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152 Cards in this Set

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T/F: In children, the ligaments are stronger than bone, so more fractures tend to occur than sprains
TRUE
When does growth end for children?
20
At what age is peak bone mass reached?
35
T/F: You do not need to check area above or below a joint that is painful
FALSE. Check above and below a painful joint
How is muscle strength graded?
0-5. (ex. = 5/5).
0=absent; no contraction detected
1=trace; slight contraction
2=weak; movement with gravity eliminated
3=fair; movement against gravity
4=good; movement against gravity with some resistance
5=normal; movement against gravity with full resistance
How are pulses graded?
0-4 (normal = +2/4)
How are deep tendon reflexes graded?
0-4 (normal = +2/4)
Which roots does are associated with the biceps brachii?
C5-C6
Which roots are associated with the brachioradialis muscle?
C5-C6
Which roots are associated with the triceps muscle?
C6-C8
Which roots are associated with the patellar tendon?
L2-L4
Which roots are associated with the Achilles Heel tendon?
S1-S2
What is the grading scale for deep tendon reflexes?
0 - no response
+1 = diminished
+2 = Normal
+3 = Increased
+4 = Hyperactive, clonus
When you ask a pt. to squat and then rise, what are you testing?
L4
When you ask a pt. to walk on their heels, what are you testing?
L5
When you ask a pt. to walk on their toes, what are you testing?
S1
How do you test for a scoliosis?
ask pt. to flex forward. If hum present, ask them to bend to the side of the hump. If hump disappears, its a functional scoliosis; if hump persists, its a structural scoliosis
What does the Spurling's Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Nerve root impingment. positive sign is pain
What does the Compression/Distraction Test test for? What is the positive sign?
nerve root impingement. positive sign is pain for both compression and distraction.
What does the Valsalva Test test for? What is the positive sign?
space-occupying lesions like disc or tumor
What does the Straight Leg Raising Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Tests L4, L5 and S1 radiculpathy. Pos. sign is pain extending below the knee
What test can confirm the straight led raising test?
bragard stretch test
What does the Femoral Stretch Test test for? What is the positive sign?
L1, L2, L3 radiculopathy. Pos. sign is pain extending below the knee
What does the Trendelenburg Test test for? What is the positive sign?
colateral weakness of abductor muscles. pos. test is when iliac crest drops on lifted leg side.
What does the Thomas Test test for? What is the positive sign?
tight iliopsoas muscle (flexion contractures of the hip). Pos. sign is >15% of flexion in the contralateral hip.
What does the Patrick/FABER Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Ipsilateral hip pain suggesting hip pathology and ipsilateral SI joint pain when pressing on ipsilateral knee and contralateral ASIS suggests SI pathology
What does the Barlow-Ortolani Test test for? What is the positive sign?
In Newborns --> 2 yr. olds. Posterior displaced hip. Pos. sign is click or plunk when you flex the legs to tight angles and abduct.
What is Osgood Schlatter Disease?
Osteocondritis of the epiphysis of the tibial tubercle. Usually occurs in active kids (9-15)
What does the Drawer Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Anterior drawer test for Anterior Cruciate Ligament
Posterior Drawer test for posterior cruciate ligament
Pos. sign is 2 or more cm of movement
What does the Lachman Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Anterior Criciate Ligament. Pos sign is increased laxity in ACL
What does the McMurray Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Meniscal injury. pos. test is audible/palpable clicking
What does the Apley Compression/Distraction Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Compression = meniscal injury
Distraction = collateral ligament injury

Pos. sign is pain
What does the Ligament Stability Test test for? What is the positive sign?
stability of lateral and medial collateral ligaments.

Pos. sign is abnormal lateral or medial movement
What does the Ballottement Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Excessive fluid or an effusion in the knee. Pos. sign is rebound of the patella by fluid in the joint.
What does the Thomson-Doherty Squeeze Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Achilles tendon rupture. Pos sign is no motion of foot.
What does the Homan's Test test for? What is the positive sign?
DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis). Pos. sign is pain
What does the Drawer Sign (for Ankle, not knee) test for? What is the positive sign?
Anterior Talofibular Ligament disruption. Pos. sign is excessive forward movement.
What does the Apley Scratch Test test for?
Quickest way to evaluate a pt's range of motion. Also a good screening test for adhesive capsulitis.
What does the Drop Arm Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Rotator Cuff Tear (SITS muscles), specifically the supraspinatus muscle. Pos sign is when pt. can't hold arm up or lower it smoothly when you tap on it.
What does the Empty Can, Neer and Hawkins Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Muscle/Nerve impingement. Pos. sign is pain.
What does the Apprehension, Jerk and Sulcus Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Apprehension = Anterior shoulder dislocation
Jerk = Posterior shoulder dislocation
Sulcus = Inferior Shoulder Dislocation
What does the Yergason's Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Biceps tendonitis. Pos. sign is tenderness or tendon popping out of bicipital groove
What does the Tennis Elbow Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Lateral epicondylitis. Pos. sign pain over lateral epicondyle.
What does the Tinel Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Ulnar nerve impingement. Pos. sign is parasthesia in 1/2 of 4th and 5th digits.
What does the Ligamentous stability Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Stability of medial and lateral collateral ligaments of elbow. Pos. sign is gapping at the joint.
What does the Dupuytren Contracture Test test for?
Palmar fascia of 1 or more fingers.
NOTE: Usually bilateral and hereditary. Increased incidence with age. Seen frequently in patients that suffer from diabetes, alcoholic liver disease, epilepsy.
What does the Tinel and Phalen'sTest test for? What is the positive sign?
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (median nerve). Pos. sign is parasthesia in 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and half of 4th digit. Pt. should hold Phalen's position for 1 minute to confirm neg. test result.
Note: Flick Sign - pt. shaking down a thermometer is pos. sign of carpal tunnel
What does the Long Finger Flexor Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Flexor digitorum superficialis - flexion of PIP joint.

Flexor Digitorum Profundus - Flexion of DIP joint.
What does the Allen Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Patency of ulnar artery. Pos. sign is if the hand doesn't return to normal coloring after release of ulnar artery.
What does the Median Nerve Test test for? What is the positive sign?
Tinels - tapping at flexor retinaculum. Pos. sign is parasthesia in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and half of 4th digit.

Phalen's - hands in reverse prayer position. Pos. sign is parasthesia in 1st, 2nd, 3rd and half of fourth digit.
T/F: Osteoarthritis onset usually occurs in older patients as opposed to younger patients like Rheumatoid arthritis.
TRUE
Is osteoarthritis onset sudden or gradual?
gradual. Rheumatoid arthritis onset is sudden
How long does stiffness associated with rheumatoid arthritis last?
at least an hour. Osteoarthritis is a few minutes.
How is pain associated with osteoarthritis relieved?
rest. Rheumatoid arthritis pain is even at rest.
Is fatgue associated with rheumatoid arthritis unusual?
NO, its usually severe.
What is the cause of rheumatoid arthritis?
Fusiform (=tapering towards each end) soft tissue enlargement
What is the cause of osteoarthritis?
Bony enlargement.
T/F: osteoarthitis gets better with use of the joint.
FALSE. it gets worse.
Define Baker's Cyst
feeling of tightness/ a bulge behind knee. Pain is worse when knee is fully extended or active.
Define Bursitis
Inflammation of bursa. (results from constant friction between skin and tissues around joint.)
What are some of the signs of bursitis?
swelling, pain, point tenderness, erythema, warmth
Define osteomyelitis
Infection of bone, usually from open wound or systemic infection.
What are some of the signs of osteomyelitis?
edema, warmth, tenderness, pain with movement, spiking fevers, headache, nausea (always evaluate for this is people with fractures)
Define sprain
stretching or tearing of a supporting ligament of a joint by forced movement beyond its normal range.
What are some of the signs of bursitis?
swelling, pain, point tenderness, erythema, warmth
What are some of the signs of a sprain?
pain, swelling, hemmorhage, loss of function
Define osteomyelitis
Infection of bone, usually from open wound or systemic infection.
Define tendonitis
Inflammation of synovium-lined sheath around tendon. Results from repetitive actions.
What are some of the signs of osteomyelitis?
edema, warmth, tenderness, pain with movement, spiking fevers, headache, nausea (always evaluate for this is people with fractures)
What are some of the signs of tendonitis?
pain with movement, limitation of movement, tenderness.
Define sprain
stretching or tearing of a supporting ligament of a joint by forced movement beyond its normal range.
Define Plantar Fasciitis
Pain/Inflammation of plantar fascia.

One of the most common causes of heel pain.
What are some of the signs of a sprain?
pain, swelling, hemmorhage, loss of function
What are some of the signs of plantar fasciitis?
stabbing pain that usually occurs with first steps in the morning. One of the most common causes of heel pain.
Define tendonitis
Inflammation of synovium-lined sheath around tendon. Results from repetitive actions.
Define Osteoporosis
Decrease is bone mass. Occurs because bone resorption is more rapid than bone deposition.
What are some of the signs of tendonitis?
pain with movement, limitation of movement, tenderness.
Define Plantar Fasciitis
Pain/Inflammation of plantar fascia.

One of the most common causes of heel pain.
What are some of the signs of plantar fasciitis?
stabbing pain that usually occurs with first steps in the morning. One of the most common causes of heel pain.
Define Osteoporosis
Decrease is bone mass. Occurs because bone resorption is more rapid than bone deposition.
What are some of the signs of osteoporosis?
loss of height or spontaneous fracture. hallwark is dowager hump. Most common in women.
Define Myopathy
Muscle disease unrelated to any disorder of innervation or neuromuscular junction. Etiologies vary widely
What are some common symptoms of myopathy?
muscle weakness, impaired function in activities of daily life, (and sometimes muscle pain and tenderness)
What are some of the symptoms of neuropathy?
Pain and numbness in hands and feet. Pain is described as tingling or burning.
Define Pes Planus
When the arch of instep collapses and comes in contact with the ground. (in some individuals, the arch never develops while they are growing)
Define Pes Cavus
A high instep. Associated with claw toes.
Define Genu Valgum
Knock-knee.

Commonly found in children 2-4 yrs. old
Define Genu Varus
bow-leg.

Commonly found in toddlers up to 18 months.
Define Geriatrics
A sub-specialty of internal and family medicine
Define Gerontology
Study of the aging process itself
Define Chronological Age
A person's age in years. Used for risk assessment
Define Biological Age
Bodily Aging
What is the genetic basis of aging?
As cells age, their telomeres shorten due to damage and they divide less frequently. Since organs are made of cells, they also lose function as cells deteriorate/die with aging.
T/F: Smoker's consume their respiratory reserve earlier than non-smokers.
duh.
What do elderly patients desire to maintain above all else?
independence and self-respect
What causes functional decline in elderly patients?
structural effects of aging on the cells, organs and systems of the human body
T/F: The study of gerontology and geriatric resources can assist you in focusing on the unique needs of the elderly patient
True
What are the four categories of impairment in regards to elderly patients?
Immobility
Instability
Incontinence
Impaired Intellect/Memory
Aging alters absorption, effectiveness, and side effect profile due to what three things?
1.) Dimished salivary glands (=mouth dryness/issues swallowing)
2.) Gastrointestinal changes delay emptying of solids and liquids (=decreased speed of absorption)
3.) Changes in body fat, muscle, and elimination (liver and kidneys) (= different distribution of drugs)
Cognitive impairment can lead to what psychological pharmacological considerations?
1.) Poor dosage and timing regimens
2.) Noncompliance
3.) Iatrogenic (inadvertent adverse affect) issues caused by polypharmacy (use of multiple meds)
T/F: Elderly patients are less likely to experience side effects from drugs
FALSE. elderly patients are more likely to experience side effects
What are three ways to help elderly patients and their families prepare for the ethical and legal aspects of aging?
Encourage establishment of POA (Power of Attorney), MPOA (medical power of attorney), and a living will
What does EPSDT stand for?
Early Periodic Screening Diagnosis and Treatment
What does the "early" in EPSDT stand for?
Identifying problems early, starting at birth
What does the "periodic" in EPSDT stand for?
Checking children's health at periodic, age-appropriate intervals
What does the "screening" in EPSDT stand for?
Doing physical, mental, developmental, dental, hearing, vision, and other screening tests to detect potential problems
What does the "Diagnosis" in EPSDT stand for?
Performing diagnostic tests to follow up when a risk is identified
What does the "treatment" in EPSDT stand for?
Treating the problems found
What does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend in terms of Periodicity for children?
"POMPSDAH"

P - Procedures
O - Oral Health
M - Measurements
P - Physical Examination
S - Sensory Screenings
D - Developmental/Behavioral Assessment
A - Anticipatory Guidance
H - History
What Questions should you ask of adolescents?
"HEADSSS"

H - Home
E - Education/Employment
A - Activity
D - Drugs
S - Sexuality
S - Suicide
S - Safety
What are the components of the growth chart?
Length/Height
Weight
Head Circumference (infant)
Weight for Length (BMI for infants)
BMI
True or False: Blood Pressure is a part of the growth chart.
FALSE.
What does sensory screening in children encompass?
vision and hearing
What does the Denver Questionnaire or Ages and Stages Questionnaire ask?
Gross Motor (ex. = running)
Fine Motor (ex. = coloring)
Language (speech)
Social Interaction (ex. = # close friends)
Self Help
By what age should a child be screened for autism?
3
What is the M-CHAT?
A validated screening for toddlers from 16-30 months of age to assess risk for autism spectrum disorders (ASD)
What is the APGAR score?
A scale used to determine health of a newborn. It is determined 1 minute after birth, and again at 5 minutes after birth.
What does APGAR stand for?
A - Appearance
P - Pulse
G - Grimace
A - Activity
R - Respiratory Effort
What is the range of the APGAR score?
0-2
What is the Dubowitz Examination used for?
To determine a gestational age upon birth (good if the mother had no prenatal care i.e. gestational age unknown) or if GA is undetermined prior to birth
What is the Dubowitz Examination based on?
Physical characteristics and neuromuscular development
What are the acronyms used for the Dubowitz Examination of gestational age?
SGA (small gestational age?)
AGA (average gestational age?)
LGA (large gestational age?)
How do you note the primitive reflexes tested in infants?
They are noted as either present or absent
What is the rooting primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
Touch babies cheek - baby should turn head towards that side. birth
What is the palmar grasp primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
baby wraps fingers around object or another's fingers. birth
What is the plantar grasp primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
baby wraps toes around object or another's fingers birth
What is the moro primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
Infant placed in semi-upright position, allow head to fall back, re-support infants head. Infant symmetrically extends and abducts arms and opens hands, then adducts and partially flexes arms as if in an embrace. birth
What is the tonic neck primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
Infant in supine position, turn infant's head so jaw is over shoulder. Infant extends arm and leg on side head is turned and flexes arm and leg on opposite side 2-3 months
What is the placing primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
Hold infant upright under arms. Touch top of foot to underside of horizontal surface (ex. = table). Infant flexes then extends leg and places foot flat. 4 days old
What is the stepping primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
Infant held upright with feet on floor. Infant steps forward (walking). Birth and 8 weeks.
What is the Babinski primitive reflex and when should this test be done?
Stroke outside of bottom of infants foot. Dorsiflexion of great toe with or without fanning of other toes. 2 years old.
What are you checking for when you listen to an infant's heart and lungs?
heart murmur or respiratory distress
Define Cephalohematoma
Collection of blood under periosteum, usually = childbirth injury
Define Plagiocephaly
Parallelogram heads. Frequent in twins due to position in-utero
Define Caput Succedaneum
Edematous swelling of scalp due to pressures experienced during childbirth
When you check the abdomen of an infant or child, what are you looking for?
masses and hernias. palpate the kidneys, which are more easily palpated in children than adults
What are you looking for in checking the spine of a newborn/child?
mobility, alignment, defects.
What are you looking for in checking the limbs of a newborn/child?
equal movement, muscle tone, strength, deformities
If you see a sacral dimple, hair or opening on the back of an infant, what should you think?
spina bifida
What are you looking for in checking the genito-urinary systems of an infant?
ambiguous gentalia, congenital anmalies
Define Hypospadias
When the urethral meatus is located in a position other than the tip of the glans penis
What are you looking for in checking the anus of an infant?
tone, imperforate anus (=opening of anus is missing or blocked)
What are you looking for in checking the eyes of an infant?
red reflexes.
What should you think if you see a white reflection in the eyes of a newborn?
retinoblastoma - deadly childhood cancer.
What are you looking for in checking the Heart of an infant?
rate, murmurs, arrhythmias
What are you looking for in checking the hips of an infant?
normal, dislocated, subluxable (use Ortolani and Barlow maneuvers)
By when should dentition occur in infants?
by 14 months
Define bottle decay
When babies are put to bed with a bottle and teeth decay (particularly front teeth)
T/F: It is OK to put a baby to bed with a bottle
FALSE
Define Strabismus
When eyes do not line up when focusing (wandering eye)
What procedures are a part of caring for newborns, infants, and children?
"SNITCH - LD"
S - Sexually Transmitted Illness Screen (unportected sex?)
N - Newborn metabolic screen
I - Immunizations
T - Tuberculin screen
C - Cervical dysplasia screen
H - Hemoglobin/Hematocrit
L - Lead level
D - Dyslipidemia screen
What is the "Bright Futures" Program?
Guidelines for health supervision of infants, children, and adolescents.