treatment of all newborn’s eyes
with either silver nitrate or erythromycin to eliminate the possibility of perinatal N. gonorrhea and ________ eye infections. |
Chlamydia
|
|
|
The most frequently reported STD & notifiable infectious disease in
US is ____________ . There are more than a million new cases per year with about 75% of the cases in people under 25 years old. |
Chlamydial urethritis
|
|
|
What facultatively anaerobic Gram-positive coccus causes impetigo contagiosum?
|
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
|
The leading cause of the world's preventable infectious blindness is
due to an obligate intracellular human pathogen known as ____ . |
Chlamydia trachomati
|
|
|
Bartonella henselae causes ____ . Symptoms of this infection include
swollen lymph nodes, especially those around the head, neck, and upper limbs, as well as fever, headache, fatigue, and a poor appetite. |
cat scratch disease
|
|
|
Walking pneumonia is usually caused by _________, a pleomorphic
organism that lacks a cell wall (no Gram rxn). |
Legionella pneumophila
|
|
|
Treponema pallidum pertenue is a spirochete bacterium that cause the disease _____ in tropical areas.
|
Yaws
|
|
|
Q fever is a zoonotic disease caused by _________________ .
|
Coxiella burnetii
|
|
|
What obligate intracellular pathogen is spread from parrots to humans?
|
Chlamydiae psittaci
|
|
|
The most commonly reported bacterial cause of gastroenteritis in the USA is due to ___________ .
|
Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
|
Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by infection with ________ a small gram negative, obligate intracellular parasite.
|
Rickettsia rickettsii
|
|
|
As few as 10 ______________ cells is enough to cause infection.
|
Yersinia pestis
|
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Name a psychrophile.
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Flavobacterium psychrophilum
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