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40 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) Which of the following is an organ of the gastrointestinal tract?

A) the salivary glands


B) the gallbladder


C) the esophagus


D) the pancreas


E) the liver

C) the esophagus
2) Where in the digestive tract does the absorption of water take place?

A) the large intestine


B) the small intestine


C) the rectum


D) the stomach


E) the esophagus

A) the large intestine
3) Which of the following is a fungus which commonly lives in the large intestine?

A) Bacteroides


B) Escherichia


C) Campylobacter


D) Candida


E) Lactobacillus

D) Candida
4) Streptococcus mutans is associated with

A) dental caries.


B) periodontitis.


C) food poisoning.


D) severe diarrhea.


E) typhoid fever.

A) dental caries.

5) Porphyromonas gingivalis is associated with


A) gastroenteritis.


B) typhoid fever.


C)periodontitis.


D) food poisoning.


E) hepatitis.

C) periodontitis.

) Which of the following is now known to be the cause of most peptic ulcers?

A) Vibrio cholerae


B) Escherichia coli O157:H7


C) Shigella dysenteriae


D) Salmonella enterica


E) Helicobacter pylori

E) Helicobacter pylori
7) Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?

A) Porphyromonas gingivalis


B) Vibrio cholerae


C) Escherichia coli O157:H7


D) Helicobacter pylori


E) Shigella dysenteriae

D) Helicobacter pylori
8) The most important virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae is

A) the presence of polar flagella.


B) its ability to survive in freshwater.


C) its ability to form biofilms in saltwater.


D) its activation of certain genes within the human body.


E) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.

E) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.
9) The major symptoms of cholera are attributable to which of the following?

A) production of urease


B) activity of a type III secretion system


C) cessation of protein synthesis in host cells


D) death of cells lining the intestinal tract


E) activation of adenylate cyclase

E) activation of adenylate cyclase
10) Which of the following serotypes of Salmonella enterica causes most cases of human salmonellosis in the United States?

A) Enteritidis


B) Paratyphi


C) Typhimurium


D) Typhi


E) both Enteritidis and Typhimurium

E) both Enteritidis and Typhimurium

11) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of coliforms?


A) They are Gram-positive bacilli.


B) They are found in the intestinal tracts of humans and animals.


C) They ferment lactose.


D) They are strictly anaerobic.


E) They are never pathogenic.

C) They ferment lactose.

12) Escherichia. coli O157:H7 is primarily associated with which of the following foods?

A) ground beef


B) dairy products


C) eggs


D) fomites


E) pork

A) ground beef

13) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is


A) Salmonella enterica.


B) Giardia intestinalis.


C) Cryptosporidium parvum.


D) Escherichia coli.


E) Shigella flexneri.

D) Escherichia coli.

14) Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by the fact that Shigella


A) stimulates intestinal epithelial cells to phagocytize it


B) multiplies in phagocytic vesicles.


C) kills host cells.


D) multiplies in the host cell's cytosol.


E) causes severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever.

D) multiplies in the host cell's cytosol.

15) The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea that sends people to doctors in the United States is

A) Salmonella.


B) Staphylococcus.


C) Vibrio.


D) Escherichia.


E) Campylobacter.

E) Campylobacter.

16) A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea accompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions in the large intestine. The probable causative agent is


A) Giardia intestinalis.


B) Clostridium difficile.


C) Campylobacter.


D) Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi.


E) Vibrio cholerae.

B) Clostridium difficile.

17) The common source of contamination in the majority of cases of staphylococcal food poisoning (intoxication) is

A) dairy products.


B) eggs.


C) fecal contamination.


D) the skin of food preparers.


E) contaminated water.

D) the skin of food preparers.

18) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes?


A) Lesions become more severe with each recurrence.


B) Ninety percent of all cases are caused by human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2).


C) Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes.


D) Primary infections are usually characterized by severe lesions.


E) There is an effective cure for oral herpes.

C) Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes.

19) Which of the following is the major sign or symptom of mumps?

A) diarrhea


B) nausea and vomiting


C) deafness


D) parotitis


E) difficulty in breathing

D) parotitis
20) The viruses responsible for the majority of infant deaths resulting from diarrhea in the world are the

A) noroviruses.


B) rotaviruses.


C) caliciviruses.


D) astroviruses.


E) hepaciviruses.

B) rotaviruses.
21) Which of the following hepatitis viruses usually produces subclinical infections?

A) HAV


B) HBV


C) HCV


D) HDV


E) HEV

C) HCV
22) The intracellular parasite usually acquired in contaminated drinking water which causes a persistent watery diarrhea is

A) hepatitis A virus.


B) Cryptosporidium parvum.


C) Entamoeba histolytica.


D) Vibrio cholerae.


E) norovirus.

B) Cryptosporidium parvum.

23) Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage?


A) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses


B) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses


C) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses


D) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses


E) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses

C) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses

24) A vaccine is available against which of the following?

A) hepatitis A


B) hepatitis B


C) hepatitis C


D) both hepatitis A and hepatitis B


E) hepatitis A, B, and C

D) both hepatitis A and hepatitis B

25) Of the following, who is most likely to develop a chronic infection with hepatitis B virus?


A) children between the ages of 2 and 12


B) newborns


C) females at puberty


D) young adults


E) the elderly

B) newborns

26) A man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in color. He has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. The physician notes that his eyes are yellowish and his abdomen is swollen. The man has a history of kidney transplant and recently returned from an overseas trip. The man may be infected with


A) hepatitis C virus.


B) hepatitis E virus.


C) norovirus.


D) Shigella.


E) Entamoeba histolytica

B) hepatitis E virus.

27) Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection is made by the observation of which of the following in the patient's body fluids?

A) O antigens


B) enterotoxins


C) endospores


D) oocysts


E) Dane particles

E) Dane particles
28) Which of the following is a notable symptom of giardiasis?

A) "rice-water" stools


B) irritability and sleep disturbance


C) jaundice


D) foul-smelling "rotten egg" stools


E) cold sores

D) foul-smelling "rotten egg" stools
29) Which of the following causes "beaver fever?"

A) Entamoeba histolytica


B) Taenia saginata


C) Giardia intestinalis


D) Enterobius vermicularis


E) Campylobacter jejuni

C) Giardia intestinalis
30) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to Entamoeba histolytica?

A) It reproduces by schizogony.


B) It uses pseudopodia to attach to the intestinal lining.


C) It causes a form of hepatitis.


D) It is an intracellular parasite.


E) An effective vaccine against infection is available.

B) It uses pseudopodia to attach to the intestinal lining.
31) Where in a tapeworm would you expect to find fertilized eggs?

A) the neck region of the strobila


B) at the end of the strobila


C) inside the scolex


D) outside the cuticle


E) in all proglottids

B) at the end of the strobila
32) Tapeworms are usually transmitted to humans through ingestion of

A) cysticerci.


B) gravid proglottids.


C) tapeworm eggs.


D) mature tapeworms.


E) tapeworm larvae.

A) cysticerci.
33) Differentiation between Taenia saginata and Taenia solium is carried out via examination of the

A) scolex.


B) cysticerci.


C) proglottids.


D) eggs.


E) larvae.

A) scolex.
34) Which of the following is a common childhood parasite in the United States?

A) Taenia solium


B) Enterobius vermicularis


C) Entamoeba histolytica


D) Cryptosporidium parvum


E) Giardia intestinalis

B) Enterobius vermicularis
35) What is the primary symptom of Enterobius infections?

A) bloody diarrhea


B) liver enlargement


C) perianal itching


D) intestinal blockage


E) vomiting and nausea

C) perianal itching
36) A large number of people in a community experience diarrhea with fever. Public health authorities investigate and find that the people are passing dark urine, and some have yellowish skin. Furthermore, all of the affected individuals recently ate at a new restaurant in town known for its wide variety of fresh imported vegetables. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

A) Escherichia coli O157:H7


B) Salmonella enterica


C) hepatitis A virus


D) hepatitis E virus


E) norovirus

C) hepatitis A virus
37) The DNA virus known as "serum hepatitis" is

A) HAV.


B) HBV.


C) HCV.


D) HDV.


E) HEV.

B) HBV.
38) Peritonitis may develop in severe cases of

A) giardiasis.


B) hepatitis.


C) pinworm infestation.


D) typhoid.


E) peptic ulcer disease.

D) typhoid.
39) What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease?

A) Escherichia coli O157:H7


B) Clostridium difficile


C) Salmonella enterica


D) Giardia intestinalis


E) Lactobacillus

B) Clostridium difficile

40) Accessory organ infections are caused by


A) human herpesvirus 1.


B) norovirus.


C) mumps virus.


D) rotavirus.


E) enterovirus.

C) mumps virus.