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262 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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characteristics of fungi?
ubiquitous in the environment
grow in high concentrations of sugar, salt and acid
moist environments
optimal temperature 20-35*C
optimal pH 5.0 or lower
what is the meaning of heterotrophs?
hetero- different
troph- nourishment

fungi are a diverse group of heterotrophs
what type of fungi digest dead organic matter and wastes?
a. saprophytes
b. parasites
c. facultative parasites
d. none of the above
a. saprophytes
what type of fungi obtains nutrients from tissues of other living organisms?
a. saprophytes
b. parasites
c. facultative parasites
d. none of the above
b. parasites
what type of fungi obtains nutrients from living and non-living organic sources?
a. saprophytes
b. parasites
c. facultative parasites
d. none of the above
c. facultative parasites
which is considered bread mold?
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
a. zygomycota

(rhizopus)
also found on/in soil, decaying fruit&vegis, animal feces and old bread
which forms resistant spherical spores which are genetically identical to the parent form?
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
a. zygomycota

(rhizopus)
also found on/in soil, decaying fruit&vegis, animal feces and old bread
Rhisopus is a genus of
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
a. zygomycota

also found on/in soil, decaying fruit&vegis, animal feces and old bread
causes dutch elm disease and rye smut?
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
b. ascomycota
non-motile spores called ascus cells
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
b. ascomycota
considered the largest phylum
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
b. ascomycota
MACA what two phylums form the subkindom called dikarya(Higher fungi)
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
has forms such as mushrooms and puffballs
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
c. basidiomycota

-other forms are stinkhorms, bracket fungi, polypores, jelly fungi, boletes, chanterells, earth stars, smuts, bunts, rusts, mirror yeast

-can cause the human pathogen cryptococcus
can cause the human pathogen crytococcus?
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
c. basidiomycota
reproduces both sexually and asexually (haploids and diploids)
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
c. basidiomycota
has no sexual stage (which has been observed)
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
d. deuteromycota

asexual reproduction(spores)
considered imperfect fungi or fungi imperfecti?
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
d. deuteromycota
has unleashed spores in the organism which spread when the organism dies
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
e. chytridiomycota
found in athletes foot, yeast infections, and penicillin
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
d. deuteromycota
most primitive phylum of fungi
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
e. chytridiomycota
found mostly in fresh water (aquatic)
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
e. chytridiomycota
found on potatoes which are little white spots while in the ground and turn black when the fungi dies called black wart disease?
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
e. chytridiomycota

black spots can be as large as a fist or small as a pinhead
are motile via flagella
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
e. chytridiomycota

Both zoospores and gametes of the chytrids are mobile by their flagella
what are some characteristics of yeast?
single-celled
can be spherical, oval or cylinrical
3-5 um(micrometer) in diameter
reproduce by either binary fission or budding
what morphological form of fungi is single-celled?
a. yeast
b. molds
c. dimorphic fungi
d. none
a. yeast
what morphological form of fungi can be spherical, oval or cylindrical
a. yeast
b. molds
c. both (dimorphic)
d. neither
a. yeast
what morphological form of fungi reproduces by binary fission or budding
a. yeast
b. molds
c. both (dimorphic)
d. neither
a. yeast
what morphological form of fungi is a filamentous?
a. yeast
b. molds
c. both (dimorphic)
d. neither
b. molds
what morphological form of fungi has hypha, or hyphae(lots of hypha)
a. yeast
b. molds
c. both (dimorphic)
d. neither
b. molds
what found in mold absorbs nutrients and releases enzymes which break down material into readily absorbs smaller organic compounds
hyphae
a collection of hyphae growing in one place is known as what?
mycelium

a single filament is known as a hypha
what morphological form of fungi is either yeast or mycelia depending on the environmental conditions (temp)?
a. yeast
b. mold
c. dimorphic fungi
d. none
c. dimorphic fungi
what morphological form of fungi of which many of them cause human diseases
a. yeast
b. mold
c. dimorphic fungi
d. none
c. dimorphic fungi
what is the path in which the dimorphic fungi coccidioides immitits takes from beginning(soil) to end(in the lungs)?
grow in the soil as mold---> spores are carried in the air ----> inhaled into warm, moist environment of the lung ---> develop into yeast and cause disease
what are fungal diseases called?
mycoses
what is mycoses?
fungal diseases
hay fever and asthma which can result from inhaling spores
a. allergic reaction
b. fungal toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. alphatoxin
a. allergic reaction
humans are sensitized
a. allergic reaction
b. fungal toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. alphatoxin
a. allergic reaction
poisonous effect of ergot(rye smut)
a. allergic reaction
b. fungal toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. alphatoxin
b. fungal toxin
now the purified form is used to control uterine bleeding, assist in child birth and relieve migraine headaches
a. allergic reaction
b. fungal toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. alphatoxin
b. fungal toxin
produces carcinogenic toxins
a. allergic reaction
b. fungal toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. alphatoxin
c. aflatoxin

it has been associated with liver cancer
present in moldy food such as grains and peanuts
a. allergic reaction
b. fungal toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. alphatoxin
c. aflatoxin

it has been associated with liver cancer
what common fungal disease causes spelunker's disease
a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidiodomycosis
c. candidiasis
d. none
a. histoplasmosis
what common fungal disease is known as valley fever
a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidiodomycosis
c. candidiasis
d. none
b. coccidiodomycosis (coccidioides immitis

in healthy people such infections are usually subclinical, or self-limiting within the lungs
symptoms
-cough
-fever
-malaise
-weight loss
-confirmed by radiological evidence of pulmonary interstitial infiltrates

very opportunistic in AIDS patients
what common fungal disease oral "thrush" or vulvovaginitis
a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidiodomycosis
c. candidiasis
d. none
c. candidiasis (candida albicans)
what type of candidiasis presents with the patient having cracks in the corners of the mouth and whitish or yellowish patches on the lips, tongue, palate, and inside the cheeks?
oral "thrush"
what type of candidiasis presents with the patient having vaginal pain, itching, redness, and a thick, white "cheesy" vaginal discharge with pain or discomfort with urination?
vulvovaginitis
hairs, skin or nails
a. superficial mycoses
b. intermediate mycoses
c. systemic mycoses
d. none of the above
a. superficial mycoses
respiratory tract or skin and subcutaneous tissues
a. superficial mycoses
b. intermediate mycoses
c. systemic mycoses
d. none of the above
b. intermediate mycoses
tissues deep within the body
a. superficial mycoses
b. intermediate mycoses
c. systemic mycoses
d. none of the above
c. systemic mycoses
positive or negative impact:
saccharomyces?
positive impact

used to produce beer, whine and bread
positive or negative impact:
saccharomyces are used in the production of beer, whine and bread
positive impact
positive or negative impact:
penicillin and other antimicrobial medicines are synthesized by fungi
positive impact

also used to produce human insulin, human growth hormone somatostatin, and hepatitis B vaccine
positive or negative impact:
spoil many food products
negative impact
positive or negative impact:
causes diseases of plants such as dutch elm disease and wheat rust
negative impact
arthropods act as vectors for some diseases what arthropod serves as a vector for malaria?
mosquitoes
arthropods act as vectors for some diseases what arthropod serves as a vector for fleas?
Plague
arthropods act as vectors for some diseases what arthropod serves as a vector for trench fever, epidemic typhus and relapsing fever?
LICE
arthropods act as vectors for some diseases what arthropod serves as a vector for rocky mountain spotted fever and lyme disease?
ticks
arthropods act as vectors for some diseases what arthropod serves as a vector for scabies?
mites
arthropods act as vectors for some diseases what arthropod serves as a vector for allergies and asthma?
dust mites
what does helminthology mean?
the science (study) of worms
what are some characteristics of helminths?
muticellular
complex reproductive and life cycles
-intermediate host for the development of larval stages and a definitive host for the adult form
hermaphrodite (both sex organs in same worm)
nematodes are
a. roundworms
b. flatworms
a. roundworms
trematodes are
a. roundworms
b. flatworms
b. flatworms

trematodes(flukes)
cestodes are
a. roundworms
b. flatworms
b. flatworms

cestodes (tapeworms)
characteristics of nematodes are?
roundworms
body is cylindrical and covered with cuticle
separate males and females
free living in soil and water
infective in both egg and larvae stages
name some types of round worms
enterobius vemicularis(pinworm)
trichinella spiralis
necator americanus & ancylostoma duodenale (hookworms)
stongyloides stercoralis(thread worm)
ascaris lumbricoides
wuchereria bancrofti
trichuris trichuris (whipworm)
what disease does the round worm enterobius vermicularis cause in humans and where?
enterobiasis in human intestine spread by close contact autoinfection

PINWORM
what symptoms would you have if you came in to close contact with the autoinfection from enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)?
nocternal perianal
vulvar pruritis
insomnia
irritability
restlessness
vague gastrointestinal symptoms
what roundworm causes these symptoms:
nocternal perianal, vulvar puritis, insomnia, irritability, restlessness, vague gastrointestinal symptoms?
enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) infects the large intestine of the human after coming into close contact (autoinfection)
what disease contracted from a roundworm has a epidemiology of:
500million people worldwide, temperate climate, school-age children, USA 40million?
enterobiasis from enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
what round worm causes trichinosis and is found in small intestines (adults) and muscles (larvae) of what hosts?
trichinella spiralis
host= Rats, Pigs, and Man

consumption of meat containing larvae
how does the roundworm trichnella spiralis spread to humans and what disease does it cause?
consumption of meat containing larvae causing trichinosis
what are the symptoms in which you would develop from eating meat containing Trichinella spiralis larvae?
disease- Trichinosis
Symptoms- fever, orbital edema, myalgia, and eosinophilia.
Extreme- infection myocarditis or encephalitis
history of eating raw or inadequately cooked pork
1.5 humans worldwide, Americans carry live cysts in musculature, and 150 to 300 thousand acquire new infections annually is the epidemiology of what roundworm?
Trichinella spiralis

which cause the disease Trichinosis from eating meat containing larvae
what roundworm which is found in the small intestines and spread to humans by fecal pollution of soil with eggs, skin penetration by infective larvae?
Necator americanus
Acylostoma duodenale
(hookworms)
what symptoms would you find if you had Nector americanus or Acylostoma duodenale in your small intestines?
dermatitis at the site of larval invasion
pulmonary migration of larval: cough, asthma, blood tinge sputum
eosinophila
intestinal symptoms: anorexia, diarrhea, abdominal discomfort
Iron deficiency anemia: weakness, fatigue, physical and mental retardation in children
what is the epidemiology of Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale? (hookworms)
worldwide
fecal contaminated soil leads to human disease
estimated 900million individuals
700k in the USA
the thread worm causes what disease and where in humans?
disease- Stronglyoidiasis
location in humans- small intestines (adult) general tissue (larvae)
how is Strongyloides stercoralis (Thread worm) spread to humans?
Skin penetration by infective larvae; autoinfection
what are some symptoms from strongyloides stercoralis spread by skin penetrating infective larvae (autoinfection)?
pruritis, diarrhea, epigastric pain, nausea, malaise, weight loss, cough, eosinophilia, severe cases diarrhea and bronchopneumonia
what is the epidemiology in strongyloides stercoralis (thread worm)?
warm temperature and moisture
found in the northern US and Canada
sexual transmission
Ascaris is found where in humans and causes what disease?
Small intestines which causes Ascariasis
ingest of what type of eggs causes Ascariasis and found in the human small intestines?
Ascaris Lumbricoides
ingestion of the eggs of Ascaris Lumbricoides causes what symptoms?
Abdominal pain, live worms vomited or passed in stool.
eosinophilia
pneumonitis and intestinal obstruction may accompany heavy infestations
Worldwide 1 billion people affected Most common infection from poor sanitation, fecal contamination is the epidemiology of what Roundworm?
Ascaris lumbricoides
if you are bitten by a mosquito and later develop fever, swelling of lymph glands(genitals and extremities) what roundworm was the mosquito carrying?
Wuchereria bancrofti which causes the disease Filariasis
wuchereria bancrofti is found in what host and where?
humans and mosquitoes(culex, anedes, and anopheles)
lyphatics (adult) and blood (larvae)
where might you contract the disease filariasis and from what roundworm?
tropical and subtropical areas
endemic in central Africa, Mediterranean coast and Asia
roundworm called Wuchereria bancrofti transferred from mosquito bites
the whipworm infects humans where and how?
Trichuris trichuris infects the large intestines of humans after ingesting the Trichuris trichuris eggs
after eating beans and rice you develop chronic diarrhea, lower abdominal cramps, flatulence and tenesmus what roundworm might you have ingested?
Trichuris trichuris eggs which cause the disease trichuriasis
what symptoms might you develop from ingesting a round worm that was in you rice, beans or grains?
chronic diarrhea, lower abdominal cramps, flatulence and tenesmus (feeling like you have a full bowel after emptying it) from the round worm called Trichuris Trichuris
what is the epidemiology of the roundworm Trichuris trichuris (whipworm)?
Worldwide
distribution- poor sanitation and human feces as fertilizer

(no animal reservoir)
what round worm has no animal reservoir?
Trichuris trichuris found in the humans large intestines
MACA: what 2 termatodes are found in the blood vessels of the intestines?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
MACA: which trematodes have a host of Snails and Humans?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica (also fish, herbivores (sheep, cattle))
which trematode is located in the liver?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
MACA: which trematodes (flukes) are from penetration of skin by larvae released from snails?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
MACA: what trematodes(flukes) have signs/symptoms of malnutrition, weakness, liver, damage, ascites, eosinophilia and abdominal pain?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
MACA: which trematodes cause the disease Schistosomiasis, bilharzia, blood fluke
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Schistosoma haematobium (swimmer's itch)
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
MACA: causes the disease Fascioliasis
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
MACA: found in the liver from ingesting vegetation with larval stages
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
MACA: trematodes found in the blood vessels of the bladder?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Schistosoma haematobium
which trematodes causes hematuria, urinary frequency, urethral and bladder pain?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Schistosoma haematobium
which trematodes cause fever, enlarged tender liver, eosinophilia, pain in epigastric or right upper quadrant, anorexia, jaundice, vomiting, anemia, and prostration?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
found in the Nile valley, Africa and Asia minor
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Schistosoma haematobium
found in China, Japan, Philippines and Indonesia
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
b. schistosoma japonicum
found in Africa, Saudi Arabia, Madagascar, Brazil, Venezuela, West Indies and Puerto Rico
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
c. schistoma mansoni
found in Soviet Union, Japan, Egypt, Latin America, but rare in the US
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
found in sheep raising areas
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
MACA: is found in the intestines
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
from eating undercooked beef
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata
from eating undercooked pork
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
from eating raw fish
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
from ingesting dog feces
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
25 meter long tape worm
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata

beef tapeworm
7 meter long tapeworm
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
cestodes
10 meter long tape worm
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
cestodes
found in both humans and beef
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata
cestodes
found in both humans and pigs
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
cestodes
found in both humans and fish
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
cestodes
found in humans, herbivores, and dogs
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
cestodes
found in the liver, lung and brain
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
MACA: cestodes
nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, vomiting, obstruction of bile duct, pancreatic duct or appendix
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
cestodes
vitamin B12 deficiency, macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia (pernicious anemia) neurological symptoms including numbness, loss of vibration sense, weakness and an unsteady gate.
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
incidence in poor rural areas US most common causes of cestode infection
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata

areas where beef and pork are food
found in Africa, India, Southeast Asia, China, Mexico, Latin America but infrequent in the US
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
most prevalent in cool lake regions where raw or pickled fish is popular and where dumping raw sewage into fresh water
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
cestodes
Hydatid disease and Dog tapeworm
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
cestodes
liver cysts, upper right quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, cyst rupture, anaphylaxis and death
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
Europe, South America, Africa, Asia, Australia, and New Zealand where raising sheep is common, Canada and US from contaminated water and vegetation as well as hand-to mouth
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
key concepts of viruses are?
infectious agents too small to be seen by light microscope
100-1000 folds smaller that the cells they infect
not true cells
obligate intracellular parasites
individual virions contain only RNA or DNA never both
bc of small size contains little nucleic acid and very few genes
what are some characteristics of viruses?
non-living infectious agents
obligate intracellular parasites
no true cell
they can infect animals, plants, and even other microorganisms
viruses infect only bacteria are called bacteriophages or phage
100-1000 fold smaller than the cells they infect
size measured in nm (10-500nm)
viruses which only infect bacteria is called?
bacteriophages or phage
T or F viruses contain RNA and DNA
False
either or but not both
T or F viruses are totally dependent on host cell for replication
True
what must do to go from one host cell to another?
viral components must assemble into complete viruses (virions) to go from one host cell to another
what are some shapes of viruses?
isometric-(adenovirus)
helical-(tobacco mosaic virus)
complex-(most phages are this shape)
nucleic acid surrounded by a polyhedral (many shape) shell or capsid
a. isometric
b. helical
c. complex
d. none
a. isometric
adenovirus
a. isometric
b. helical
c. complex
d. none
a. isometric
ribbon like consist of nucleic acid surrounded by a hollow protein cylinder or capsid and possessing a helical structure
a. isometric
b. helical
c. complex
d. none
b. helical
tobacco mosaic virus
a. isometric
b. helical
c. complex
d. none
b. helical
most phages are this shape
a. isometric
b. helical
c. complex
d. none
c. complex
having polyhedral head, helical sheath or tail
a. isometric
b. helical
c. complex
d. none
c. complex
protein capsid and nucleic acid
a. envelope viruses
b. naked viruses
c. both
d. neither
c. both
capsid, nucleic acid, and an envelope
a. envelope viruses
b. naked viruses
c. both
d. neither
a. envelope viruses
resistant and survive in the outside world
a. envelope viruses
b. naked viruses
c. both
d. neither
b. naked viruses
susceptible to environment factors such as drying, gastric acidity and bile
a. envelope viruses
b. naked viruses
c. both
d. neither
a. envelope viruses
what is a capsid
protein coat
shape of the virus is determined by the shape of the capsid
found in most viruses
made up of protein subunits called capsomeres
serves to protect and introduce viral genome into host cells
some viruses consist of a genome surrounded by a capsid and are called nucleocapsid or naked viruses
attachment proteins project out from the caspid and bind the virus to susceptible host cells
what is a envelope?
most animal viruses also have an envelope
similar to eukaryotic cell membrane
composed of lipid bilayer
derived from host cell membranes by a process called budding
usually of host cell origin, virus does incorporate proteins of its own, often appearing as glycoprotein spikes
spikes function in attaching the virus to receptors on susceptible host cells
what are nucleic acids (viral structure)
either RNA or DNA
either single or double stranded, linear, circular, or segmental
codes for the synthesis of viral components and viral enzymes for replication
what are enzymes (viral structure)?
viruses contain a few enzyme in their capsid
are inactive
becomes active after virus has entered its host
E.g. HIV carries reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent DNA polymerase)
what are some classification schemes of animal viruses?
type of nucleic acid and its arrangement
- DNA or RNA
-single stranded, double stranded, linear, or segmented
type of replication scheme
-lytic
-temperate
-where replication occurs (nucleus or cytoplasm)
shape of the virus
- spherical
- rod shaped
- complex
envelope or naked virus
size of the virion
where does the replication cycle for viruses occur?
in host cell only
during replication what structures and enzymes are used?
host structures and enzymes
during the replication cycle what is the nucleic acid used for?
make viral protein coat
assure replication of viral nucleic acid
move the virus into and out of the host cell
what phase in the replication cycle is the virus metabolically inert?
outside the cell
what phase in the replication cycle is the virus in replication form?
inside the cell
how are viruses transmitted?
inhaled droplets (rhinovirus)
in food or water (hepatitis A)
by direct transfer from other infected hosts (HIV)
from bites of vector arthropods (yellow fever)
transplacental
sexually transmitted
infect only one or a restricted range of host species is called?
host specificity
multiply inside the host cell and cause lysis phage called?
virulent phage or lytic phage
what are the types of relationships viruses have with host cells
productive infection
extrude
latent infection
lysogenic
some viruses leak out of the host cells without killing them
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
b. extrude
becomes a part of the genome of the host cell
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
c. latent infection
virulent phage or lytic phage
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
a. productive infection
temperate phage
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
c. latent infection
modify properties of the host cell phage is called?
temperate phage
toxin production by corynebacterium diphtheriae is mediated by a gene carried by a phage.
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
d. lysogenic

only those strain that have been converted by lysogeny are pathogenic
what stage of replication:
virus must bind to a specific receptor on the surface of the host cell
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. transcription
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein
e. assembly
f. release
a. attachment
what stage of replication:
after few minutes an enzyme(lysozyme) in the tip of the phage tail degrades small portion of the bacterial cell wall and the DNA is injected into the cell while protein coat of the phage remains on the outside
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. transcription
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein
e. assembly
f. release
b. penetration
what stage of replication:
Phage DNA in the host cell is transcribed into mRNA which is then translated into protein
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. transcription
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein
e. assembly
f. release
c. transcription
what stage of replication:
phage protein and nucleic acid replicate independently of one another
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. transcription
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein
e. assembly
f. release
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein

1. template for replication of more phage
2. template for synthesis of mRNA
what stage of replication:
maturation process forms intact or mature phage
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. transcription
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein
e. assembly
f. release
e. assembly

once the phage head is formed it is packed with DNA the tail is then attached followed by the addition of the tail spikes
what stage of replication:
enzyme lysozyme is synthesized digest host cell from within resulting in cell lysis and the release of phage
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. transcription
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein
e. assembly
f. release
f. release
any bacterial gene can be transferred
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
a. generalized transduction

phage that carry out this process are called generalized transducing phages
virulent and temperate phage
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
a. generalized transduction

phage that carry out this process are called generalized transducing phages
DNA from donor cell integrate into the recipient cell DNA by homologous recombination
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
a. generalized transduction
transfer of only few specific genes
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
b. specialized transduction
carried out by temperate phage only
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
b. specialized transduction
carried out by temperate phage
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
c. both

specialized- only temperate
generalized- temperate and virulent
a piece of bacterial DNA remains attached to the piece of phage DNA that is excised
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
b. specialized transduction
bacterial gene attached to the phage DNA replicate as the phase DNA replicate
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
b. specialized transduction
only genes located near the site at which the temperate phage integrates in DNA are transduced
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
b. specialized transduction
T or F most viruses infect and persist within host in a state of balanced pathogenicity in which the host is not killed
True
viruses cause diseases which are classified how
acute
persistent
short duration
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
a. acute
self-limited
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
a. acute
virus is localized
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
a. acute
may lead to lasting immunity
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
a. acute
mumps, measles, influenza, and poliomyelitis
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
a. acute
late complication following an acute infection
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
b. persistent
latent infection
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
b. persistent
chronic infection
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
b. persistent
slow infection
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
b. persistent
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
either nucleus or cytoplasm
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
in all viruses nucleic acid separates from its protein prior to the start of replication
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
d. uncoating
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
depends on whether virus is DNA or RNA and single stranded or double stranded
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
protein formation occurs and protein coat and nucleic acid is assembled
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
f. maturation
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
cell lysed and budding (persistent infections) or exocytosis
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
g. release
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
occurs from same opening or surface that virus enters from
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
h. shedding

e.g. mucus, saliva, feces, urine, blood and genital
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
transmitted into new host and begins infection cycle
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
i. transmission
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
absorption fusion of viral envelope and host membrane
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
a. attachment

in animal cell process is more complex
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
depends upon whether the virion is enveloped or naked
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and protein
f. maturation
g. release
h. shedding
i. transmission
b. entry

in enveloped viruses two mechanisms exists
how can viruses like influenza can expand their host range through an exchange of genome?
genetic reassortment
T or F genome exchange in each segment carries different genetic information
True
congenital syndrome can cause cataract, brain damage, deafness, heart defects, low birth weight despite normal gestation
a. rubella
b. cytomegalovirus
c. HIV
d. HSV
e. parvovirus B19
a. rubella (german measles)
congenital syndrome can cause jaundice, large liver, anemia, eye inflammation, birth defects, hearing loss, mental retardation.
a. rubella
b. cytomegalovirus
c. HIV
d. HSV
e. parvovirus B19
b. cytomegalovirus

(congenital cytomegalic inclusion)
when acquired in utero or from mother's milk initiates a chronic infection leading to lyphadenopathy, failure to thrive, or encephalopathy within 2 years of birth
a. rubella
b. cytomegalovirus
c. HIV
d. HSV
e. parvovirus B19
c. HIV
T or F HSV is a transplacental infection.
False
it is a perinatal infection. can be acquired during passage through an INFECTED birth canal
is not transplacental
fetal infection which targets erythrocyte precursors and can cause animia and congestive heart failure
a. rubella
b. cytomegalovirus
c. HIV
d. HSV
e. parvovirus B19
e. parvovirus B19
T or F viruses are associated with cancer
True
T or F most human tumors are caused by double stranded DNA tumor viruses
False
FEW human tumors are caused by double stranded DNA tumor viruses
following integration transforming genes or oncogenes are expressed resulting in what?
in uncontrolled growth of host cells
viruses which cause cancer are?
epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
human papillomavirus (HPV)
hepatitis B & C
kaposi's sarcoma
human T-cell lymphocytic virus-1 (HTLV-1)
herpes virus, burkitt's lymphoma (malignant tumor of jawbone), hodgekin's lymphoma are all what
a. epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
b. human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. hepatitis B & C
d. kaposi's sarcoma
e. human T-cell lymphocytic
virus-1 (HTLV-1)
a. epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
warts and has strands which are common in cervical cancer
a. epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
b. human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. hepatitis B & C
d. kaposi's sarcoma
e. human T-cell lymphocytic
virus-1 (HTLV-1)
b. human papillomavirus (HPV)

HPV-16 and HPV-18 associated with cervical cancer
hepatocellular carcinoma
a. epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
b. human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. hepatitis B & C
d. kaposi's sarcoma
e. human T-cell lymphocytic
virus-1 (HTLV-1)
c. hepatitis B & C
human herpes virus 8, cancer of skin and internal organs in AIDS patients
a. epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
b. human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. hepatitis B & C
d. kaposi's sarcoma
e. human T-cell lymphocytic
virus-1 (HTLV-1)
d. kaposi's sarcoma
RNA virus with Adult T-cell leukemia
a. epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
b. human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. hepatitis B & C
d. kaposi's sarcoma
e. human T-cell lymphocytic
virus-1 (HTLV-1)
e. human T-cell lymphocytic
virus-1 (HTLV-1)
T or F prions and viroids are other infectious agents
True
what are some characteristics of prions?
consist of protein and no nucleic acid
replicate by converting normal cellular prion proteins to abnormal prion protein
associated with a neurodegenerative disease called transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
what neurodegenerative disease are prions associated with?
transmissible spongiform encephalophaties
what are some characteristics of viroids?
circular single stranded RNA molecule
no protein coat
1/10 the size of the smallest infectious viral RNA known
plant pathogens
T or F prions cause plant pathogens
False
viroids do
T or F viroids have a protein coat and no nucleic acid
False
prions do
how many RNA virus families are there?
14 RNA


7DNA
how many DNA virus families are there?
7 DNA


14 RNA
what does corona mean in the virus family coronaviridae?
corona - crown
what is significant about viruses GENUS?
each family has numerous genera
ends in virus e.g. enterovirus
what is significant about viruses SPECIES?
name of the disease virus causes e.g. poliovirus causes polio
it is NOT ITALICIZED
what is significant about viruses TYPES?
each species contains numerous types e.g. Rhinovirus contains 100 types
adenoviridae cuases what virus?
adenovirus
adenoviridae is a naked or enveloped virus?
naked- resistant to environmental changes
what is the double stranded DNA virus, Adenoviridae's major modes of tranmissions?
respiratory route
close contact
fecal oral
what diseases are caused by the double stranded DNA virus caused by adenoviradae?
respiratory infection(cold)
pharngoconjunctival fever
conjunctivitis
gastritis
what are some characteristics of adenoviridae?
double stranded DNA viruses
adenovirus
naked
human adenovirus (A-F)
3rd most common cause of cold year round
what double stranded DNA viruses are enveloped and cause hepatitis B virus?
hepadnaviridae
what is the major paths of transmission for the double stranded DNA virus Hepadnaviridae?
body fluids
blood products
perinatal
what diseases are caused by the double stranded DNA virus Hepadnaviridae?
Hepatitis
Chronic hepatitis
liver cancer
cirrhosis
what are some symptoms of hepadnaviridae?
chronic carries
fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, pale stool
What are the symptoms of HIV infection?
some cases
fever, headache, sore throat, muscle aches, enlarged lymph nodes, and a generalized rash
PGL-persistent glandular lymphadenopathy
-can lasts from acute disease through AIDS
LAS- lymphadenopathy syndrome
-occurs at the end of the asymptomatic period

asymptomatic period follows
-usually lasts years
which double stranded DNA viruses are "Naked"?
adenovirus
parvoviridae
human papillomavirus
polyomavirus
what double stranded DNA viruses have an "envelope"?
molluscipoxvirus
herpes simplex virus (HHV-1)
hepatitis B virus
what double stranded DNA viruses have their major mode of transmission as respiratory?
adenoviridae- adenovirus
herpesviridae- varicella zoster virus (HHV-3)& Roseola virus (HHV-6)
parvoviridae- human parovirus B19
poxviridae- orthopoxvirus (small pox)
polyomaviridae- polyomavirus
adenoviridae contracted by fecal oral would cause what disease?
gastritis
what 2 double stranded DNA viruses have the shortest incubation period?
5-7 days adenovirus
5-8 days herpes simplex virus (HHV-1)
what 2 double stranded DNA viruses have the longest incubation periods?
hepadnaviridae 50-150 days
human papillomavirus 50-150
in order what disease last the shortest to longest?
5-7 days adenovirus
5-8 days herpes simplex virus (HHV-1)
12-14 days orthopoxvirus
13-17 days herpes simplex (HHV-2)
14-21 daysvaricella-zoster virus (HHV3)
30-60 dayscytomegalovirus
30-60 days rosela virus (HHV-6)
hepadnaviridae 50-150 days
human papillomavirus 50-150
what are some characteristics of adenoviridae
adenovirus (naked)
transmitted through respiratory, close contact, and fecal-oral
5-7 days incubation
diseases - respiratory incection, pharngoconjuncival fever, conjuctivitis, gastritis
FACTS
human adenovirus (a-f) 3rd common cause of cold year round
fever, watery eyes, pharyngitis and pneumonia
what are some characteristics of hepadnaviridae?
Hepatitis B virus (envelope)
transmitted through body fluids, blood products, perinatal
50-150 days incubation
disease- hepatitis (serum hepatits) chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis and liver cancer
chronic carriers persistent infection
fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, pale stool hepatitis B vaccine
what are some genuses of the virus family Herpesviridae?
herpes simplex virus (HHV-1)(envelope)
herpes simplex (HHV-2)
varcella-zoster virus (HHV-3)
Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4)
Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5)
roseloa virus (HHV-6)
HHV-8
what disease/s does the genus HHV-1 produce?
(herpes simplex virus)-close contact
Latent infection
herpes labialis (cold sores)
gingivostomatitis
keratoconjuctivitis
encephalitis
herpetic whitlow
what disease/s does the genus HHV-2 produce?
(herpes simplex)- close contact(sexually transmitted)
genital herpes
neonatal herpes TORCH
what does the acronym TORCHES stand for in reference to characteristics of viruses?
T- toxoplamosis
O-
R- rubella
C- cytomegalovirus
H- herpes/HIV
E-
S- syphylis
what disease/s does the genus HHV-3 produce?
(Varicella-zoster virus)- (respiratory)
chicken pox, shingles
what disease/s does the genus HHV-4 produce?
Epstein-Barr virus (saliva, kissing)
infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt's lymphoma
what disease/s does the genus HHV-5 produce?
(cytomegalovirus)- (close contact, body fluids, transplacental)

mononucleosis, hepatits, pnemonitis
TORCH
what disease/s does the genus HHV-6 produce?
(Roseola virus)- (respiatory) infantile exanthem subitum (6th disease)
what disease/s does the genus HHV-8 produce?
(close contact)
Kaposi's sarcoma
what disease/s does the genus HPV produce?
(human papillomavirus)-(naked)-(close contact)
Wart on skin and genital region
Condyloma acuminatum
Cervical/penile cancer
what disease/s does the genus polyomavirus produce?
(naked)(respiratory)
kidney
progressive mutifocal
leukoencephalopathy