First Aid Usmle Step 1 Questions

Front 1

Define anisocytosis

Back 1

varying cell sizes

Front 2

Define poikilocytosis

Back 2

varying cell shapes

Front 3

From which cells do B cells arise?

Back 3

stem cells in bone marrow

Front 4

From which cells do plasma cells differentiate?

Back 4

B cells

Front 5

How can a Nissl stain be used to differentiate microglia from oligodendroglia?

Back 5

Microglia are not discernable in a Nissl stain while oligodendroglia appear as small dark nuclei with dark chromatin

Front 6

In what type of CNS tissue (white or grey) are oligodendroglia predominant?

Back 6

white matter

Front 7

Into what cell type does a monocyte differentiate in tissues?

Back 7

Macrophages

Front 8

Name 2 substances produced by an eosinophil.

Back 8

histiminase and arylsulfatase

Front 9

Name the three types of leukocytic granulocytes.

Back 9

basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils

Front 10

Name the two types of mononuclear leukocytes.

Back 10

lymphocytes and monocytes

Front 11

What are 2 functions of T cell lymphocytes?

Back 11

cellular immune response - regulation of B lymphocytes and macrophages

Front 12

What are 2 morphological features of microglia?

Back 12

small irregular nuclei - and relatively little cytoplasm

Front 13

What are 3 examples of peripheral lymphoid tissue?

Back 13

follicles of lymph nodes - white pulp of spleen - unencapsulated lymphoid tissue

Front 14

What are 3 functions of a macrophage?

Back 14

pagocytosis of bacteria, cell debris, and senescent red cells - scavenges damaged cells and tissues - can function as an antigen presenting cell

Front 15

What are 3 morphological characteristics of monocytes?

Back 15

. - Large

Front 16

- Kidney-shaped nucleus

Front 17

- Extensive 'frosted glass' cytoplasm

Front 18

What are 4 characteristics of the plasma cell morphology?

Back 18

Off center nucleus - Clock face chromatin distribution - Abundant RER - Well developed Golgi apparatus

Front 19

What are 4 morphologic characteristics of lymphocytes?

Back 19

Round - Small - Densely staining nucleus - Small amount of pale cytoplasm

Front 20

What are 4 substances contained within the lysosomes of neutrophils?

Back 20

hydrolytic enzymes - lysozyme - myeloperoxidase - lactoferrin

Front 21

What are 4 types of cells into which T cells differentiate?

Back 21

. - cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, CD8) - helper T cells (MHCII, CD4) - suppressor T cells - delayed hypersensitivity T cells

Front 22

What are the 5 important causes for eosinophilia in humans?

Back 22

Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic process, Collagen vascular disease, and Parasites (pneumonic NAACP)

Front 23

What are the blood cell diffenentiation names of the ACTIVE T CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?

Back 23

. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Lymphoblast - T cell - Active T cell

Front 24

What are the blood cell differentiation names of the ERYTHROCYTE cell line beginning with pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?

Back 24

. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Proerythroblast - Reticulocyte - Erythrocyte

Front 25

What are the blood cell differentiation names of the MONOCYTE cell lines beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?

Back 25

. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Monoblast - Monocyte

Front 26

What are the blood cell differentiation names of the NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL, and BASOPHIL cell lines beginning with the myeloblast stage?

Back 26

. - Myeloblast - Promyelocyte - Myelocyte - Metamyelocyte - Stab cell - Neutrophil, eosinophil or basophil

Front 27

What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLASMA CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?

Back 27

. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Lymphoblast - B cell - Plasma cell

Front 28

What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLATELET CELL line beginning with the hematopoietic stem cell?

Back 28

. - Pluripotento hematopoietic stem cell - Megakaryoblast - Megakaryocyte - Platelets

Front 29

What are the components of the air-blood barrier?

Back 29

. - Type I pneumocyte, endothelial cell, and their fused basement membrane.

Front 30

What are the steps of maturation of a B cell? (2 points)

Back 30

. - maturation in the marrow - migration to peripheral lymphoid tissue

Front 31

What are the substances contained within the densly basophilic granules of the basophil? (4)

Back 31

- Heparin (anticoagulant) - histamine (vasodilator) - vasoactive amines - Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis

Front 32

What are two basic morphological characteristics of neutrophils?

Back 32

- multilobed nucleus - Large, spherical azurophilic primary granules (lysosomes)

Front 33

What are two important functions of a neutrophil?

Back 33

- acute inflammmatory response of a cell - phagocytosis

Front 34

What are two names for an increased number of red cells?

Back 34

Erythrocytosis and polycythemia

Front 35

What cell type closely resembles a mast cell?

Back 35

basophil

Front 36

What cranial nerves are commonly involved in an acoustic neuroma?

Back 36

CN VII, VIII (association with internal acoustic meatus)

Front 37

What disease is characterized by destruction of oligodendroglia?

Back 37

Multiple sclerosis

Front 38

What does CD stand for?

Back 38

cluster of differentiation

Front 39

What drug prevents mast cell degranulation?

Back 39

Cromolyn sodium

Front 40

What immunoglobulin can bind to the membrane of a mast cell?

Back 40

IgE

Front 41

What is a reticulocyte?

Back 41

a baby (developing) erythrocyte

Front 42

What is an important example of a Schwannoma?

Back 42

Acoustic neuroma

Front 43

What is another name for pulmonary surfactant?

Back 43

DPPC (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine)

Front 44

What is percentage of leukocytes in the blood exist as basophils?

Back 44

less than 1%

Front 45

What is the 'gap' between the myelination segment of 2 Schwann cells called?

Back 45

Node of Ranvier

Front 46

What is the advantage of the large surface area:volume ratio in erythrocytes?

Back 46

easy gas exchange (Oxygen and Carbon dioxide)

Front 47

What is the basic morphologic structure of an erythrocyte?

Back 47

Anucleate, biconcave

Front 48

What is the basic morphology of an eosinophil? (2 things)

Back 48

- bilobate nucleus - packed with Large eosinophilic granules of uniform size

Front 49

What is the embryologic origin of microglia?

Back 49

mesoderm

Front 50

What is the function of Interferon gamma with relation to macrophages?

Back 50

macrophage activation

Front 51

What is the function of microglia?

Back 51

phagocytosis in CNS

Front 52

What is the function of oligodendroglia?

Back 52

myelination of multiple CNS axons

Front 53

What is the function of pulmonary surfactant?

Back 53

lowers alveolar surface tension and prevents atelectasis

Front 54

What is the function of Schwann cells?

Back 54

myelination of PNS (a Schwann cell myelinates only one PNS axon)

Front 55

What is the importance of the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?

Back 55

> 2.0 in fetal lung is indicative of fetal lung maturity

Front 56

What is the importance of the physiologic chloride shift in erythrocytes?

Back 56

Membranes contain the chloride bicarbonate antiport allowing the RBC to transport carbon dioxide from the the lung periphery for elimination.

Front 57

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which ciliated cells are found?

Back 57

respiratory bronchioles

Front 58

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which goblet cells are found?

Back 58

terminal broncioles (remember ciliated cells sweep away mucous produced by goblet cells and therefore run deeper)

Front 59

What is the primary function of a basophil?

Back 59

Mediates allergic reactions

Front 60

What is the primary function of a leukocyte?

Back 60

Defense against infections

Front 61

What is the primary function of a mast cell?

Back 61

Mediates allergic reactions

Front 62

What is the primary function of a plasma cell?

Back 62

production of large amounts of a specific antibody to a particular antigen

Front 63

What is the primary source of energy for erythrocytes?

Back 63

glucose (90% anaerobically degraded to lactate, 10% by HMP shunt)

Front 64

What is the process of degranulation in mast cells?

Back 64

release of histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors

Front 65

What is the range of concentration for leukocytes in the blood?

Back 65

4,000 - 10,000 cells per microliter

Front 66

What is the response of an eosiniphil to antigen antibody complexes?

Back 66

high degree of phagocytosis

Front 67

What is the response of microglia to tissue dammage?

Back 67

transformation into large ameboid phagocytic cells

Front 68

What is the response to microglia infected with HIV?

Back 68

fusion to form multinucleated giant cells in CNS

Front 69

What is the survival time for an erythrocyte?

Back 69

120 days

Front 70

What pathognomonic change is seen in neutrophils of a person who is folate/vitamin B12 deficient?

Back 70

hypersegmented polys

Front 71

What percentage of leukocytes exist as eosinophils in the blood?

Back 71

1 - 6%

Front 72

What percentage of leukocytes exist as neutrophils in the blood?

Back 72

40 - 75%

Front 73

What percentage of leukocytes in blood are monocytes?

Back 73

2 - 10%

Front 74

What process occurs when type I pneumocytes are damaged?

Back 74

Type II pneumocytes develop into type I

Front 75

What substance in eosinophilic granules is primarily responsible for defense against helminths and protozoan infections?

Back 75

major basic protein

Front 76

Where is the site of maturation of T lymphocytes?

Back 76

Thymus

Front 77

Which cell type constituitively secretes pulmonary surfactant?

Back 77

Type II pneumocyte

Front 78

Which cell type lines the alveoli?

Back 78

Type I pneumocyte

Front 79

Which leukemia is the result of plasma cell neoplasm?

Back 79

Multiple myeloma

Front 80

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is a mast cell involved in?

Back 80

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

Front 81

Which type of immunity do B cells exhibit?

Back 81

humoral immunity

Front 82

After arising from the floor of the primitive pharynx, where does the thryoid diverticulum go?

Back 82

It descends down into the neck

Front 83

After the first breath at birth, what causes closure of the ductus arteriosus?

Back 83

An increase in oxygen

Front 84

After the first breath at birth, what causes the closure of the foramen ovale?

Back 84

A decrease resistance in pulmonary vasculature causes increased left atrial pressure vs. right atrial pressure

Front 85

Although the diaphragm descends during development, it maintains innervation from ____?

Back 85

C3-C5

Front 86

An easy pneumonic to remember fetal erythropoiesis is?

Back 86

Young Liver Synthesizes Blood

Front 87

At what time in the course of development is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?

Back 87

Weeks 3-8

Front 88

Deoxygenated blood from the SVC is expelled into the pulmonary artery and ____ ____ to the lower body of the fetus.

Back 88

ductus arteriosus

Front 89

Do the cardiovascular structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 89

Mesoderm

Front 90

Do the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 90

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 91

Do the enterochromaffin cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 91

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 92

Do the lungs arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 92

Endoderm

Front 93

Do the lymphatics arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 93

Mesoderm

Front 94

Do the melanocytes arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 94

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 95

Do the neural crest cells arise from mesoderm, ectoderm, or endoderm?

Back 95

Ectoderm

Front 96

Do the odontoblasts arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 96

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 97

Do the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 97

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 98

Do the Schwann cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 98

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 99

Do the urogenital structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 99

Mesoderm

Front 100

Does blood arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 100

Mesoderm

Front 101

Does bone arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 101

Mesoderm

Front 102

Does muscle arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 102

Mesoderm

Front 103

Does the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 103

Endoderm

Front 104

Does the adrenal cortex arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 104

Mesoderm

Front 105

Does the ANS arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 105

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 106

Does the celiac ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 106

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 107

Does the dorsal root ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 107

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 108

Does the dura connective tissue arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 108

Mesoderm

Front 109

Does the gut tube epithelium arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 109

Endoderm

Front 110

Does the liver arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 110

Endoderm

Front 111

Does the pancreas arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 111

Endoderm

Front 112

Does the parathyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 112

Endoderm

Front 113

Does the pia arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 113

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 114

Does the serous linings of body cavities arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 114

Mesoderm

Front 115

Does the spleen arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 115

Mesoderm

Front 116

Does the thymus arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 116

Endoderm

Front 117

From what does the ligamentum teres hepatis arise?

Back 117

Umbilical vein

Front 118

How does a bicornate uterus form?

Back 118

Results from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts

Front 119

How does a cleft lip form?

Back 119

Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

Front 120

How does a cleft palate form?

Back 120

Failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum, and/or the median palatine process

Front 121

How does a horseshoe kidney form?

Back 121

Inferior poles of both kidneys fuse, as they ascend from the pelvis during development they get trapped under the inferior mesenteric artery, and remain low in the abdomen

Front 122

How is meckel's diverticulum different than an omphalomesenteric cyst?

Back 122

Omphalomesenteric cyst is a cystic dilatation of the vitelline duct

Front 123

How long does full development of spermatogenesis take?

Back 123

2 months

Front 124

How many arteries and veins does the umbilical cord contain?

Back 124

- 2 umbilical arteries (carries deoxygenated blood away from fetus) - 1 umbilical vein (oxygenated blood to fetus)

Front 125

Is a primary spermatocyte 2N or 4N?

Back 125

4N

Front 126

Is a primary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?

Back 126

Diploid, 4N

Front 127

Is a secondary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?

Back 127

Haploid, 2N

Front 128

Is a secondary spermatocyte N or 2N?

Back 128

2N

Front 129

Is a speratogonium haploid or diploid?

Back 129

Diploid, 2N

Front 130

Is a spermatid haploid or diploid?

Back 130

Haploid, N

Front 131

Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until ovulation?

Back 131

Prophase

Front 132

Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization?

Back 132

Metaphase (an egg MET a sperm)

Front 133

Most oxygenated blood reaching the heart via IVC is diverted through the ____ ____ and pumped out the aorta to the head.

Back 133

foramen ovale

Front 134

The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein give rise to what adult heart structure?

Back 134

Superior vena cava

Front 135

The stapedius muscle of the ear is formed by which branchial arch?

Back 135

2nd

Front 136

This type of bone formation consists of ossification of cartilaginous molds and forms long bones at primary and secondary centers.

Back 136

Endochondral

Front 137

True or False; blood in the umbilical vein is 100% saturated with oxygen?

Back 137

False, it is 80% saturated

Front 138

True or False, there are two types of spermatogonia?

Back 138

True, type A & type B

Front 139

What are the 1st branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 139

CN V2 and V3

Front 140

What are the 2nd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 140

CN VII

Front 141

What are the 3rd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 141

CN IX

Front 142

What are the 4th and 6th branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 142

CN X

Front 143

What are the cartilage derivatives (5) of the 4th and 6th branchial arches?

Back 143

Thyroid - Cricoid - Arytenoids - Corniculate - Cuneiform

Front 144

What are the five 2's associated with meckel's diverticulum?

Back 144

- 2 inches long - 2 feet from the ileocecal valve - 2% of the population - Commonly presents in the first 2 years of life - May have 2 types of epithelia

Front 145

What are the rule of 2's for the 2nd week of development?

Back 145

- 2 germ layers: epiblast & hypoblast - 2 cavities: amniotic cavity & yolk sac - 2 components to the placenta: cytotrophoblast & syncytiotrophoblast

Front 146

What are the rule of 3's for the 3rd week of development?

Back 146

3 germ layers (gastrula): ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

Front 147

What can a persistent cervical sinus lead to?

Back 147

A branchial cyst in the neck

Front 148

What can be found in the cortex of the thymus?

Back 148

It is dense with immature T cells

Front 149

What can be found in the medulla of the thymus?

Back 149

It is pale with mature T cells, epithelial reticular cells, and Hassall's corpuscles

Front 150

What connects the thyroid diverticulum to the tongue?

Back 150

The thyroglossal duct

Front 151

What devlopmental contributions does the 5th branchial arch make?

Back 151

None

Front 152

What do the 2nd - 4th branchial clefts form, which are obliterated by proliferation of the 2nd arch mesenchyme?

Back 152

Temporary cervical sinuses

Front 153

What does aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th pouches cause?

Back 153

DiGeorge's syndrome

Front 154

What does the 1st aortic arch give rise to?

Back 154

Part of the maxillary artery

Front 155

What does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 155

Epithelial lining of the palantine tonsils

Front 156

What does the 3rd aortic arch give rise to?

Back 156

Common carotid artery and proximal part of the internal carotid artery

Front 157

What does the 4th pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 157

Superior parathyroids

Front 158

What does the 5th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 158

Nothing

Front 159

What does the 5th pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 159

C cells of the thyroid

Front 160

What does the 6th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 160

The proximal part of the pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosus

Front 161

What does the ductus arteriosus give rise to?

Back 161

Ligamentum arteriosum

Front 162

What does the ductus venosus shunt blood away from?

Back 162

Liver

Front 163

What does the first branchial cleft develop into?

Back 163

The external auditory meatus

Front 164

What does the foramen ovale give rise to?

Back 164

Fossa ovalis

Front 165

What does the left 4th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 165

Aortic arch

Front 166

What does the ligamentum venosum come from?

Back 166

Ductus venosus

Front 167

What does the notochord give rise to?

Back 167

Nucleus Pulposus

Front 168

What does the primitive atria give rise to?

Back 168

Trabeculated left and right atrium

Front 169

What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?

Back 169

Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle

Front 170

What does the right 4th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 170

Proximal part of the right subclavian artery

Front 171

What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?

Back 171

Smooth part of the right atrium

Front 172

What does the spleen arise from?

Back 172

Dorsal mesentery, but is supplied by the artery of the foregut

Front 173

What does the thymus arise from?

Back 173

Epithelium of the 3rd branchial pouch

Front 174

What does the thyroid diverticulum arise from?

Back 174

The floor of the primitive pharynx

Front 175

What does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?

Back 175

The ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

Front 176

What does the umbilical arteries give rise to?

Back 176

Medial umbilical ligaments

Front 177

What ear muscle does the 1st branchial arch form?

Back 177

Tensor tympani

Front 178

What effect does 13-cis-retinoic acid have on the fetus?

Back 178

Extremely high risk for birth defects

Front 179

What effect does ACE inhibitors have on the fetus?

Back 179

Renal Damage

Front 180

What effect does iodide have on the fetus?

Back 180

Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism

Front 181

What effect does warfarin and x-rays have on the fetus?

Back 181

Multiple anomalies

Front 182

What effects does cocaine have on the fetus?

Back 182

Abnormal fetal development and fetal addiction

Front 183

What embryonic structure are the smooth parts of the left and right ventricle derived from?

Back 183

Bulbus cordis

Front 184

What embryonic structure does the coronary sinus come from?

Back 184

Left horn of the sinus venosus

Front 185

What embryonic structure does the median umbilical ligament come from?

Back 185

Allantois (urachus)

Front 186

What fetal landmark has developed within week 2 of fertilization?

Back 186

Bilaminar disk

Front 187

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 1 of fertilization?

Back 187

Implantation

Front 188

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 3 of fertilization?

Back 188

Gastrulation

Front 189

What fetal landmarks (2) have developed within week 3 of fertilization?

Back 189

Primitive streak and neural plate begin to form

Front 190

What five things arise from neuroectoderm?

Back 190

Neurohypophysis - CNS neurons - Oligodendrocytes - Astrocytes - Pineal gland

Front 191

What four structures make up the diaphragm?

Back 191

- Septum transversum - pleuroperitoneal folds - body wall - dorsal mesentery of esophagus

Front 192

What four things arise from surface ectoderm?

Back 192

- Adenohypophysis - Lens of eye - Epithelial linings - Epidermis

Front 193

What four things does Meckel's cartilage (from the 1st arch) develop into?

Back 193

Mandible - Malleus - Incus - Sphenomandibular ligament

Front 194

What four things does Reichert's cartilage (from the 2nd arch) develop into?

Back 194

Stapes - Styloid process - Lesser horn of hyoid - Stylohyoid ligament

Front 195

What four things does the dorsal pancreatic bud become?

Back 195

Body, tail, isthmus, and accessory pancreatic duct

Front 196

What four things does the mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop into?

Back 196

- Seminal vesicles - Epididymis - Ejaculatory duct - Ductus deferens

Front 197

What induces the ectoderm to form the neuroectoderm (neural plate)?

Back 197

Notochord

Front 198

What is a congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

Back 198

Abdominal contents herniate into the thorax due to incomplete development of the diaphragm

Front 199

What is a hypospadias?

Back 199

Abnormal opening of penile urethra on inferior side of penis due to failure of urethral folds to close

Front 200

What is a single umbilical artery associated with?

Back 200

Congenital and chromosomal anomalies

Front 201

What is a urachal cyst or sinus a remnant of?

Back 201

The allantois

Front 202

What is an abnormal opening of penile urethra on superior side of penis due to faulty positioning of the genital tubercle?

Back 202

Epispadias

Front 203

What is associated with an epispadias?

Back 203

Exstrophy of the bladder

Front 204

What is Meckel's diverticulum?

Back 204

Persistence of the vitelline duct or yolk sac

Front 205

What is oligohydramnios associated with?

Back 205

Bilateral renal agenesis or posterior urethral valves (in males)

Front 206

What is oligohydramnios?

Back 206

< 0.5 L of amniotic fluid

Front 207

What is polyhydramnios associated with?

Back 207

Esophageal/duodenal atresia, anencephaly

Front 208

What is polyhydramnios?

Back 208

> 1.5-2 L of amniotic fluid

Front 209

What is Potter's syndrome?

Back 209

Bilateral renal agenesis, that results in ologohydramnios causing limb and facial deformities and pulmonary hypoplasia (Babies with Potter's can’t pee in utero)

Front 210

What is the acrosome of sperm derived from?

Back 210

Golgi apparatus

Front 211

What is the female homologue to the corpus spongiosum in the male?

Back 211

Vestibular bulbs

Front 212

What is the female homologue to the prostate gland in the male?

Back 212

Urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)

Front 213

What is the female homologue to the scrotum in the male?

Back 213

Labia majora

Front 214

What is the female homologue to the ventral shaft of the penis in the male?

Back 214

Labia minora

Front 215

What is the flagellum (tail) derived from?

Back 215

One of the centrioles

Front 216

What is the food supply of sperm?

Back 216

Fructose

Front 217

What is the male homologue to the glans clitoris in the female?

Back 217

Glans penis

Front 218

What is the male homologue to the greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) in the female?

Back 218

Bulbourethral glands (of Cowper)

Front 219

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract?

Back 219

Meckel's diverticulum

Front 220

What is the most common ectopic thyroid tissue site?

Back 220

The tongue

Front 221

What is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?

Back 221

Foramen cecum

Front 222

What is the postnatal derivative of the notochord?

Back 222

The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc

Front 223

What is the site of T-cell maturation?

Back 223

Thymus

Front 224

What part of the gut is the pancreas derived?

Back 224

Foregut

Front 225

What suppresses the development of the paramesonephric ducts in males?

Back 225

Mullerian inhibiting substance (secreted by the testes)

Front 226

What teratogenic agent causes limb defects ('flipper' limbs)?

Back 226

Thalidomide

Front 227

What three structures does the 3rd pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 227

- Thymus - Left inferior parathyroid - Right inferior parathyroid

Front 228

What three things does the 1st pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 228

- Middle ear cavity - Eustachian tube - Mastoid air cells

Front 229

What three things does the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct develop into?

Back 229

Fallopian tube - Uterus - Part of the vagina

Front 230

What three things does the ventral pancreatic bud become?

Back 230

- Pancreatic head - uncinate process - main Pancreatic duct

Front 231

What two things occur during week 4 of fetal development?

Back 231

Heart begins to beat, upper and lower limb buds begin to form

Front 232

What type of bone formation is spontaneous without preexisting cartilage?

Back 232

Intramembranous

Front 233

What type of twins would have 1 placenta, 2 amniotic sacs, and 1 chorion?

Back 233

Monozygotic twins

Front 234

What type of twins would have 2 amniotic sacs and 2 placentas?

Back 234

Monozygotic or dizygotic twins

Front 235

What will DiGeorge's syndrome lead to?

Back 235

T cell deficiency & hypocalcemia

Front 236

When do primary oocytes begin meiosis I?

Back 236

During fetal life

Front 237

When do primary oocytes complete meiosis I?

Back 237

Just prior to ovulation

Front 238

When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the bone marrow?

Back 238

Week 28 and onward

Front 239

When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the liver?

Back 239

Weeks 6-30

Front 240

When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the spleen?

Back 240

Weeks 9-28

Front 241

When does organogenesis occur in the fetus?

Back 241

Weeks 3-8

Front 242

Where does positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?

Back 242

At the corticomedullary junction

Front 243

Where does spermatogenesis take place?

Back 243

Seminferous tubules

Front 244

Where is the first place fetal erythropoiesis occurs and when does this take place?

Back 244

Yolk sac (3-8 wk)

Front 245

Which aortic arch does the stapedial artery and the hyoid artery come from?

Back 245

2nd aortic arch

Front 246

Which branchial arch are the greater horn of hyoid and the stylopharyngeus muscle derived from?

Back 246

3rd branchial arch

Front 247

Which branchial arch does Meckel's cartilage develop from?

Back 247

1st arch

Front 248

Which branchial arch forms the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Back 248

1st arch

Front 249

Which branchial arch forms the incus and malleus of the ear?

Back 249

1st arch

Front 250

Which ear bone(s) does the 2nd branchial arch form?

Back 250

Stapes

Front 251

Which embryonic tissue are branchial clefts derived from?

Back 251

Ectoderm

Front 252

Which embryonic tissue are branchial pouches derived from?

Back 252

Endoderm

Front 253

Which is more common a hypospadias or epispadias?

Back 253

Hypospadias

Front 254

Which muscles (3) are derivatives of the 4th branchial arch?

Back 254

- Most pharyngeal constrictors - Cricothyroid - Levator veli palatini

Front 255

Which muscles (4) are derivatives of the 2nd branchial arch?

Back 255

- Muscles of facial expression - Stapedius - Stylohyoid - Posterior belly of digastric

Front 256

Which muscles (8) are derivatives of the 1st branchial arch?

Back 256

- Temporalis - Masseter - Lateral pterygoid - Medial pterygoid - Mylohyoid - Anterior belly of digastric - Tensor tympani - Tensor veli palatini

Front 257

Which muscles are derivatives of the 6th branchial arch?

Back 257

All intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid

Front 258

Which pharyngeal arch does Reichert's cartilage develop from?

Back 258

2nd arch

Front 259

Which teratogenic agent causes vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma?

Back 259

DES

Front 260

Which two branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

Back 260

3rd and 4th arches

Front 261

Which two embryonic tissues are branchial arches derived from?

Back 261

Mesoderm and neural crests

Front 262

Which week of fetal development have the genitalia taken on male/female characteristics?

Back 262

Week 10

Front 263

A common football injury caused by clipping from the lateral side will damage what structures (3 answers)?

Back 263

--Medial collateral ligament --Medial meniscus --Anterior cruciate ligament

Front 264

A lumbar puncture is performed at what landmark?

Back 264

Iliac crest

Front 265

A positive anterior drawer sign indicates damage to what structure?

Back 265

Anterior cruciate ligament(ACL)

Front 266

A pudendal nerve block is performed at what landmark?

Back 266

Ischial spine

Front 267

Abnormal passive abduction of the knee indicates damage to what structure?

Back 267

Medial collateral ligament(MCL)

Front 268

'Anterior' in ACL refers to what attachment?

Back 268

Tibial

Front 269

At what level is a lumbar puncture performed?

Back 269

Between L3-L4 or L4-L5

Front 270

Common peroneal nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 270

Loss of dorsiflexion(Foot Drop)

Front 271

Common peroneal, Tibial, Femoral, and Obturator nerves arise from what spinal cord segments (4 answers)?

Back 271

--'L4-S2 (common peroneal) --L4-S3 (tibial) --L2-L4 (femoral) and (obturator)

Front 272

Coronary artery occlusion usually occurs where?

Back 272

Left anterior descending artery (LAD)

Front 273

Do the coronary arteries fill during systole or diastole?

Back 273

Diastole

Front 274

Erection and sensation of the penis is in what dermatomes?

Back 274

S2-S4

Front 275

Femoral nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 275

Loss of knee jerk

Front 276

How does the course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve differ from that of the right?

Back 276

The left wraps around the arch of the aorta and the ligamentum arteriosum while the right wraps around the subclavian artery.

Front 277

How is the appendix located?

Back 277

2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine

Front 278

How many lobes are in the right and left lungs and what are their names?

Back 278

--Right has three (superior,Middle,inferior) --Left has two (superior and inferior) and the lingula

Front 279

Name five portal-systemic anastomoses.

Back 279

1.Left gastric-azygous vv. 2.Superior-Middle/Inferior rectal vv. 3.Paraumbilical-inferior epigastric 4.Retroperitoneal-renal vv. 5.Retroperitoneal-paravertebral vv.

Front 280

Name the 4 ligaments of the uterus.

Back 280

--Suspensory ligament of ovaries --Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament --Round ligament of uterus --Broad ligament

Front 281

Name the hypothenar muscles.

Back 281

--Opponens digiti minimi --Abductor digiti minimi --Flexor digiti minimi

Front 282

Name the retroperitoneal structures (9).

Back 282

1.Duodenum(2nd-4th parts) 2.Descending colon 3.Ascending colon 4.Kidney & ureters 5.Pancreas 6.Aorta 7.Inferior vena cava 8.Adrenal glands 9.Rectum

Front 283

Name the rotator cuff muscles.

Back 283

--Supraspinatus --Infraspinatus --teres minor --Subscapularis

Front 284

Name the thenar muscles

Back 284

--Opponens pollicis --Abductor pollicis brevis --Flexor pollicis brevis

Front 285

Obturator nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 285

Loss of hip adduction

Front 286

Pain from the diaphragm is usually referred where?

Back 286

Shoulder

Front 287

Subarachnoid space extends to what spinal level?

Back 287

S2

Front 288

The area of the body that contains the appendix is known as what?

Back 288

McBurney's point

Front 289

The femoral triangle contains what structures from lateral to medial?

Back 289

--Femoral nerve --Femoral artery --Femoral vein --Femoral Canal (lymphatics)

Front 290

The inguinal ligament exists in what dermatome?

Back 290

L1

Front 291

The kneecaps exist in what dermatome?

Back 291

L4

Front 292

The male sexual response of ejaculation is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 292

Visceral and somatic nerves

Front 293

The male sexual response of emission is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 293

Sympathetic nervous system

Front 294

The male sexual response of erection is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 294

Parasympathetic nervous system

Front 295

The nipple exists in what dermatome?

Back 295

T4

Front 296

The recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from what cranial nerve and supplies what muscles?

Back 296

1.CN X 2.All intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle.

Front 297

The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by what artery?

Back 297

Right Coronary Artery (RCA)

Front 298

The spinal cord ends at what level in adults?

Back 298

L1-L2

Front 299

The umbilicus exists in what dermatome?

Back 299

T10

Front 300

The xiphoid process exists in what dermatome?

Back 300

T7

Front 301

Tibial nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 301

Loss of plantar flexion

Front 302

What are hernias?

Back 302

Protrusions of peritoneum through an opening, usually sites of weakness.

Front 303

What are JG cells?

Back 303

Modified smooth muscle of afferent arteriole in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney

Front 304

What are the boundaries of the inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle?

Back 304

--Inferior epigastric artery --Lateral border of the rectus abdominus --Inguinal ligament

Front 305

What are the layers encountered from the outsided down to the brain?

Back 305

--Skin --Connective tissue --Aponeurosis --Loose Connective tissue --Pericranium --Dura mater --Subdural space --Arachnoid --Subarachnoid space --Pia mater --Brain

Front 306

What are the manifestations of portal hypertension?

Back 306

--Esophageal varices --Hemorrhoids --Caput medusae

Front 307

What condition is usually associated with portal hypertension?

Back 307

Alcoholic cirrhosis

Front 308

What defect may predispose an infant for a diaphragmatic hernia?

Back 308

Defective development of the pleuroperitoneal membrane

Front 309

What gut regions and structures does the celiac artery supply?

Back 309

1.Foregut 2.--Stomach to duodenum --liver --gallbladder --pancreas

Front 310

What gut regions and structures does the IMA supply?

Back 310

1.Hindgut 2.--Distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper portion of rectum

Front 311

What gut regions and structures does the SMA supply?

Back 311

1.Midgut 2.--Duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

Front 312

What is a diaphragmatic hernia?

Back 312

Abdominal retroperitoneal structures enter the thorax

Front 313

What is a femoral hernia?

Back 313

entrance of abdominal contents through the femoral canal.

Front 314

What is a hiatal hernia?

Back 314

Stomach contents herniate upward through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

Front 315

What is the arterial blood supply difference above and below the pectinate line?

Back 315

--Superior rectal a. (Above) --Inferior rectal a. (Below)

Front 316

What is the course of a direct inguinal hernia?

Back 316

Through weak abdominal wall, into the inguinal triangle, medial to the inferior epigastric artery, through the external inguinal ring only.

Front 317

What is the course of an indirect inguinal hernia?

Back 317

Through the internal (deep) inguinal ring and the external (superficial) inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and into the scrotum

Front 318

What is the course of the ureters?

Back 318

Pass under uterine artery and under the ductus deferens

Front 319

What is the function of Myenteric plexus? Submucosal plexus?

Back 319

1.Coordinates motility along entire gut wall 2.Regulates local secretions, blood flow, and absorption

Front 320

What is the function of the JG cells?

Back 320

--secrete renin and erythropoietin

Front 321

What is the innervation difference above and below the pectinate line?

Back 321

--Visceral innervation (Above) --Somatic innervation (Below)

Front 322

What is the innervation of the diaphram?

Back 322

Phrenic nerve (C3,4,5)

Front 323

What is the macula densa?

Back 323

Sodium sensor in part of the distal convoluted distal tubule in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney

Front 324

What is the Myenteric plexus also known as? Submucosal plexus?

Back 324

1. Auerbach's plexus 2. Meissner's plexus

Front 325

What is the pectinate line of the rectum?

Back 325

Where the hindgut meets ectoderm in the rectum

Front 326

What is the relationship of the two pulmonary arteries to the bronchus at the lung hilus?

Back 326

described by RALS -- Right Anterior, Left Superior

Front 327

What is the usual pathology above the pectinate line of the rectum?

Back 327

Internal hemorrhoids (not painful) Adenocarcinoma

Front 328

What is the usual pathology below the pectinate line of the rectum?

Back 328

External hemorrhoids (painful) Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 329

What is the venous drainage difference above and below the pectinate line?

Back 329

--Superior rectal v. to internal mesenteric vein to portal system (Above)

Front 330

--Inferior rectal v. to internal pudendal v. to internal iliac v. to IVC (Below)

Front 331

What layers of the gut wall contribute to motility (4)?

Back 331

--Muscularis mucosae --Inner circular muscle layer --Myenteric plexus --Outer longitudinal muscle layer

Front 332

What layers of the gut wall contribute to support (3)?

Back 332

--Serosa --Lamina propria --Submucosa

Front 333

What muscle opens the jaw?

Back 333

Lateral pterygoid

Front 334

What nerve innervates most of the 'glossus' muscles and which is the exception?

Back 334

All muscles with root 'glossus' in their names (except palatoglossus, innervated by vagus nerve) are innervated by hypoglossal nerve.

Front 335

What nerve innervates most of the 'palat' muscles and which is the exception?

Back 335

All muscles with root palat in their names (except tensor veli palatini, innervated by V2) are innervated by vagus nerve.

Front 336

What nerve innervates the muscles that close and open the jaw?

Back 336

Trigeminal Nerve (V3)

Front 337

What neurons do the GI enteric plexus contain?

Back 337

Cell bodies of parasympathetic terminal effector neurons

Front 338

What part of the heart does the LAD supply?

Back 338

anterior interventricular septum

Front 339

What spinal cord levels are vertebral disk herniation most likely to occur?

Back 339

Between L5 and S1

Front 340

What structure is in the femoral triangle but not in the femoral sheath?

Back 340

--Femoral nerve

Front 341

What structures are in the carotid sheath?

Back 341

1.Internal Jugular Vein (lateral) --2.Common Carotid Artery (medial) --3.Vagus Nerve (posterior)

Front 342

What structures are pierced when doing an LP?

Back 342

1.Skin/superficial fascia 2.Ligaments(supraspinatous,interspinous,ligamentum flavum) 3.Epidural space 4.Dura mater 5.Subdural space 6.Arachnoid 7.Subarachnoid space--CSF

Front 343

What structures do the broad ligament contain (4)?

Back 343

--Round ligaments of the uterus --Ovaries --Uterine tubules --Uterine vessels

Front 344

What structures make up the bronchopulmonary segment?

Back 344

--Tertiary bronchus --Bronchial artery --Pulmonary artery

Front 345

What structures perforate the diaphragm at what vertebral levels?

Back 345

--IVC at T7 --esophagus, vagal trunks at T9 --aorta, thoracic duct, axygous vein at T11

Front 346

What three muscles close the jaw?

Back 346

--Masseter --Temporalis --Medial pterygoid

Front 347

What usually provides the blood supply for the inferior left ventricle?

Back 347

Posterior descending artery (PD) of the RCA

Front 348

When do the JG cells secrete renin?

Back 348

in response to decreased renal BP, decreased sodium delivery to distal tubule, and increased sympathetic tone

Front 349

When is damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve most likely to happen and what are its results(2 answers)?

Back 349

1.Thyroid surgery 2.Hoarseness

Front 350

Where is the CSF found?

Back 350

Subarachnoid space

Front 351

Where is the Myenteric plexus located? Submucosal plexus?

Back 351

1.Between the inner and outer layers of smooth muscle in GI tract wall 2.Between mucosa and inner layer of smooth muscle in GI tract wall.

Front 352

Which ligament contains the ovarian vessels?

Back 352

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

Front 353

Which ligament contains the uterine vessels?

Back 353

Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament

Front 354

Which lung is the usual site of an inhaled foreign body?

Back 354

Right lung

Front 355

Which lung provides a space for the heart to occupy?

Back 355

Left lung (in the place of the middle lobe)

Front 356

Which meningeal layer is not pierced during an LP?

Back 356

Pia mater

Front 357

Who usually gets a direct inguinal hernia? indirect hernia (and why)?

Back 357

1.Older men 2.Infants (failure of processus vaginalis to close)

Front 358

What are the 3 layers of peripheral nerves? (inner to outer)

Back 358

1) Endoneurium 2) Perineurium 3) Epineurium

Front 359

Where is type I collagen found?(7)

Back 359

1. bone 2. tendon 3. skin 4. dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7. late wound repair

Front 360

Where is type II collagen found? (3)

Back 360

1. cartilage (including hyaline) 2. vitreous body 3. nucleus pulposus.

Front 361

What are the functions of the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?

Back 361

1. Cochlea- hearing 2. vestibule- linear acceleration 3. semicircular canals- angular acceleration.

Front 362

What are the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?

Back 362

1. Cochlea 2. vestibule 3. semicircular canals

Front 363

What are the major structures of the inner ear membranous labyrinth?

Back 363

1. Cochlear duct 2. utricle. 3. saccule 4. semicircular canals.

Front 364

Name two proteins involved in the structure of macula adherens.

Back 364

1. Desmoplakin 2.Keratin

Front 365

Name 6 functions of Golgi apparatus.

Back 365

1. Distribution center of proteins and lipids from ER to plasma membrane, lysosomes, secretory vessicles 2. Modifies N-oligosaccharides on asparagine 3. Adds O-oligosaccharides to Ser and Thr residues 4. Proteoglycan assembly from proteoglycan core proteins 5. Sulfation of sugars in proteoglycans and of selected tyrosine on proteins 6. Addition of mannose-6-phosphate to specific lysosomal proteins, which targets the protein to the lysosome

Front 366

Name two proteins involved in the structure of zona adherens?

Back 366

1. E-cadherins 2. actin filaments

Front 367

Which cells are rich in smooth ER?

Back 367

1. liver hepatocytes, 2. steroid hormone-producing cells of adrenal cortex.

Front 368

Describe the immune response stimulated via Peyer's patches.

Back 368

1. M cells take up antigen. 2. stimulated B cells leave Peyer's patch and travel through lymph and blood to lamina propria of intestine. 3. In lamina propria B cells differentiate into IgA-secreting plasma cells. 4. IgA receives protective secretory component. 5. IgA is transported across epithelium to gut to deal with intraluminal Ag.

Front 369

Which cells are rich in rough ER?

Back 369

1. Mucus-secreting goblet cells of small intestine, 2. antibody-secreting plasma cells.

Front 370

What are the functions of the lymph node?

Back 370

1. Nonspecific filtration by macrophages. 2. storage/proliferation of B and T cells 3. Ab production.

Front 371

Where is type III collagen found? (5)

Back 371

1. skin 2.blood vessels 3.uterus 4.fetal tissue 5.granulation tissue

Front 372

Name five types of epithelial cell junctions.

Back 372

1. zona occludens 2.zona adherens 3.macula adherens 4.gap junction 5.hemidesmosome

Front 373

Describe microtubule arrangement of cilia.

Back 373

9+2 arrangement of microtubules.

Front 374

Describe the outer structure of a Peyer's patch.

Back 374

A Peyer's patch is 'covered' by single layer of cuboidal enterocytes, interspersed with specialized M cells (no goblet cells).

Front 375

What is a lymph node? Include information on structural components.

Back 375

A secondary lymphoid organ. Has many afferents, one or more efferents. With trabeculae. Major histological regions Follicle, Medulla, Paracortex

Front 376

What is the primary regulatory control of zona fasciculata secretion?

Back 376

ACTH, hypothalamic CRH

Front 377

What is the primary regulatory control of zona reticularis secretion?

Back 377

ACTH, hypothalamic CRH

Front 378

What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona glomerulosa?

Back 378

aldosterone

Front 379

What do Brunner's glands secrete?

Back 379

alkaline mucus

Front 380

What is the function of liver sinusoids?

Back 380

Allow macromolecules of plasma full access to surface of liver cells through space of Disse.

Front 381

What is the function of a gap junction?

Back 381

Allows adjacent cells to communicate for electric and metabolic functions.

Front 382

What is produced by alpha cells of the Islets of Langerhans?

Back 382

alpha cells produce glucagon

Front 383

What three cell types are found in Islets of Langerhans?

Back 383

alpha, beta, and gamma cells

Front 384

What type of cells are Nissl bodies found? In what parts of the cell?

Back 384

Are found in neurons. Are not found in axon or axon hillock.

Front 385

IN what area of the spleen are B cells found?

Back 385

B cells are found within the white pulp of the spleen.

Front 386

What is type IV collagen found? (1)

Back 386

basement membrane or basal lamina

Front 387

What is produced by beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans?

Back 387

beta cells produce insulin

Front 388

What is the only GI submucosal gland?

Back 388

Brunner's glands

Front 389

Describe the histological layers of the adrenal glands (outside to in)

Back 389

Capsule, Zona glomerulosa, Zona fasciculata, Zona reticularis, Medulla.

Front 390

What are/is the primary secretory product of the adrenal medulla?

Back 390

Catecholamines (Epi, NE)

Front 391

What do the medullary cords consist of?

Back 391

Closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells.

Front 392

What is the most common type of collagen?

Back 392

Collagen Type I - 90%

Front 393

What is the most abundant protein in the human body?

Back 393

Collagen

Front 394

Define Islets of Langerhans.

Back 394

Collections of endocrine cells.

Front 395

What is the function of hemidesmosomes?

Back 395

Connect cells to underlying extracellular matrix.

Front 396

What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona fasciculata?

Back 396

cortisol, sex hormones.

Front 397

What is another name for macula adherens?

Back 397

Desmosome

Front 398

What is the effect of duodenal ulcers on Brunner's gland histology?

Back 398

Duodenal ulcers cause hypertrophy of Brunner's glands.

Front 399

How does dynein function in cilia function?

Back 399

Dynein causes the bending of cilium by differential sliding of doublets.

Front 400

What kind of protein is dynein?

Back 400

Dynein is an ATPase

Front 401

Describe the role of dynein in cilia structure.

Back 401

Dynein links peripheral 9 doublets of microtubules.

Front 402

What makes endolymph?

Back 402

Endolymph is made by the stria vascularis.

Front 403

What is Endoneurium?

Back 403

Endoneurium invests single nerve fiber of the peripheral nerve.

Front 404

What is Epineurium?

Back 404

Epineurium (dense connective tissue) surrounds entire nerve (fascicles and blood vessels)

Front 405

Where is type X collagen found? (1)

Back 405

epiphyseal plate

Front 406

Plasma is filtered on the basis of what properties?

Back 406

Filtration of plasma occurs according to net charge and size.

Front 407

How is the glomerular basement membrane formed?

Back 407

From the fusion of endothelial and podocyte basement membranes.

Front 408

What is produced by gamma cells of the Islets of Langerhans?

Back 408

gamma cells produce somatostatin.

Front 409

What is the mnemonic to remember layers and products of adrenal cortex?

Back 409

GFR (Glomerulosa, Fasciculata, Reticularis) corresponds to Salt (Na+), Sugar (glucocorticoids) and Sex (androgens) The deeper you go, the sweeter it gets.

Front 410

What is the function of hair cells?

Back 410

Hair cells are the sensory elements in both the cochlear and vestibular apparatus.

Front 411

Name a protein involved in the structure of hemidesmosomes.

Back 411

Integrin

Front 412

What is another name for zona adherens?

Back 412

Intermediate junction

Front 413

Describe the histological structure of sinusoids of the liver.

Back 413

Irregular 'capillaries' with round pores 100-200 nm in diameter and no basement membrane

Front 414

What is the function of smooth ER?

Back 414

Is the site of steroid synthesis and detoxification of drugs and poisons

Front 415

What is the function of rough ER?

Back 415

Is the site of synthesis of secretory (exported proteins and of N-linked oligosaccharide addition to many proteins.

Front 416

What part of pancreas are the Islets of Langerhans concentrated?

Back 416

Islets of Langerhans are most numerous in the tail of pancreas.

Front 417

What structural defect causes Kartagener's syndrome? What is the consequence?

Back 417

Kartagener's syndrome is due to dynein arm defect. Results in immotile cilia.

Front 418

Define Pacinian corpuscles.

Back 418

Large, encapsulated sensory receptors found in deeper layers of skin at ligaments, joint capsules, serous membranes, mesenteries

Front 419

Where are Brunner's glands located?

Back 419

Located in submucosa of duodenum

Front 420

Describe the histologic structure of sinusoids of the spleen.

Back 420

Long, vascular channels in red pulp. With fenestrated 'barrel hoop' basement membrane.

Front 421

What is the histologic change in lymph nodes during an extreme cellular immune response?

Back 421

Lymph node paracortex becomes enlarged during extreme cellular immune response.

Front 422

What is the histologic presentation of DiGeorge's syndrome?

Back 422

Lymph node paracortex is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge's syndrome

Front 423

What kind of cells are found nearby the sinusoids of the spleen?

Back 423

Macrophages

Front 424

What are the major structures of the lymph node medulla?

Back 424

Medulla consists of medullary cords and medullary sinuses.

Front 425

What do medullary sinuses communicate with?

Back 425

Medullary sinuses communicate with efferent lymphatics.

Front 426

What do medullary sinuses consist of?

Back 426

Medullary sinuses contain reticular cells and macrophages.

Front 427

What is the function of Meissner's corpuscles?

Back 427

Meissner's corpuscles are involved in light discriminatory touch of glabrous skin

Front 428

What is the histologic change in nephrotic syndrome? What is the consequence of this change?

Back 428

Negative charge is lost. Plasma protein is lost in urine

Front 429

What is the glomerular basement membrane coated with? (provides negative charge to filter).

Back 429

Negatively charged heparan sulfate

Front 430

What is the most common tumor the adrenal medulla in children?

Back 430

Neuroblastoma

Front 431

What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?

Back 431

Pacinian corpuscles are involved in pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension.

Front 432

What do the Islets of Langerhans arise from?

Back 432

Pancreatic buds

Front 433

What specialized vascular structure is found in the lymph node paracortex? What is the function of this structure?

Back 433

Paracortex contains high endothelial venules (HEV). T and B cells enter from the blood through the HEV.

Front 434

What cells are found in the lymph node paracortex?

Back 434

Paracortex houses T cells

Front 435

What is Perineurium?

Back 435

Perineurium (permeability barrier) surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers.

Front 436

What is the most common tumor the adrenal medulla in adults?

Back 436

Pheochromocytoma

Front 437

Compare the consequences of pheochromocytoma vs. neuroblastoma on blood pressure

Back 437

Pheochromocytoma causes episodic hypertension. Neuroblastoma does NOT cause episodic hypertension.

Front 438

What is the space of Disse?

Back 438

Pores in liver sinusoids allowing plasma macromolecules access to liver cell surfaces.

Front 439

What is the primary regulatory control of adrenal medulla secretion?

Back 439

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers.

Front 440

What is the function of zona occludens?

Back 440

Prevents diffusion across intracellular space.

Front 441

Describe the appearance and status of primary vs. secondary follicles.

Back 441

Primary follicles are dense and dormant. Secondary follicles have pale central germinal centers and are active.

Front 442

Describe the location of the lymph node paracortex.

Back 442

Region of cortex between follicles and medulla.

Front 443

What is the primary regulatory control of zona glomerulosa secretion?

Back 443

Renin-angiotensin

Front 444

What is the glomerular basement membrane responsible for?

Back 444

Responsible for the actual filtration of plasma.

Front 445

What is another name for type III collagen?

Back 445

reticulin

Front 446

What are Nissl bodies?

Back 446

rough ER

Front 447

Where in the inner ear are the ampullae found? What is the function of this structure?

Back 447

Semicircular canals contain ampullae. Functions in detecting angular acceleration.

Front 448

What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona reticularis?

Back 448

sex hormones (e.g. androgens)

Front 449

What is the function of lymph node follicles?

Back 449

Site of B-cell localization and proliferation.

Front 450

Define macula adherens.

Back 450

Small, discrete sites of attachment of epithelial cells.

Front 451

Define Meissner's corpuscles.

Back 451

Small, encapsulated sensory receptors found in dermis of palm, soles and digits of skin.

Front 452

What is an M cell? What is it's function.

Back 452

Specialized cell interspersed between the cuboidal enterocytes covering a Peyer's patch. M cells take up antigens

Front 453

Name the layers of epidermis from surface to base.

Back 453

stratum Corneum, stratum Lucidum, stratum Granulosum, stratum Spinosum, stratum Basalis

Front 454

What is the location of zona adherens?

Back 454

Surrounds the perimeter just below zona occludens.

Front 455

What is the function of Nissl bodies?

Back 455

Synthesize enzymes (e.g. ChAT) and peptide neurotransmitters.

Front 456

In what area of the spleen are T cells found?

Back 456

T cells are found in the PALS and the red pulp of the spleen.

Front 457

Which part of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound? Which picks up low frequency?

Back 457

The base of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound the apex picks up low frequency sound

Front 458

What is the bony labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.

Back 458

The bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph. Perilymph is Na+ rich, similar to ECF

Front 459

What is the cause of I cell disease? What is the consequence?

Back 459

The failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins. These enzymes are secreted outside the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome.

Front 460

What is the membranous labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.

Back 460

The membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. Endolymph is K+ rich, similar to ICF.

Front 461

What layer of the peripheral nerve must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment?

Back 461

The perineurium must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment.

Front 462

Where in the inner ear are the maculae found? What is the function of this structure?

Back 462

The utricle and saccule contain maculae Functions in detecting linear acceleration.

Front 463

How is the function of gap junctions accomplished?

Back 463

Through a connection with central channels.

Front 464

What is another name for zona occludens?

Back 464

Tight junction

Front 465

What are mnemonics for remembering locations for type I, II and IV collagen?

Back 465

Type ONE: bONE Type TWO: carTWOlage Type FOUR: under the FLOOR (basement membrane)

Front 466

What is a Peyer's patch?

Back 466

Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine.

Front 467

What type of infection may induce an extreme cellular immune response? What happens to the lymph node during such an immune response?

Back 467

Viral response is an example. The paracortex enlarges.

Front 468

According to the Homunculus man, place the following in order (from medial to lateral). hand, foot, tongue, face, trunk

Back 468

foot, trunk, hand, face, tongue

Front 469

(T or F) Can Bell's palsy occur idiopathically?

Back 469

true

Front 470

(T or F) Can fasiculations be present in a LMN lesion?

Back 470

True

Front 471

(T or F) Is the anterior nucleus of the thalamus part of the limbic system?

Back 471

True

Front 472

(T or F) Is the cingulate gyrus part of the limbic system?

Back 472

True

Front 473

(T or F) Is the Entrorhinal cortex part of the limbic system?

Back 473

True

Front 474

(T or F) Is the hippocampal formation part of the limbic system?

Back 474

True

Front 475

(T or F) Is the mammillary body part of the limbic system?

Back 475

True

Front 476

(T or F) Is the septal area part of the limbic system?

Back 476

True

Front 477

(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in atrophy of the interosseous muscles?

Back 477

True

Front 478

(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences?

Back 478

True

Front 479

(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head to the opposite side?

Back 479

True

Front 480

(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand?

Back 480

True

Front 481

A lesion of the globus pallidus causes what disease?

Back 481

Wilson's disease

Front 482

A lesion of the mammillary bodies (bilateraly) produces what?

Back 482

Wernicke-Korsakoff's encephalopathy (confabulations, anterograde amnesia)

Front 483

A lesion of the optic chiasm produces?

Back 483

bitemporal hemianopsia

Front 484

A lesion of the right dorsal optic radiation (parietal lesion) produces?

Back 484

left lower quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)

Front 485

A lesion of the right Meyer's loop (temporal lobe) produces?

Back 485

left upper quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)

Front 486

A lesion of the right optic nerve produces?

Back 486

right anopsia

Front 487

A lesion of the right optic tract produces?

Back 487

left homonymous hemianopsia

Front 488

A lesion of the right visual fibers just prior to the visual cortex produces?

Back 488

left hemianopsia with macular sparing

Front 489

A lesion of the Striatum can cause which 2 diseases?

Back 489

Huntington's and Wilson's disease

Front 490

A positive Babinski is an indicator for a (UMN or LMN) lesion?

Back 490

UMN lesion

Front 491

A rupture of the middle menigeal artery causes what type of hematoma? (epidural or subdural)

Back 491

epidural hematoma

Front 492

A rupture of the superior cerebral veins causes what type of hematoma? (epidural or subdural)

Back 492

subdural hematoma

Front 493

An aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery may cause what type of defects?

Back 493

visual defects

Front 494

An aneurysm of what artery may cause CN III palsy?

Back 494

posterior communicating artery

Front 495

Are D1 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?

Back 495

Excitatory

Front 496

Are D2 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?

Back 496

Inhibitory

Front 497

Beginning with anterior communicating artery describe the path around the circle of Willis.

Back 497

ant. comm. - ACA - ICA - post. comm. - PCA - PCA - post. comm. - ICA - ACA - ant. comm.

Front 498

Bell's Palsy is seen as a complication in what 5 things?

Back 498

AIDS, Lyme disease, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes (ALexander Bell with STD)

Front 499

Brodmann's area 17 is?

Back 499

principal visual cortex

Front 500

Brodmann's area 22 is?

Back 500

Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)

Front 501

Brodmann's area 3,1,2 is?

Back 501

principal sensory area

Front 502

Brodmann's area 4 is?

Back 502

principal motor area

Front 503

Brodmann's area 41, 42 is?

Back 503

primary auditory cortex

Front 504

Brodmann's area 44, 45 is?

Back 504

Broca's area (motor speech)

Front 505

Brodmann's area 6 is?

Back 505

premotor area

Front 506

Brodmann's area 8 is?

Back 506

frontal eye movement and pupilary change area

Front 507

CN I has what function?

Back 507

smell

Front 508

CN I passes through what 'hole'?

Back 508

cribriform plate

Front 509

CN II has what function?

Back 509

sight

Front 510

CN II passes through what 'hole'?

Back 510

optic canal

Front 511

CN III has what 4 functions?

Back 511

eye movement, pupil constriction, accommodation, eyelid opening

Front 512

CN III inervates what 5 muscles.

Back 512

medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae superioris

Front 513

CN III passes through what 'hole'?

Back 513

superior orbital fissure

Front 514

CN IV has what function?

Back 514

eye movement

Front 515

CN IV inervates what muscle?

Back 515

superior oblique

Front 516

CN IV passes through what 'hole'?

Back 516

superior orbital fissure

Front 517

CN IX has what 4 functions?

Back 517

posterior 1/3 taste, swallowing, salivation (parotid), monitoring carotid body and sinus

Front 518

CN IX passes through what 'hole'?

Back 518

jugular foramen

Front 519

CN V has what 2 functions?

Back 519

mastication, facial sensation

Front 520

CN V1 passes through what 'hole'?

Back 520

superior orbital fissure

Front 521

CN V2 passes through what 'hole'?

Back 521

foramen rotundum

Front 522

CN V3 passes through what 'hole'?

Back 522

foramen ovale

Front 523

CN VI has what function?

Back 523

eye movement

Front 524

CN VI inervates what muscle?

Back 524

lateral rectus

Front 525

CN VI passes through what 'hole'?

Back 525

superior orbital fissure

Front 526

CN VII has what 4 functions?

Back 526

facial movement, anterior 2/3 taste, lacrimation, salivation(SL, SM glands)

Front 527

CN VII passes through what 'hole'?

Back 527

internal auditory meatus

Front 528

CN VIII has what 2 functions?

Back 528

hearing, balance

Front 529

CN VIII passes through what 'hole'?

Back 529

internal auditory meatus

Front 530

CN X has what 5 functions?

Back 530

taste, swallowing, palate elevation, talking, thoracoabdominal viscera

Front 531

CN X passes through what 'hole'?

Back 531

jugular foramen

Front 532

CN XI has what 2 functions?

Back 532

head turning, shoulder shrugging

Front 533

CN XI passes through what 'hole'?

Back 533

jugular foramen (descending) -- foramen magnum (ascending)

Front 534

CN XII has what function?

Back 534

tounge movements

Front 535

CN XII passes through what 'hole'?

Back 535

hypoglossal canal

Front 536

Complete the muscle spindle reflex arc by placing the following in order: alpha motor, Ia afferent, muscle stretch, extrafusal contraction, intrafusal stretch.

Back 536

muscle stretch - intrafusal stretch - Ia afferent - alpha motor - extrafusal contraction

Front 537

Extrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?

Back 537

alpha motor neuron

Front 538

From which 3 spinal roots does long thoracic nerve arises?

Back 538

C5, C6, C7

Front 539

General sensory/motor dysfunction and aphasia are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)

Back 539

anterior circle

Front 540

Give 3 characteristics of a LMN lesion.

Back 540

atrophy, flaccid paralysis, absent deep tendon reflexes

Front 541

Give 3 charateristics of internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)

Back 541

medial rectus palsy on lateral gaze, nystagmus in abducted eye, normal convergence.

Front 542

Give 4 characteristics of an UMN lesion.

Back 542

spastic paralysis, increased deep tendon reflexes, + Babinski, minor to no atrophy

Front 543

Golgi tendon organs send their signal via what nerve?

Back 543

group Ib afferents

Front 544

Horner's Syndrome is present if the lesion in Brown-Sequard is above what level?

Back 544

T1

Front 545

How are the fibers of the corticospinal tract laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)

Back 545

arms- medial, legs-lateral

Front 546

How are the fibers of the dorsal column laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)

Back 546

legs-medial, arms-lateral

Front 547

How are the fibers of the spinothalmic tract laminated? (sacral/cervical medial or lateral?)

Back 547

cervical-medial, sacral-lateral

Front 548

How do glucose and amino acids cross the blood-brain barrier?

Back 548

carrier-mediated transport mechanism

Front 549

How does the hypothalamus control the adenohypophysis?

Back 549

via releasing factors (ie. TRH, CRF, GnRF, etc.)

Front 550

Huntington's patients typically have what type of movements?

Back 550

Chorea

Front 551

If the radial nerve is lesioned, what 2 reflexes are lost?

Back 551

triceps reflex and brachioradialis reflex

Front 552

If you break your humerus mid-shaft, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 552

radial nerve

Front 553

If you break your medial epicondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 553

ulnar nerve

Front 554

If you break your supracondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 554

median nerve

Front 555

If you break your surgical neck of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 555

axillary nerve

Front 556

In a lesion of the radial nerve, what muscle is associated with wrist drop?

Back 556

extensor carpi radialis longus

Front 557

Intrafusal fibers are encapsulated and make up muscle spindles that send their signal via what nerve?

Back 557

group Ia afferents

Front 558

Intrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?

Back 558

gamma motor neuron

Front 559

Is Bell's palsy an UMN or a LMN lesion?

Back 559

LMN

Front 560

Is the Babinski reflex (positive or negative) when the big toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan-out?

Back 560

positive (pathologic)

Front 561

Name 2 locations for lesions in Syringomyelia?

Back 561

ventral white commissure and ventral horns

Front 562

Name 3 locations for lesions in Vit.B12 neuropathy(Friedreich's ataxia)?

Back 562

dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts

Front 563

Name 7 functions of the hypothalamus?

Back 563

Thirst/waterbalance, Adenohypophysis control, Neurohypophysis control, Hunger/satiety, Autonomic regulation, Temperature regulation, Sexual emotions. TAN HATS

Front 564

Name the 4 foramina that are in the posterior cranial fossa?

Back 564

internal auditory meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, and foramen magnum.

Front 565

Name the 5 foramina that are in the middle cranial fossa?

Back 565

optic canal, superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum.

Front 566

Name the 5 functions of the Limbic system?

Back 566

Feeding, Fighting, Feeling, Flight, sex (F--K) [the famous 5 F's]

Front 567

Name the 5 segments of the brachial plexus in order from proximal to distal.

Back 567

roots - trunks - divisions - cords - branches

Front 568

Name the type of movement with slow writhing movements (esp. the fingers)?

Back 568

Athetosis

Front 569

Name the type of movement with sudden, jerky, purposeless movements?

Back 569

Chorea

Front 570

Name the type of movement with sudden, wild flailing of one arm?

Back 570

Hemiballismus

Front 571

Neurons from the globus pallidus have what action on the ventral anterior nucleus?

Back 571

Inhibitory

Front 572

Neurons from the striatum have what action on the globus pallidus?

Back 572

Inhibitory

Front 573

retina, CN II, pretectal nuclei, Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN III, ciliary ganglion, pupillary constrictor muscle

Front 574

Stimulation from the paraventricular nucleus cause the release of what hormone?

Back 574

oxytocin

Front 575

Stimulation from the supraoptic nucleus cause the release of what hormone?

Back 575

ADH (vasopressin)

Front 576

The Blood-Brain Barrier is formed by what 3 structures?

Back 576

choriod plexus epithelium, intracerebral capillary endothelium, astrocytes. (First Aid says Arachnoid but the brains say that’s a typo)

Front 577

The central retinal artery is a branch off what larger artery?

Back 577

ophthalmic artery

Front 578

The embryologic defect of having a cervical rib can compress what 2 structures?

Back 578

subclavian artery and inferior trunk of the brachial plexus

Front 579

The fasciculus cuneatus contains fibers from the upper or lower body?

Back 579

upper extremities

Front 580

The fasciculus gracilis contains fibers from the upper or lower body?

Back 580

lower extremities

Front 581

The hippocampal formation is connected to the mammillary body and septal area via what structure?

Back 581

fornix

Front 582

The hippocampus has input from what two areas?

Back 582

entorhinal cortex, septal area

Front 583

The hippocampus has output to what two areas?

Back 583

mammillary body, septal area

Front 584

The infraorbital nerve is a branch off what larger nerve?

Back 584

CN V2

Front 585

The Nucleus Ambiguus has fibers from what 3 CNs?

Back 585

CN IX, X, XII

Front 586

The Nucleus Solitarius has fibers from what 3 CNs?

Back 586

CN VII, IX, X

Front 587

Traction or tear of the superior trunk of the brachial plexus causes what syndrome?

Back 587

Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter's tip)

Front 588

Vertigo, ataxia, visual deficits, and coma are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)

Back 588

posterior circle

Front 589

Visual fibers from the lateral geniculate body terminate on the upper and lower banks of what fissure?

Back 589

Calcarine fissure

Front 590

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the achilles reflex?

Back 590

S1

Front 591

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the biceps reflex?

Back 591

C5

Front 592

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the patella reflex?

Back 592

L4

Front 593

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the triceps reflex?

Back 593

C7

Front 594

What 2 areas have sensation deficit in a lesion of the median nerve?

Back 594

lateral palm/thumb and the radial 2 1/2 fingers

Front 595

What 2 areas have sensation deficit in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?

Back 595

medial palm and the ulnar 1 1/2 fingers

Front 596

What 2 cutaneus nerves are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 596

posterior brachial cutaneous and posterior antebrachial cutaneous

Front 597

What 2 spinal roots make up the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 597

C8, T1

Front 598

What 2 spinal roots make up the superior trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 598

C5, C6

Front 599

What 2 structures pass through the internal auditory meatus?

Back 599

CN VII, VIII

Front 600

What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the musculocutaneus nerve?

Back 600

difficulty flexing the arm, variable sensory loss

Front 601

What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the ulnar nerve?

Back 601

weak intrinsic muscles of the hand, Pope's blessing

Front 602

What 3 blood barriers does the body have?

Back 602

blood-brain, blood-gas, blood-testis

Front 603

What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 603

coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis

Front 604

What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 604

triceps brachii, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus

Front 605

What 3 structures pass through the foramen magnum?

Back 605

spinal roots of CN XI(ascending), brainstem, vertebral arteries

Front 606

What 3 structures pass through the optic canal?

Back 606

CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein

Front 607

What 4 'muscles' does the radial nerve innervate?

Back 607

Brachioradialis, Extensors of the wrist and fingers, Supinator, Triceps. (BEST)

Front 608

What 4 areas is there decreased output in Parkinson's?

Back 608

substantia nigra pars compacta, globus pallidus, ventral anterior nucleus, cortex

Front 609

What 4 movements are impaired in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?

Back 609

wrist flexion, wrist adduction, thumb adduction, and adduction of the 2 ulnar fingers

Front 610

What 4 movements are lost in a lesion of the median nerve?

Back 610

forearm pronation, wrist flexion, finger flexion, and several thumb movements

Front 611

What 4 structures pass through the jugular foramen?

Back 611

CN IX, X, XI(descending), jugular vein

Front 612

What 4 things do the lateral striate arteries supply?

Back 612

internal capsule, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus

Front 613

What 5 spinal nerves make up the brachial plexus?

Back 613

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

Front 614

What 5 structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?

Back 614

CN III, IV, V-1, VI, ophthalmic vein

Front 615

What 5 types of cells make up the suportive cells of the CNS/PNS?

Back 615

Astrocytes, Microglia, Oligodendroglia, Schwann cells, Ependymal cells.

Front 616

What are 2 characteristics of Tabes Dorsalis?

Back 616

impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia

Front 617

What are 3 clinical findings of the arm in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

Back 617

arm hangs by the side, medially rotated, forearm is pronated

Front 618

What are the 2 classic causes of Erb-Duchenne palsy?

Back 618

blow to the shoulder and trauma during birth

Front 619

What are the 3 classic symptoms of Horner's syndrome?

Back 619

ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis

Front 620

What are the 4 classic findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

Back 620

ipsi motor paralysis(spastic), ipsi loss of dorsal column, contra loss of spinothalamic, ipsi loss of ALL sensation at the level of the lesion

Front 621

What are the input and output of the anterior nucleus of the thalamus?

Back 621

input - mammillary body, output - cingulate gyrus

Front 622

What are the input and output of the cingulate gyrus?

Back 622

input - anterior nucleus of the thalamus, output - entorhinal cortex

Front 623

What are the input and output of the entorhinal cortex?

Back 623

input - cingulate gyrus, output - hippocampal formation

Front 624

What are the input and output of the mammillary body?

Back 624

input - hippocampal formation, output - anterior nucleus of the thalamus

Front 625

What are the input and output of the septal area?

Back 625

input - hippocampal formation, output - hippocampal formation

Front 626

What artery do the lateral striate branch off of?

Back 626

internal carotid artery

Front 627

What artery does the anterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?

Back 627

basilar artery

Front 628

What artery does the anterior spinal artery branch off of?

Back 628

vertebral artery

Front 629

What artery does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?

Back 629

vertebral artery

Front 630

What artery does the superior cerebellar artery branch off of?

Back 630

basilar artery

Front 631

What artery supplies Broca's and Wernicke's speech areas?

Back 631

middle cerebral artery

Front 632

What artery supplies the medial surface of the brain (foot-leg area)?

Back 632

anterior cerebral artery

Front 633

What bone do all the foramina of the middle cranial fossa pass through?

Back 633

sphenoid bone

Front 634

What CN arises dorsally?

Back 634

CN IV trochlear

Front 635

What CN is the afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

Back 635

CN II

Front 636

What CN is the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

Back 636

CN III

Front 637

What CNs lie medially at the brain stem?

Back 637

CN III, VI, XIII (3 - 6 - 12)

Front 638

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: central myelin production?

Back 638

Oligodendroglia

Front 639

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: inner lining of the ventricles?

Back 639

Ependymal cells

Front 640

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: peripheral myelin production?

Back 640

Schwann cells

Front 641

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: phagocytosis?

Back 641

Microglia

Front 642

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: physical support, repair, K+ metabolism?

Back 642

Astrocytes

Front 643

What disease does Tabes Dorsalis result from?

Back 643

tertiary syphilis

Front 644

What disorder results from a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)?

Back 644

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)

Front 645

What embryologic defect is thoracic outlet syndrome caused by?

Back 645

by having a cervical rib.

Front 646

What happens if a swinging light test is performed on a Marcus Gann pupil (afferent pupil defect)?

Back 646

results in pupil dialation of the defective eye as the light is swung from the normal eye to the defective eye

Front 647

What happens if you illuminate one pupil in a normal patient?

Back 647

both eyes constrict (consensual reflex)

Front 648

What hypo/hyper-kinetic disorder is marked by decreased serum ceruloplasm and Keyser-Fleischer rings in the eyes?

Back 648

Wilson's disease

Front 649

What is a Argyll Robertson pupil?

Back 649

the eyes DO NOT constrict to light, but DO accommodate to near objects

Front 650

What is affected in a central VII lesion (lesion above the facial nucleus - UMN)?

Back 650

paralysis of the contralateral lower quadrant

Front 651

What is affected in a peripheral VII lesion (lesion at or below the facial nucleus - LMN)?

Back 651

paralysis of the ipsilateral face both upper and lower

Front 652

What is the common name for a peripheral VII lesion?

Back 652

Bell's palsy

Front 653

What is the consequence when your CNS stimulates the gamma motor neuron and the intrafusal fibers contract?

Back 653

increased sensitivity of the reflex arc

Front 654

What is the direct pathway from the striatum to the cortex?

Back 654

The striatum to the substantia nigra pars reticularis /medial globus pallidus to the thalamus to the cortex (excitatory path)

Front 655

What is the embryologic tissue origin of Microglia (ecto/meso/edo)?

Back 655

Mesoderm

Front 656

What is the indirect pathway from the striatum to the cortex?

Back 656

The striatum to the lateral globus pallidus to the subthalamic nucleus to the substantia nigra/medial globus pallidus to the thalamus to the cortex (inhibitory pathway but still increases the thalamic drive)

Front 657

What is the lesion in Brown-Sequard syndrome?

Back 657

hemisection of the spinal cord

Front 658

What is the most common circle of Willis aneurysm?

Back 658

anterior communicating artery

Front 659

What is the name for the small muscle fiber type that regulates muscle length?

Back 659

Intrafusal fibers

Front 660

What lesion produces coma?

Back 660

reticular activating system

Front 661

What lesion produces conduction aphasia, poor repetition w/ poor comprehension, and fluent speech?

Back 661

Arcuate fasiculus

Front 662

What lesion produces Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hyperorality, hypersexuality, disinhibited behavior)?

Back 662

Amygdala (bilateral)

Front 663

What lesion produces motor(expressive) aphasia with good comprehension?

Back 663

Broca's area (motor speech)

Front 664

What lesion produces personality changes and deficits in concentration, orientation, judgement?

Back 664

frontal lobe - these are frontal release signs

Front 665

What lesion produces sensory(fluent/receptive) aphasia with poor comprehension?

Back 665

Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)

Front 666

What lesion produces spatial neglect syndrome?

Back 666

right parietal lobe -- contralateral neglect.

Front 667

What lobe of the brain is the Broca's area in?

Back 667

frontal

Front 668

What lobe of the brain is the frontal eye movement and pupillary change area in?

Back 668

frontal

Front 669

What lobe of the brain is the premotor area in?

Back 669

frontal

Front 670

What lobe of the brain is the primary auditory cortex area in?

Back 670

temporal

Front 671

What lobe of the brain is the principal motor area in?

Back 671

frontal

Front 672

What lobe of the brain is the principal sensory area in?

Back 672

parietal

Front 673

What lobe of the brain is the principal visual cortex area in?

Back 673

occipital

Front 674

What lobe of the brain is the Wernicke's area in?

Back 674

temporal

Front 675

What midbrain structure is important in mitigating voluntary movements and making postural adjustments?

Back 675

Basal Ganglia

Front 676

What mineral causes the pathology of Wilson's disease

Back 676

copper

Front 677

What muscle depresses and extorts the eye?

Back 677

inferior rectus

Front 678

What muscle elevates and intorts the eye?

Back 678

superior rectus

Front 679

What muscle extorts, elevates, and adducts the eye?

Back 679

inferior oblique

Front 680

What muscle fiber type makes up the muscle bulk and provides the force for contraction?

Back 680

Extrafusal fibers

Front 681

What muscle intorts, depresses, and abducts the eye?

Back 681

superior oblique

Front 682

What muscle sensor senses tension and provides inhibitory feedback to alpha motor neurons?

Back 682

golgi tendon organs

Front 683

What muscular disorder is a medial longitudinal fasciculus syndrome associated with?

Back 683

Multiple Sclerosis (MLF=MS)

Front 684

What nerve is known as the great extensor nerve?

Back 684

radial nerve

Front 685

What neurotransmitter is decreased in Parkinson's disease?

Back 685

dopamine

Front 686

What nucleus if typically lesioned in hemiballismus?

Back 686

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

Front 687

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls circadian rhythms?

Back 687

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Front 688

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls hunger?

Back 688

lateral nucleus

Front 689

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls satiety?

Back 689

ventromedial nucleus

Front 690

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls sexual emotions?

Back 690

septate nucleus

Front 691

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls thirst and water balance?

Back 691

supraoptic nucleus

Front 692

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls autonomic regulation?

Back 692

anterior hypothalamus

Front 693

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls cooling when hot?

Back 693

anterior hypothalamus

Front 694

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls heat conservation when cold?

Back 694

posterior hypothalamus

Front 695

What part of the spinal cord is spared with complete occlusion of the ventral artery?

Back 695

dorsal columns

Front 696

What passes through the cavernous sinus? (nerves and artery)

Back 696

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, post-ganglionic SNS and the Internal carotid artery

Front 697

What reflex is lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 697

biceps reflex

Front 698

What structure passes through the foramen ovale?

Back 698

CN V3

Front 699

What structure passes through the foramen rotundum?

Back 699

CN V2

Front 700

What structure passes through the foramen spinosum?

Back 700

middle meningeal artery

Front 701

What structure passes through the hypoglossal canal?

Back 701

CN XII

Front 702

What symptom is seen with a lesion of the axillary nerve?

Back 702

Deltoid paralysis

Front 703

What symptom is seen with a lesion of the median nerve?

Back 703

decreased thumb function

Front 704

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the long thoracic nerve?

Back 704

Winged scapula

Front 705

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 705

Claw hand

Front 706

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

Back 706

Wrist drop

Front 707

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 707

Saturday night palsy

Front 708

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 708

Waiter's tip (Erb-Duchenne palsy)