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250 Cards in this Set

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aS DEFINED BY THE eeoc, ADVERSE IMPACT IS SUGGESTED WHEN:
A. VALIDITY COEFFICIENTS FOR DIFFERENT GROUPS DIFFER
b. selection rates for different groups differ
c. criterion performance for different groups differ
d. predictor means for different groups differ
b. selection rates for different groups differ - Several techniques r used 2 determine if adverse impact is occurring including the 80% rule and establishment of test bias
Meta-analyses of the research suggest that, as predictors for a variety of jobs, cognitive ability tests:
a. have lower validity coefficients than biodata across all types of criterion measures
b. have low to mod validity coefficients for objective criterion measures
c. have low validity coefficients for less objective criterion measures but mod to high coefficients for more objective measures
d. have higher validity coefficients than other predictors with the size of the coefficient increasing as the objectivity of the criterion measure increases
d. have higher validity coefficients than other predictors with the size of the coefficient increasing as the objectivity of the criterion measure increases
Donald Super uses a "rainbow" in his theory of career development to depict
a. the roles a person assumes during the course of her life
b. the opportunities availa to a person at diff points in her life
c. a person's skills and abilities at diff stages of develop
a. the roles a person assumes during the course of her life
Which of the following is central to the predictions made by equity theory?
a. social power
b. social comparison
c. social contagion
d. social penetration theory
b. social comparison - according to equity theory, worker motivation is related to the comparisons workers made between their own input/outcome ratio and those of other workers doing the same or a similar job
When she was hired by her company, Polly was told that she'd be receiving raises and bonuses as long as her work continues to be satisfactory. Two years later, the promises made to Polly have not been fulfilled even though she has received good performance reviews from her supervisor. According to expectancy theory, which of the following of Polly's beliefs will be most negatively affected by this situation:
a. valency
b. self-efficacy
c. expectancy
d. instrumentality
d. instrumentality - Expectancy theory proposes that motivation depends on three beliefs - expectancy, instrumentality, and valency. Instrumentality refers to the belief that one's performance wil lead to certain rewards.
According to herzberg's two-factor theory:
a. a worker is either satisfied or dissatisfied
b. at least theoretically, a worker can be both satisfied and dissatisfied
c. to be satisfied, a worker must have adequate levels of both hygiene and motivator factors
b. at least theoretically, a worker can be both satisfied and dissatisfied
Locke and Latham's goal-setting theory relates goals most explicitly to:
a. perceptions and performance
b. desirability and performance
c. effort and intentions
d. effort and perceived effort
c. effort and intentions
Salesperson X makes twice as many sales as Salesperson Z but receives the same salary. Equity theory predicts that Salesperson X:
a. is intrinsically motivated
b. has a high need for achievment
c. will ask for a raise
d. will talk about Salesperson Z behind her back
c. will ask for a raise
A manager uses a "decision tree" to determine if an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making style would be most appropriate. Apparently this manager is relying on the work of:
a. House
b. Fiedler
c. Hersey and Blanchard
d. Vroom and Yetton
d. Vroom and Yetton
Recent meta-analyses of the research comparing male and female leaders indicates tha, in terms of decision-making style:
a. males and females do not differ in a predictable way
b. females tend to adopt a more demoncratic style than males
c. males tend to adopt a more participative style than females
b. females tend to adopt a more democratic style than males
A transformational leader
a: relies on extrinsic rewards to gain the cooperation of followers
b. focuses more on changing the job than on changing the employees
c. demonstrates an ability to inspire followers to achieve change
c. demonstrates an ability to inspire followers to achieve change
Social facilitation is most likely to occur when:
a. performing a newly learned task
b. performing a well learned task
c. participating in a homogeneous grou]
d. participating in a heterogeneous group
b. performing a well learned task - facilitation (correct performance) occurs when the task is easy and well learned; inhibition (poor performance) when the task isnew or very complex
A manager is choosing employees to work together on a team project. When selecting team members, she should keep in mind that:
a. heterogeneous groups are more creative and better at decision-making than homogeneous groups
b. homogeneous groups are more creative and better at decision-making than heterogeneous groups
c. heterogeneous groups are more creative but worse at decision making than homogeneous groups
a. heterogeneous groups are more creative and better at decision making than homogeneous groups
Ration-economic decision-making often fails in organizations as the result of:
a. people's basic irrationality
b. a lack of time and information
c. a lack of acceptable alternatives to choose from
d. a lack of commitment to the organization's goals
b. a lack of time and information
Feelings of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and low personal accomplishments are symptomatic of
a. chronic boredom
b. low commitment
c. role conflicts
d. burnout
d. burnout
Research on flexitime has found it be most highly correlated with
a. morale
b. productivity
c. stress
d. accidents
a. morale
_______ criterion measures include direct measure of production and _______.
Objective; personnel data
Subjective criterion measures take the form of _____, which are most commonly completed by ______.
rating scales; employee's supervisor
Unfortunately, rating scales are susceptible to a number of rater _____.
biases
The _______ bias occurs when a rater tends to use the mid-range of the rating scale for all ratees, while the _____ occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of performance affects how she is rated on all other dimensions.
central tendency; halo effect
Rater training is a particularly effective way of improving rating scales, esp when it emphasizes the ability to :
distinguish between levels of performance
Relative measures of job performance include the ______ technique, which is time-consuming when there are many employees to rate, and the ______ which resembles "grading on the curve.
paired comparison; forced distribution
Absolute measures include the _____ technique, which entails identifying specific behaviors associated with successful and unsuccessful job peformance, and BARS, a type of graphic rating scale that attempts to reduce rater _____ by anchoring points on the scale with _____.
critical incident; biases; critical incidents; behavioral anchors
A supervisor is reluctant to rate his supervisees in an unfavorable way and tends to rate supervisees as either very good or superior on all dimensions of job performance. This supervisor is exhibiting a ______ bias.
leniency
A job _____ is conducted specifically to determine the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages.
evaluation
True or False: The forced choice technique is a relative measure of performance that tends to alleviate leniency, strictness, and central tendency biases.
False - absolute
True or False: The use of global (general) descriptions of job performance is more likely to yeild accurate ratings than the use of very specific descriptions.
False
True or False: The halo effect refers to a rater's tendency to rate all supervisees identical to the way she rated one of her supervisees.
False
True or False: Self-ratings tend to be mor lenient than peer and supervisor ratings
True
Performance appraisals are most frequently conducted in organizations to:
a. validate selection procedures
b. facilitate job evals
c. make decisions about raises and bonuses
c. make decisions about raises and bonuses
When using the Critical Incident Technique, critical incidents are usually identified by:
a. the supervisor who observes an employee while she works
b. the employee who maintains a detailed job diary
c. a job analyst who administers a structured interview
a. the supervisor who observes an employee while she works
The doctrine of comparable worth proposes that salries should reflect:
a. the market value of each job
b. the intrinsic worth of each job
c. the individual employee's productivity level
b. the intrinsic worth of each job
The best way to reduce rater biases is to:
a. train the raters
b. use the single-blind technique
c. use an absolute measure
a. train the raters
When assessing the ____ of a predictor, u r trying to find out if it actually measures what it was designed to measure.
validity
For a work sample test ____ validity is most important, while ____ validity is of greater concern for a measure of intelligence or achievement motivation.
content; construct
_____ validity is evaluated by correlating predictor scores with ______ scores.
criterion related; criterion
Before using a predictor to make selection decisions, its _____ (decision-making accuracy) should be checked.
incremental validity
A predictor is more likely to have a positive effect on decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is ___ and the base rate is _____.
low; moderate
The predictor should also be ______ on another sample. When this is done, the validity coefficient can be expected to _____.
cross-validitate; shrink
To increase decision-making accuracy, multiple predictors is acceptable, ______ can be used to combine predictor score; when compensation is unacceptable, _____ is preferred.
multiregression; multi-cutoff or multiple hurdles
According to the 80% rule, ____ is occurring when the hiring rate for the minority group is less than 80% of the hiring rate for _____.
adverse impact; the majority group
Such discrimination might be the result of _____ validity, which occurs when a predictor's validity coefficient is substantially different for different groups,
differential
or ______, which occurs when members of both groups do just about as well on the criterion but members of one group score consistently lower on the ______.
unfairness; predictor
If a selection technique is found to be discriminating against members of a particular group, the employer can argue that its continued use represents a ____ or that the characteristic of concern if a bona fide occupational qualification.
business necessity
The Americans with Disabilities Act requires employers to make ____ for a disabled person who is able to perform the essential functions of the job.
reasonable accomodations
Recent meta-analyses indicate that _____ tests are the most consistently valid predictors, with the highest coefficients being reported when the criterion measure is ____.
cognitive ability; a work sample (an objective criterion measure).
Of the Big Five personality factors, _____ is the best predictor of job performance.
conscientiousness
Interest tests are not good predictors of job performance but do seem to be useful for predicting job ______.
choice, satisfaction, and persistence
Biographical Information Blanks have higher validity coefficients than standard application blanks because they are ____ derived.
empirically
However they may be resisted by applicants because they lack _____ validity.
face
Although interviews are, by far, the most commonly-used selection technique, their _____ coefficients tend to be low.
validity
The accuracy of interviews is improved by training interviewers and by using a _____ interview format.
structured
Finally, a distinguishing feature of assessment centers are their includsion of _____ such as the in-basket test
situational tests (work samples)
True or False. Differential validity is occurring when the validity of a test for one subgroup differs substantially from its validity for another subgroup.
True
True or False. Using the 80% Rule, u can correctly assume that a test is having an adverse impact for women if use of the test results in a hiring rate of over 80% for men but a hiring rate of less than 80% for women.
False
True or False. Multiple regression is considered to be "compensatory."
True
True or False. The absence of differential valdity is proof that a test does not have an adverse impact.
False
"Shrinkage" is associated with:
a. cross-validation
b. utility
c. differential validity
a. cross-validation
Interest tests are LEAST predictive of:
a. job success
b. job satisfaction
c. job choice
a. job success
In terms of incremental validity, which of the following selection ratios is preferred:
a. 1:20
b. 2:20
c. 20:40
a. 1:20
All other things being equal, a predictor will have the greatest impact on decision-making accuracy when the base rate is equal to:
a. .25
b. .55
c. .95
.55
A feature that distinguishes an assessment center from many other evaluation techniques is that:
a. it eliminates the need tot rain raters
b. it is an unbiased way to evaluate lower-level employees
c. it includes the use of situational tests
c. it includes the use of situational tests
An applicant for a computer programmer job is asked to trouble-shoot a program. What type of validity is of MOST importance for this selection technique:
a. construct
b. predictive
c. content
c. content
An in-basket test would be most useful for evaluating:
a. managerial-level employees
b,. blue-collar workers
c. clerical personnel
a. managerial-level employees
A trainability test:
a. is a paper and pencil measure of aptitude
b. focuses on work history
c. presents applicants with a work sample
c. presents applicants with a work sample
According to the "validity generalization studies," differential validity:
a. occurs more often than not
b. is a relatively rare phenomenon
c. applies to race but not gender
b. is a relatively rare phenomenon
Cognitive ability tests are:
a. generally less predictive of job performance than other techniques
b. good predictors, especially when the criterion is objective
c. good predictors only for managerial-level jobs
b. good predictors, especially when the criterion is objective
Training program development ordinatily begins with a ______.
needs assessment
When developing training programs, it is important to keep in mind that learning is maximized when practice is _____.
spaced
_____ is promoted by encouraging continued learning and practice beyond the point of mastery.
overlearning
Job ____ is an on the job technique that involves having the trainee perform several jobs,
rotation
_______ is an off the job technique that makes use of simulated working conditions.
Vestibule training
Management development training often focuses on leadership skills and makes use of _____ such as Looking Glass, Inc., and the Leaderless Group Discussion.
simulations
Team _____ differs from team training in that it has team members identify their own problems and solutions to those problems
building
For the chronic mentally ill, the current approach emphasizes a _____ perspective, which involves matching individuals with jobs and providing them with ongoing instruction and other services.
place then train (supported employement)
Work force projections for the year 2000 suggest that, in terms of age, the work force will become increasingly ____
older - middle age
Moreover, about _____ of new entrants into the work force will be members of minority groups.
1/3
The primary goal of a _____ is to reduce turnover by reducing unrealistic expectations about the job.
realistic job preview
______ refers to the compatibility between people and the organization.
Person-organization fit
Employee assistance programs (EAPS) are part of the benefit package offered by organizations to their employees. Under normal circumstances, a client's confidentiality is maintained and limited information can be provided to a supervisor only when she has ______.
referred the employee to the EAP
Research indicates that unemployment is often accompanied by a deterioration in ______ health.
mental and physical
To help reduce the negative effects of unemployment, management should maximize communication with employees and make an _____ program available to those who have been laid-off.
outplacement
According to Super, _____ is the key factor in career choice.
self-concept
According to Super, ____ is the key factor in career choice.
self-concept
To facilitate vocational counseling, the CareerDevelopment Inventory is used to identify an individual's level of ____.
career maturity
For Roe, the primary determinants of occupational choice are personality and _____.
basic needs
Finally Holland's theory emphasizes the importance of a good match between the individual's ____ and the characteristics of the work environment.
personality
True or False In most training situations, massed practice is more effective than spaced practice.
False
True or False. Providing "identical elements" helps increase transfer of training.
True
True or False. Under normal conditions, an employee's supervisor can be provided with information about an employee's progress in treatment provided through an EAP.
False
A first step in a needs assessment is to:
a. identify employee deficiencies in knowledge, skills, and abilities
b. set objective standards of evaluation
c. determine if training is the solution to the company's productivity problems
c. determine if training is the solution to the company's productivity problems
Overlearning is:
a. inadvisable
b. desirable
c. unattainable
b. desirable
Projections for the year 2000 indicate that one-third of the entering work force in coming years will be:
a. women
b. members of minority groups
c. recent immigrants
b. members of minority groups
The primary goal of a realistic job preview is to:
a. reduce turnover
b. increase productivity
c. facilitate placement decisions
a. reduce turnover
Vestibule training is:
a. for job incumbents who lack basic educational skills
b. useful when irrors that occur during on the job training would be too costly
c. useful for determining which job fits a person's abilities
b. useful when errors that occur during on the job training would be too costly
According to Holland, the optimal situation is for the job environment to match the individual's:
a. stated goals
b. aptitude
c. personality
c. personality
For Super, vocational choice involves matching the characteristics of the job to one's:
a. need structure
b. developmental level
c. self-concept
c. self-concept
An early approach to management theory was Taylor's notion of ____, which emphasizes breaking jobs down into component parts, having each employee perform a single component, and relying primarily on ____ to motivate employees.
scientific management; economic rewards/pay
Max Weber's _____, another early approach, stresses the structure of the organization and advocates a _____ structure and a division of labor.
hierarchical
In contrast to these earlier strategies, the _____ approach acknowledges the impact of social relationships on productivity and morale, especially the role of _____ norms.
human relations; informal workgroup
The Hawthorne studies, a major contributor to this approach, found that employees will perform better because of the attention they receive as _____.
research participants
McGregor distinguished between Theory X and Theory Y managers and proposed that a ____ approach is most effective because it adopts a more positive view of workers and assumes they are capable of self-_____.
Theory Y
control & direction
The incorporation of the Japanese approach into American organizations is illustrated by Ouchi's distinction between Theory A and Theory J. The Japanese approach (Theory J) places greater empasis on ____ responsibility and decision-making, slow evaluation and promotion, anad a _____ career path.
collective; nonspecialized
Job performance can be viewed as a function of _____, motivation, and environment.
ability
Maslow's theory proposes that needs are arranged in a _____ and that higher-level needs act as _____ only when lower-level needs have been satisfied.
hierarchy; motivators
McClelland, the need for achievement is an important determinant of motivation.People high in nACH prefer _____ and regard money as a source of _______.
moderately difficult; feedback adn recognition
Herzberg's _____ theory addresses both motivation and _____.
two-factor; satisfaction
It proposes that dissatisfaction and satisfaction are independent factors and that dissatisfaction is affected by ____ factors, while satisfaction is related to the availability of ____ factors.
hygiene; motivator
Herzberg's theory predicts that workers will be maximally motivated if they are provided with ____ jobs, which give employees a high degree of _____.
enriched; autonomy
Job _____ involves increasing a job's horizontal loading, while the job characteristics model describes a job in terms of five core dimensions that have an impact on three critical ____ of the worker.
enlargement; psychological states
Goal setting theory predicts that workers will be maximally motivated when they have consciously ____ work goals;
accepted
when goals are moderately ______ and when workers are provided with _____ about their progress toward achieving the goals.
difficult; feedback
According to equity theory, a worker's motivation and productivity are affected by comparisons between her ______ and those of others.
input/outcome ratio
Finally, expectancy theory views motivation as a multiplicative function of expectance, instrumentality, and _____.
valence
An advocate of scientific management would most likely agree with which of the following:
a. intrinsic motivation is superior to extrinsic motivation for maximizing productivity
b. informal work group norms are an important determinant of job performance
c. workers value money more than any other reward, and pay is therefore, the only useful motivator
c. workers value money more than any other reward, and pay is therefore the only useful motivator
A manager with a Theory X philosophy would be most likely to say that her role as a manger:
a. is to help employees identify and achieve their common goals and objectives
b. is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals
c. varies, depending on factors related to the organization's environment
b. is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals
The original intent of the Hawthorne studies was to:
a. investigate the role of social relationships on worker productivity
b. identify the most effective way for employees to perform complex jobs
c. determine the effects of environmental conditions on productivity
c. determine the effects of environmental conditions on productivity
A proponent of which of the following theories would be most likely to agree that motivation is low when employees see little connection between their effort and performance:
a. equity theory
b. expectancy theory
c. two-factor theory
b. expectancy theory
According to ______, an employee's motivation is due to a comparison of her input/outcome ratio to the ratios of employees doing comparable work:
a. equity theory
b. expectancy theory
c. two-factor theory
a. equity theory
True or False. Goal-setting theory predicts that an employee will work harder to achieve an easy or moderately easy goal than a difficult goal.
False
True or False, According to Herzber, motivators contribute to job satisfaction, while hygience factors affect satisfaction and dissatisfaction.
False
Job _____ involves redesigning a job so that it includes a greater variety or number of tasks but does not involve greater responsibility or autonomy.
enlargement
Successful entrepreneurs and others with high nACH are likely to prefer tasks that are ____.
moderately difficult
From the perspective of goal setting theory, performance feedback :
a. is unnecessary as long as goals have been explicitly accepted
b. is a necssary but not sufficient condition for goal achievement
c. is more imp than the acceptance of goals
b. is a necessary but not sufficient condition for goal achievement
An implication of Maslow's theory of motivation is that a company:
a. must adjust the rewards it provides to fit each employee's needs
b. should ensure that each job is designed so that it provides opportunities to fulfill self-actualization needs
c. should make sure that employee's perceive their rewards as equitable
a. must adjust the rewards it provides to fit each employee's needs
Alderfer's ERG theory predicts that:
a. needs usually emerge in a prepotent order
b. people are motivated only by needs at one level at any point in time
c. frustration of a need can cause regression to a lower need level
c. frustration of a need can cause regression to a lower need level
In terms of age, ____ workers tend to be more dissatisfied and to expect their jobs to provide them with personal fulfillment and opportunities for ____.
younger; advancement
In addition, ____ collar workers and members of _____ groups are generally less satisfied with their jobs.
blue; minority
In terms of job characteristics, some studies suggest that the job factor most associated with job dissatisfaction is a lack of opportunity to _____.
use one's skills and abilities
Research on the effects of pay has had ____ results and it appears that an employee's _____ regarding the fairness of pay is probably the most critical factor.
mixed; attitude
Satisfaction and dissatisfaction are associated with several consequences. Although correlations between satisfaction and productivity are ______, a fairly strong inverse correlation (around -.40) is usually found between satisfaction and ______.
positive but low (around .14); turnover
Palmore found job satisfaction to be a better predictor of _____ than either physical health or tobacco use.
longevity
There are two types of organizational commitment: ______.
affective and continuance
Although a high degree of commitment is not strongly related to improved productivity, it is associated with higher levels of motivation and satisfaction and lower levels of _____.
absenteeism and turnover
Studies investigating leadership styles have shown that overall a(n) ______ leader is associated with the highest levels of productivity especially when the leader is present.
autocratic
In contrast, workers with a ____ leader are most likely to continue working in the absence of the leader.
democratic
Leader behavior can be described in terms of two basic dimensions: consideration and ______.
initiating structure
While female and male leaders do not differ in terms of these two dimensions, female leaders are more likely to adopt a _______ decision-making style.
participative
Fiedler's _____ model distinguishes between high and low ____ leaders.
contingency; LPC
The former are most effective in situations that are _____, while the latter are more effective when the situation is _______.
moderately favorable; very high or low in favorableness
According to Hersey and Blanchard's _____ model, the choice of an effective leadership style depends on the employees' level of ______, which is determined by a combination of ability and willingness to take responsibility.
situational leadership; job maturity
A participating leader, for instance, is most effective when employees are high in _____ and low in ______.
ability; willingness
The Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative model provides a _____ to help leaders select the optimal decision-making strategy.
decision tree
A ____ leader is characterized by good impression management skills, social sensitivity, and empathy and relies on expert and ___ power to influence his followers.
charasmatic; referent
A _____ leader is marked by a recognition of the need for change and the ability to create a _____ that guides that change.
transformational; vision
In contrast, a _____ leader focuses more on stability than on change.
transactional
Job dissatisfaction is MOST strongly correlated with
a. accident rates
b. absenteeism
c. turnover
c. turnover
Kornhauser's survey of autoworkers found that which of the following is the best predictor of job satisfaction and mental health:
a. task enlargement
b. physical work conditions
c. opportunities for skill utilization
c. opportunities for skill utilization
If you correlate score on measures of satisfaction and productivity obtained from a random sample of employees, you would obtain a correlation coefficient closest to:
a. .15
b. .45
c. -.10
a. .15
According to Fiedler's congingency model of leadership, low LPC leaders perform most effectively in:
a. unfavorable situations
b. moderately favorable sits
c. highly unfavorable and highly favorable sits
c. highly unfavorable and highly favorable situations
The situational leadership model proposes that a leader's style:
a. is fixed and cannot change
b. should match the employee's maturity
c. should match the characteristics of the task
b. should match the employee's maturity
Subordinates are most likely to continue working in the absence of their leader and to have a good relationship with their leader when the leader is:
a. autocratic
b. democratic
c. laissez-faire
b. democratic
If you are using a decision-tree to determine which leadership style to adopt (e.g., autocratic, consultative, or group), you are relying on the work of:
a. Vroom and Yetton
b. Hersey and Blanchard
c. Lewin and White
a. Vroom and Yetton (a Yetti on a tree, trying to making a decision/scatching his head)
True or False: Affective commitment is more strongly correlated with productivity than with absenteeism or turnover
False
True or False: A leader who is high in "initiating structure" is essentially person-oriented.
False
true or false: A transformational leader motivates and inspires followers by imbuing their jobs with meaning and challenge.
True
True or False: From the perspective of path-goal theory, a leader can alter her style to fit the demands of the situation.
True
Research has shown that female leaders tend to score highest on measure of consideration, while male leaders score highest on measure of initiating structure.
False
Work groups typically pass through five stages: forming, _____, norming, performing, and ______.
storming, adjourning
Conformity to group norms is maximized when the task if ______ or complex; when group consensus is high; and when members ____ the norms.
ambiguous; help define
Deviation from group norms is usually not allowed except when a member has accumulated -_____.
idiosyncracy credits
Group cohesiveness is maximized when group members are relatively _____ with regard to personality characteristics, abilities, etc.; when it was _____ to get into teh group; and when there is an external _____.
homogeneous; difficult; threat
Group tasks can be classified as one of four types. When the task is ____, the final group product represents a combination of the contributions of individual group members; but when the task is _____, the final product is the average of the individual member's contributions.
additive; compensatory
For a _____ task, group performance is limited by the weakest member, and for a ____ task, group members pick the solution offered by one of the members.
conjunctive; disjunctive
Social _____ is one consequence of group membership.
loafing
It occurs when members exert less _____ when participating in a group than when working alone.
effort
The mere presence of others can result in either social ____ or inhibition.
facilitation
The former is more likely when the task is _____ , while the latter is more likely when the task is _____.
simple or well-learned; complex or new
In terms of motivation, for teams working on interdependent tasks, the best strategy is to have ____ goals and a _____ reward system.
group; cooperative
Communication networks are classified as centralized or decentralized. Centralized networks are most effective for _____ tasks, while decentralized networks are better for _______ and are associated with greater overall _____.
simple; complex; satisfaction
When using a ____ model, a decision-maker rationally considers all alternatives and chooses the optimal one.
rational-economic
From the perspective of the bounded rationality model, the decision maker tends to _____ rather than optimize by choosing the first alternative that meets the minimum acceptable criteria.
satisfice
While group decisionmaking is often better than individual decisionmaking, it can be negatively affected by _____, which occurs when a highly cohesive group suspends ______.
groupthink; critical thinking
The problem can be alleviated by having someone play _____ or by refraining from reaching premature decisions.
devil's advocate
Another potential problem is group _____, which occurs when groups make decisions that are either more risky or more ____ than individual decisions.
polarization; conservative
Methods for improving group decisionmaking include _____ which entails allowing members to say whatever comes to mind without criticism and the delphi and ____ techniques, which attempt to alleviate the problems associated with group decisionmaking by limiting face to face contact and discussion.
brainstorming; nominal group
The fairness of organizational decisions can be judged in terms of three types of justice: distributive, procedural and ______.
interactional
There is some evidence that employees rely most on ____ justice when evaluating the fairness of salries.
procedural
True or False: Idiosyncrasy credits allow a group member to temporarily deviate from established group norms.
True
True or False. Conformity to group norms tends to be highest in structured, unambiguous situations.
False
True or False: Brainstorming by a four member group is likely to result in more creative ideas than brainstorming by four separate individuals
False
True or False: In a centralized communication network the central person usually is more satisfied, but overall satisfaction is greater in decentralized networks.
True
True or False: The research has clearly shown that on interdependent tasks, a combination of individual and group goals is superior to group goals alone.
False
During the third stage of group formation, cohesiveness develops and group norms are established. This stage typically follows a stage marked by ______.
conflict/storming
Social ______ is most likely to occur when the task is simple or well-learned.
facilitation
A primary cause of the failure of rational decision-making is
a. lack of effective solutions
b. cognitive errors
c. limited time and information
c. limited time and information
Groupthink is least likely to occur when:
a. dissent among group members is encouraged
b. groups are highly cohesive
c. group members are allowed to determine group goals
a. dissent among group members is encouraged
Team heterogeneity:
a. is best for simple tasks
b. is associated with better creativity and decision-making
c. is assoc with reduced quality of performance
b. is associated with better creativity and decision-making
A group of mountain climbers can move no more quickly than the speed of the slowest member. THis is an example of a:
a. disjunctive task
b. conjunctive task
c. compensatory task
b. conjunctive task
Group polarization refers to:
a. the development of multiple group identities
b. extreme thinking
c. an unwillingness to take risks
b. extreme thinking
Although OD interventions vary, they all share an emphasis on ____ change and the application of _____ principles.
planned; behavioral
QWL programs are designed to ______ work and include quality circles, which are voluntary groups that meet regularly to discuss work related problems.
humanize
Research on QCs suggest that their primary effect is on _____.
attitudes
______ teams make decisions previously made by management.
self-directed work
Process consultation is aimed at helping employees improve the processes underlying their _____, while survey feedback focuses more on employee _____.
interactions; attitudes and beliefs
TQM emphasizes customer service, employee involvement, and _______.
continuous improvement
According to Lewin, planned change in an organization involves three stages: unfreezing, changing, and _____.
refreezing
Economic insecurity and fear of the unknown are ____ factors that cause resistance to change, while structural inertia and limited resources are ______ barriers.
individual; organizational
An advantage of an _____ change agent is that she is more familiar with the company.
internal
In contrast, an ____ change agent is more likely to view the situation objectively.
external
In terms of data collection, _____ are useful for obtaining info from a large number of employees, while _____ is helpful for collecting info on overt behavior and interactions.
questionnaires; direct observation
Formal methods of conflict resolution include bargaining, which is more likely to be successful when all parties view it as a ++++ situation.
win-win
In _____, a neutral third party attempts to facilitate voluntary agreement between the disputants.
mediation
In arbitration, the third party has greater authority. With _____ arbitration, the arbitrator's recommendation must be accepted by the parties.
binding
In _____ arbitration, the arbitrator is free to choose any settlement solution.
conventional
True or False. Members of self-managed teams make work-related decisions that were formerly made by management (e.g., decisions related to hiring, training, and budgets.).
True
True or False. Research on quality circles has shown that they are more effective for increasing motivation and satisfaction than productivity.
True
True or False. An internal change agent is more likely to have the power and authority needed to accomplish an OD intervention than an external agent.
False
OD interventions vary bu focus primarily on:
a. people and their interactions
b. technological change
c. organizational structure
a. people and their interactions
A process consultant initially:
a. observes workers as they interact
b. meets with individual disputants
c. develops an action plan
a. observes workers as they interact
Having employees meet in groups to discuss alternative ways of accomplishing change is an example of which strategy:
a. power-coercive
b. rational-empirical
c. normative-reeducative
normative-reeducative
Mediators:
a. make recommendations that may or may not be accepted
b. make recommendations that must be accepted
c. offer advice and suggestions but do not make recommendations
a. make recommendations that may or may not be accepted
TQM reflects a:
a. customer-based philosophy
b. individualistic philosophy
c. transactional philosophy
a. customer-based philosophy
Human factors psychology is characterized by the adoption of a ______ approach, which views performance failures as the result of a _____.
systems; person-machine mismatch
When designing jobs and job environments, human factors psychologists recognize that people and machines have different capabilities. For instance, people are better at sensing unusual or _____ events, reasoning ______.
unexpected; inductively
and focusing on the most important activities, while machines are better at performing ______ activities reliably and applying ______ reasoning.
repetitive; deductive
With regard to safey, a key factor appears to be _____ commitment to safety programs.
top management
Although between 50 and 80% of all accidents in organizations are attributable to ______, the search for an accident-prone personality has been largely unsuccessful.
human error
However, higher accidents rates are found among ______ employees and employees who are apathetic or emotionally _____.
younger; low
To reduce the negative impact of fatigue, rest breaks should be provided during the _____ hours of work.
4th and 8th
The highest levels of learning and performance are associated with _____ levels of arousal.
moderate
In terms of stress, workers performing _______ are most likely to develop a stress-related illness.
machine-paced tasks
According to Holmes and Rahe, although work-related factors can lead to stress-related illnesses, factors related to _____ seem to place the individual at greatest risk.
marriage
According to Herbert Simon, decision-making in organizations is often affected by:
a. bounded rationality
b. groupthink
c. production blocking
d. social loafing
a. bounded rationality
Trainability testing:
a. includes a work sample, training, and evaluation to determine if an inexperienced applicant is likely to benefit from training
b. incorporates ability and aptitude tests to determine if an inexperienced applicant is suited for a part job
c. is used to determine if performance deficits of curr employees can be alleviated through training
d. is used to determine if training has achieved its stated goals
a. includes a work sample, training and eval to determine if an inexperienced applicant is likely to benefit from training
A transformation leader:
a. relies on legitimate power
b. focuses on the self-interests of her followers
c. gradually and deliberately turns responsibility over to subordinates
d. motivates employees to perform "above and beyond the call of duty"
d. motives employees to perform "above and beyond the call of duty"
A colleague tells you that she is designing a study to determine the correlates of job satisfaction. Based on your knowledge of the literature in this area, you tell her that job satisfaction has the strongest inverse correlation with:
a. productivity
b. turnover
c. absenteeism
d. motivation
b. turnover
Use of a selection test produces a hiring rate of 75% for non-minority applicants and a hiring rate of 55% for minority applicants. Based on these figures, you can use the 80% rul to determine if use of the test:
a. has differential validity
b. is producing too many false negatives
c. is a busines necessity
d. is having an adverse impact
d. is having an adverse impact
Meta-analyses conducted in the last 10 to 15 years suggest that, across jobs and organizations, the best predictor of job performance is:
a. biodata
b. cognitive ability tests
c. vocational interest tests
d. structured interviews
b. cognitive ability tests
You have put together a battery of tests to be used to select applicants for clerical positions. You have determined that, in order for employees to perform adequately on the job, they must achieve a minimum score on all of the tests included in the battery. Therefore, you will use which of the following methods to combine test scores:
a. multiple correlation
b. mult regression
c. multiple cutoff
d. multiple criterion
c. multiple cotoff
The personnel director where you work is reluctant to use the selection test you've designed because its validity coefficient is .30. Your best argument for use of the test is that:
a. the selection ratio is 1:10
b. the selction ratio is 1:50
c. the base rate is .25
d. the base rate is .85
b. the selction ratio is 1:50
Goal-setting theory predicts that adherence to production goals is greatest when:
a. goals are general rather than specific
b. goals are easy rather than difficult to achieve
c. goals have been accepted by employees
d. pay is clearly related to goal achievement
c. goals have been accepted by employees
To gain idosyncracy credits, you would:
a. create a vision for change
b. acquire skills beyond those required by your job
c. conform to group norms
d. help subordinates link individual goals to organizational goals
c. conform to group norms
Of the Big Five personality traits, which has been found to be most perdictive of the prformance:
a. openness to experience
b. emotional stability
c. agreeableness
d. conscientiousness
d. conscientiousness
An American manager has adopted a traditional Japanese approach to management. Most likely, she will emphasize:
a. job specialization
b. consensual decision-making
c. individual autonomy and responsibility
d. explicit control mechanisms
b. consensual decision-making
You would conduct a needs assessment in an organization in order to:
a. develop a comprehensive job specification
b. determine if an employment procedures is having an adverse impact
c. determine if an employment procedure has incremental validity
d. determine if employee training would resolve a company's production problems
d. determine if employee training would resolve a company's production problems
The managementphilosophy in an organization reflects a Theory Y approach. Consequently you would expect to find which of the following in the organization:
a. highly cohesive and effective work groups
b. a high degree of employee self-direction and self-control
c. the use of pay and bonuses as the primary mechanisms of reward
d. promotion and selection based on technical competence
b. a high degree of employee self-direction and self-control
The primary goal of a realistic job preview is to:
a. reduce turnover rates
b. increase the no of applicants
c. reduce the number of false positives
d. minimize selection and placement costs
a. reduce turnover rates
According to Super, job choice is most related to:
a. need structure
b. initial work experience
c. parental occupational status
d. self-concept
d. self-concept
Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that the most effective leadership style:
a. depends on the favorableness of the situation
b. depends on the maturity of the worker
c. is one that allows workers to participat in all levels of decision-making
d,. is one that equally emphasizes people and production
b. depends on the maturity of the worker
In expectancey theory, "valence" refers to
a. the relationship between effort and performance
b. the desirability of the outcomes
c. the difficulty of the goal
d. the ratio of inputs to outcomes
b. the desirability of the outcomes
Dr. Caplan is involved as a consultant in a theme-interference-reduction type of consultee-centered case consultation. The approach that Dr. Caplan will adopt is most similar to which of the following?
a. Freudian psychoanalysis
b. Pers' Gestalt therapy
c. Stampfl's implosive therapy
d. Beck's cognitive therapy
Caplan distinguishes between four types of mental health consultation: client-centered, consultee-centered, program-centered, administrative consultation, and consultee-centered administrative consultation.

Stresses the importance of a collaborative relationship, the importance of reality testing, and focusing on the here and how.
From the perspective of the situational leadership model, a "telling" leadership style is most effective when an employee is:
a. low in ability and low in willingness
b. low in ability and high in willingness
c. high in ability and low in willingness
d. high in ability and high in willingness
a. low in ability and low in willingness
A _____ leadership style is best for and employee who is low in ability and high in willingness?
selling
A ____ leadership style is best for an employee who is high in ability and low in willingness.
participating
A _____ leadership style is optimal for an employee who is high in ability and high in willingness?
delegating style
A DSM dx of Mental Retardation requires an IQ test score that is at least:
a. one-half standard deviation below the mean
b. one standard deviation below the mean
c. two standard deviations below the mean
d. three standard deviations below the mean
c. two standard deviations below the mean - 70 or below
Separation anxiety usu first appears at:
a. 3 to 4 mos of age
b. 6 to 7 mos
c. 9 to 10 mos
d. 11 to 12 mos
6 to 7 mos -
Fluoxetine and other SSRIs act by:
a. inc the release of serotonin at synapses
b. inc the manufacture of serotonin by nerve cells
c. inc the sensitivity of nerve cells to serotonin
d. increasing the availability of serotonin at synapses
d. increasing the availability of serotonin at synapses
As defined by Bandura, Self-efficacy beliefs have four souces. These are:
a. past accomplishments, observations of others, verbal persuasion, and logical verification
b. external reinforcement, internal (self) reinforcement, vicarious reinforcement, and logical verification
c. observation of others, imitation of others, reinforcement by others and self-reinforcement
d. observation, cognitive mediation, rehearsal, and successful performance
a. past accomplishments, observations of others, verbal persuasions, and logical verification