Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
353 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
The rigidity of the thoracic cage enables it to do what? |
1. Protect vital thoracic and abdominal internal organs from external forces 2. Resist the negative (sub-atmospheric) internal pressures generated by the elastic recoil of the lungs 3. Provide attachment for the upper limbs, including muscles that move upper limbs and muscles of the abdomen, neck, back, and respiration |
|
|
Which ribs are called true ribs? Why are they called true ribs? |
Ribs 1-7 because they are directly attached to the sternum |
|
|
Which ribs are called false ribs? Why are they called false ribs? |
Ribs 8-10 because they are indirectly attached to the sternum via costal cartilage of rib 7 |
|
|
Which major organs passes through the superior thoracic aperture? |
1. Trachea 2. Esophagus 3. Blood vessels/nerves for head, neck, and upper limbs |
|
|
The inferior aperture is also called _____ and defined by what? |
Thoracic outlet 1. Ribs 11-12 (posterolaterally) 2. Ribs 7-10 (anterolaterally) 3. xiphisternal joint (anteriorly) |
|
|
The inferior aperture is closed by the _____? |
Diaphragm |
|
|
The lungs recoil due to _____? |
Elastic fibers |
|
|
Which rib cannot be palpated and why? |
The first rib because it sits posterointerior to the clavical |
|
|
What organs can be injured if the 1st rib is broken? |
The brachial plexus and subclavian vessels |
|
|
Which ribs are most commonly fractured, and result to injury of which organs? |
The middle ribs; underlying organs like the spleen or lung |
|
|
The material supply of the thoracic wall derives from which major blood vessels? |
1. Thoracic aorta 2. Subclavian artery |
|
|
Which blood vessel supplies blood to the posterior intercostal arteries? |
The aorta artery |
|
|
Which blood vessel supplies blood to the anterior intercostal arteries? Where is this blood vessel derived from? |
The internal thoracic artery derived from subclavian artery |
|
|
The posterior veins drain into ____/ accessory _____ veins (which drain into _____) and _____ (to _____)? |
- Azygos - Hemiazygos - SVC - Hemiazygos - IVC |
|
|
The anterior intercostal veins drain into _____? |
Internal thoracic veins |
|
|
How many ductal orifices does a female breast have on average? |
4 |
|
|
What does breasts consists of? |
Mammary glands and supporting fibrous tissue embedded within a fatty matrix |
|
|
Lymphatics is used by _____? |
Metastizing cancers |
|
|
Where are most breast cancers located? |
Superior lateral quadrant |
|
|
What is the thick, protein-rich substance with abundant antibodies and hormones produced by breasts immediately after birth? |
Colostrum |
|
|
When do breasts secrete milk? |
Several days after birth |
|
|
What is amastia? |
No breast development |
|
|
What secretes prolactin? |
The pituitary gland |
|
|
Why is an increase in prolactin levels in the blood essential during pregnancy? |
To complete development of breast lobules |
|
|
Where is progesterone secreted from? |
The placenta |
|
|
What is the function of progesterone when progesterone levels plummet during pregnancy? |
Prevents prolactin from stimulating milk production until birth |
|
|
frequent suckling leads to what? |
Increased prolactin receptors in the breast lobules |
|
|
What secretes oxytocin? |
The pituitary gland |
|
|
What is the role of oxytocin during hormonal control of lactation? |
Responsible for milk ejection (milk let-down response) |
|
|
Where does most lymph from the breast drain into? |
The axillary lymph nodes |
|
|
Most breast cancers affect which quadrant? |
The upper lateral quadrant |
|
|
Which form of breast cancer is the most common type of breast cancer among American women? |
Invasive breast cancer |
|
|
What are the two main types of invasive breast cancer? |
1. Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC) 2. Invasive lobular carinoma (ILC) |
|
|
Which type of invasive breast cancer begins in the milk ducts? |
IDC |
|
|
Which type of invasive breast cancer begins in the lobules or unknown origin? |
ILC |
|
|
What form of invasive breast cancer accounts for 70% of invasive breast cancers? |
IDC |
|
|
What is the most common type of breast cancer? |
Ductal Carcinoma |
|
|
Where does ductal carcinoma begin? |
In the milk ducts |
|
|
What are the two forms of ductal carcinoma? |
1. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) 2. Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC) |
|
|
Cancer cells that are confined to the milk ducts (non-invasive) occurs in which type of invasive breast cancer? |
DCIS |
|
|
Which type of invasive breast cancer may spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body? |
IDC |
|
|
Where do lobular carcinoma cancer cells begin? |
In the milk-producing lobules of the breast |
|
|
What are the two forms of lobular carcinoma? |
1. Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) 2. Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) |
|
|
Which specific type of invasive breast cancer has abnormal cells remaining i the lobules and typically not considered a cancer or treated? |
LCIS |
|
|
Which specific type of invasive breast cancer starts in the lobules then invade surrounding breast tissue and can metastasize to other parts of the body? |
ILC |
|
|
Which type of breast cancer makes up about 10% of invasive breast cancers? |
ILC |
|
|
Which form of invasive breast cancer occurs with no lump or tumor? |
Inflammatory breast cancer |
|
|
What is page's disease? |
Any form of breast cancer that directly involves the nipple |
|
|
What percent of breast cancers occur in men? |
1.5% |
|
|
What is known as a heart chamber contraction? |
Systole |
|
|
What is known as a heart chamber relaxation? |
Diastole |
|
|
Epicardium is thin mesothelium also known as? |
Visceral pericardium |
|
|
The right atrium receives blood from where? |
The IVC, SVC, and coronary sinus |
|
|
The right ventricle walls are lined with muscular elevations called _____, except smooth walled called _____? |
Trabeculae carneae; conus arteriosus |
|
|
The base of each cusp in the right ventricle is attached to _____ (part of _____)? |
cartilaginous right AV orifice; fibrous skeleton |
|
|
Each cusp in the right ventricle is attached to _____ by _____? |
Papillary muscles by tendinous cords |
|
|
What are the three papillary muscles in the right ventricle called? |
1. Anterior papillary muscle 2. Posterior papillary muscle 3. Septal papillary muscle |
|
|
Which forms most of the base of the heart? |
The left atrium |
|
|
The left atrium consists of a large _____ part and a smaller _____ with _____? |
Smooth-walled part; muscular auricle traebeculated with pectinate muscles |
|
|
How many pulmonary veins enter the smooth part of the left atrium? |
4 |
|
|
In the left atrium blood passes to the left ventricle through what? |
The left AV orifice |
|
|
What separates the two atria? |
Interatrial septum |
|
|
What forms the apex of the heart? |
The left ventricle |
|
|
The left ventricle forms most of the _____ border? |
diaphragmatic border |
|
|
What are the walls of the left ventricle covered with? |
Trabeculae carneae |
|
|
What helps direct blood flow in the left ventricle? |
The conical cavity |
|
|
How many degrees does the conical cavity turn blood? |
180-degrees |
|
|
What type of papillary muscles does the left ventricle have? |
Anterior and posterior papillary muscles |
|
|
True or false, the aortic orifice has valves in the left ventricle? |
True |
|
|
How many semilunar valves does the heart have and what are they called? |
2; aortic semilunar valves and pulmonary valves |
|
|
Each semilunar valve consists of how many concave cusps? |
3 |
|
|
How many strings are attached to the concave cusps in each semilunar valve? |
No strings attached |
|
|
The edge of each cusp within the semilunar valves is thickened forming the _____; each apex is thickened further forming _____? |
Lunulae; nodules |
|
|
What prevents cusps from adhering to the vessel wall? |
A sinus that remains filled with blood when the valve is open |
|
|
Where does the right and left coronary arteries emerge from? |
The right aortic sinus and the left aortic sinus |
|
|
The RCA emerges from the right aortic sinus and traverses posteriorly within the _____? |
Coronary sulcus |
|
|
Failure of the heart valve to fully open by slowing the flow of blood into a chamber is known as? |
Stenosis |
|
|
Which valvular heart diseases increases the workload on the heart? |
Stenosis and insufficiency |
|
|
Failure of the heart valve to fully close allowing back flow of blood is known as? |
Insufficiency (regurgitation) |
|
|
Mitral valve insufficiency is also known as? |
Mitral valve prolapse |
|
|
What is mitral valve prolapse? |
An insufficient or incompetent mitral valve with one or both cusps affected |
|
|
What does the blood do during mitral valve insufficiency? |
Regurgitates into the left atrium when the left ventricle contracts |
|
|
Cusps fusing and forming a dome with a narrow central opening is known as? |
Pulmonary Valve Stenosis |
|
|
What is the most common heart valve abnormality? |
Aortic valve stenosis |
|
|
_____ also known as cardiac ultrasound uses standard ultrasound technology to obtain a sonogram of the heart. |
Echocardiography |
|
|
Any area of the myocardium that has undergone necrosis is a? |
Myocardial infraction (heart attack) |
|
|
Where are the most common myocardial infarction sites? |
1. Anterior IV branch of LCA 2. RCA 3. Circumflex branch of LCA |
|
|
Lipid deposit is in the tunica intimate of the artery wall leading to stenosis of the artery lumen is known as? |
Atherosclerosis |
|
|
Insufficient blood flow to the myocardium (known as _____) may result in ____? |
Myocardial ischema; MI |
|
|
Age related thickening and hardening of the arteries is known as? |
Arteriosclerosis |
|
|
During a coronary angioplasty a balloon is passed into the obstructed _____ and inflated to open the _____? |
Coronary artery; artery lumen |
|
|
Electrocardiography uses probes on the chest to measure the electrical events and charts them on an? |
Electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) |
|
|
In most people, the RCA supplies both the ___ and ____ nodes. |
AV and SA nodes |
|
|
The anterior IV supplies the AV bundle in the _____? Occlusion of these vessels will likely affect the conducting system of the heart leading to a? |
Interventricular septum; heart block |
|
|
The proper timing of ventricular _____ can be restored using a pacemaker inserted beneath the skin.
|
Systole |
|
|
What is absent during atrial fibrillation? |
The P wave |
|
|
What heart sound is associated with AV valve closure? |
S1 (Lubb) |
|
|
What heart sound is associated with semilunar valve closure? |
S2 (Dubb) |
|
|
True or false, the aortic arch sits directly behind the sternum? |
True |
|
|
the epicardium is the most superficial part of the heart wall, also known as the? |
Visceral pericardium |
|
|
Heart compression is also known as? |
Cardiac tamponade |
|
|
Cardiac tamponade causes ___ in the ___ to become engorded |
Veins in face & neck |
|
|
Drainage of fluid from the pericardium to receive pressure from cardiac tamponade is a procedure known as? |
Pericardiocentesis |
|
|
Where is a needle inserted in the area of the cardiac notch of the lung to relieve pericardiocentesis? |
Between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces |
|
|
What contents are included in the superior mediastinum? |
1. Thymus 2. Great blood vessels 3. Vagus and phrenic nerves 4. Cardiac plexus 5. Inferior trachea and esophagus 6. Thoracic duct and lymphatic trunks |
|
|
The arch of the aorta begins at the level of the sternal angle and arches to the left, extending above the _____? |
Bilfurcation of the trachea |
|
|
Name the usual branches of the aortic arch |
1. Brachiocephalic trunk 2. Left common carotid artery 3. Left subclavian artery |
|
|
Which veins drain blood from the head, neck and upper limbs? |
The left and right brachiocephalic veins |
|
|
Which vein on the right side of the mediastinum forms an arch into the SVC? |
Ayzgos |
|
|
Which veins drain much of the thorax and abdomen? |
Azygos, hemiazygos, and accessory hemiazygos |
|
|
How many fissures are on the right lung? |
2 |
|
|
How many fissures are on the left lung? |
1 |
|
|
What is each lung enclosed by? |
A pleural cavity |
|
|
What do the sympathetic nerves of the lungs and pleura do? |
1. relax bronchial muscle (brachiodilator) 2. Stimulate pulmonary blood vessels (vasoconstrictor 3. Inhibit alveolar gland secretions |
|
|
What do the parasympathetic fibers do? |
1. Stimulate brachial smooth muscle (bronchoconstrictor) 2. Relax pulmonary blood vessels (vasodilator) 3. Stimulate alveolar gland secretions |
|
|
Partial lung collapse or the collapse of a single lung segment is known as? |
Segmental atelectasis |
|
|
Entry of air into the pleural cavity caused by a puncture wound resulting in a lung collapse is known as a? |
Pneumothorax |
|
|
The entry of blood into the plural cavity more commonly caused by a major blood vessel injury than laceration is known as a? |
Hemothorax |
|
|
What is the most inferior portion of the abdominopelvic cavity? also known as the area of transition between the body trunk and lower limbs |
The pelvis |
|
|
True or false, the perineum has no cavity |
True |
|
|
What part of the pelvic girdles more of a floor than an anterior wall? |
The pubic symphysis |
|
|
What bone is a large protuberance on the inferior of the body and supports the body weight when sitting also known as "sitz bones" |
Ischial tuberosity |
|
|
The left and right pubic bones articulate anteriorly at the _____; creates a horizontal ridge called the _____? |
Pubic symphysis |
|
|
What allows a twisting action in the pubis while walking? |
Pubic symphysis |
|
|
The sacrum & coccyx articulates with the ___ superiorly, the ___ laterally, and the ___ inferiorly. |
L5; ilia; coccyx |
|
|
What is the pelvic diameter for the obstetric conjugate? |
>10 cm |
|
|
What direction does the obstetric conjugate run? |
from the pubic symphysis to the sacrum |
|
|
What hormone loosens the pubic symphysis and sacroiliac joints in pregnancy? |
Relaxin |
|
|
What muscles form the roof of the perineum? |
The pelvic floor muscles |
|
|
The perineal roof is pierced by the _____ through which pass the _____ in males or _____ and _____ in females? |
urogenital hiatus; urethra in males or vagina and urethra in females |
|
|
The rectum is _____; urinary bladder and prostate are _____. |
Retroperitoneal; subperitoneal |
|
|
What are the notable pelvic peritoneal reflections of the female? |
The vesicouterine pouch and the rectouterine pouch |
|
|
What is the notable pelvic peritoneal reflections of the male? |
The rectovesical pouch |
|
|
The _____ artery exits the pelvis inferior to the _____ as the _____ artery. |
External; inguinal; femoral |
|
|
What is the main blood supply to the pelvis? |
The internal iliac artery (hypogastric artery) |
|
|
What artery is known as the "tail" of the aorta? |
The median sacral artery |
|
|
What veins drain most of the pelvis and perineum? |
The internal iliac veins |
|
|
How many mL does a full bladder hold? |
750-1000 mL |
|
|
What is stiffer than other parts of the bladder? |
Trigone |
|
|
Walls of the bladder are composed chiefly of smooth muscle known as _____, stimulated by _____? |
Detrusor muscle; ANS |
|
|
What is the more common term for Micturition? |
Urination |
|
|
Micturition is controlled by the _____ and which two sphincters? |
Detrusor and the internal and external sphincters |
|
|
What type of muscle is the detrusor? |
Smooth muscle |
|
|
What type of muscle is the internal urethral sphincter? |
Smooth muscle |
|
|
What type of muscle is the external urethral sphincter? |
Skeletal muscle |
|
|
The detrusor and internal urethral sphincter is controlled by the _____ making it _____? |
ANS; involuntary |
|
|
The external urethral sphincter is controlled by the _____ making it _____? |
SNS; voluntary |
|
|
Why does the internal urethral sphincter contract during ejaculation? |
To prevent reflux of semen into bladder |
|
|
What do the stretch receptors do when the bladder is full? |
Initiate reflex to contract detrusor, open internal sphincter, and close external sphincter |
|
|
The urethra in males is long (_____ cm) and divided into which four parts? |
- 18-22 cm 1. Intramural urethra (<1 cm) 2. Postatic urethra (~3 cm) 3. Membranous urethra (~1 cm) 4. Spongy/penile urethra (14-18 cm) |
|
|
True or false, the female urethra has an internal urethral sphincter? |
False |
|
|
True or false, the rectum is retroperitoneal? |
True |
|
|
Although "rectus" means _____ the rectum is ___ shaped viewed laterally? |
Straight; S-shaped |
|
|
What is a kidney stone in the ureter called? |
Ureteric calculi |
|
|
The full bladder rises above the level of the _____ between the _____ and the _____ |
Pubic symphysis between the anterior abdominal wall and the peritoneum |
|
|
What do the male internal genital organs include? |
1. Testes 2. Epidymides 3. Ductus deferens 4. Seminal Glands 5. Ejaculatory ducts 6. Prostate 7. Bulbourethral glands |
|
|
How much seminal fluid is produced by the prostate? |
20% |
|
|
How much seminal fluid is produced by the seminal glands? |
80% |
|
|
How long is each seminal gland? |
~5cm long |
|
|
Where is each seminal gland located? |
Between the fundus of the bladder and rectum |
|
|
True or false, seminal glands (vesicles) store sperm? |
False |
|
|
How long are ejaculatory ducts? |
About 2.5 cm long |
|
|
Ejaculatory ducts arise near the neck of the bladder by merger of _____ and _____? |
Ductus deferens and seminal gland ducts |
|
|
What is the largest accessory gland for the male reproductive system? |
The prostate |
|
|
The prostate gland produces a milky fluid that contributes to about ____% of the volume of semen. |
20% |
|
|
About ___ of the prostate is glandular and ___ muscle. |
2/3; 1/3 |
|
|
The isthmus (_____) is entirely muscle and is continuous with the external urethral sphincter. |
The anterior lobe |
|
|
The isthmus is also called the _____? |
Anterior muscular zone |
|
|
What are two pea-sized glands that lie in the external urethral sphincter posterolateral to the urethra? |
Bulbourethral glands |
|
|
What are the ovaries suspended by within the peritoneal cavity? |
Ligaments |
|
|
True or false, ovaries are covered by peritoneum? |
False |
|
|
Once released, the oocyte is momentarily free in the _____, but usually swept into the _____? |
Peritoneal cavity; uterine tube |
|
|
What is the usual site of fertilization? |
The uterine tube |
|
|
The uterine tube are divided into which four parts? |
1. The fimbriated infundibulum 2. Wide ampulla 3. Narrow isthmus 4. Uterine part that passes through the uterine wall |
|
|
The serosa of peritoneum is a connective tissue within the uterine wall called the _____? |
Perimetrium |
|
|
The thick smooth muscle found in the uterine wall is called the _____? |
Myometrium |
|
|
The inner mucous coat firmly attached to the myometrium is an epithelial tissue known as the _____? |
Endometrium |
|
|
Most of the _____ is shed during menses of the menstrual cycle? |
Endometrium |
|
|
What color are the ovaries? |
White |
|
|
True or false, the vagina is usually collapsed such that its lateral walls are in contact with each other? |
True |
|
|
Where does the vagina terminate? |
At the fornix at the cervix |
|
|
Implantation of the fertilized egg may occur anywhere in the tube, but most commonly in the _____? |
Ampulla |
|
|
If implantation of the fertilized egg occurs on the right side, an ectopic tubal pregnancy is often misdiagnosed as what? |
Acute appendicitis |
|
|
What is the normal position for the uterus? |
Anteverted & anteflexed |
|
|
During the normal position, what is the uterus pressed against when the intradominal pressure is increased? |
The bladder |
|
|
What is the leading cancer among young women between the ages of 15-34 years old? |
Cervical cancer |
|
|
The perineum is a shallow compartment of the body bounded by the pelvic outlet: _____ (anteriorly), _____ (anterolaterally), _____ (laterally), _____ (posterolaterally), and the _____ (posteriorly). |
- Pubic symphysis - Ischiopubic rami - Ischial tuberosities - Sacrotuberous ligaments - Sacrum & coccyx |
|
|
What shape does the perineum form when the lower limbs are abducted? |
A diamond shape |
|
|
The perineum is divided into which two triangles? |
The urogenital triangle and the anal triangle |
|
|
What are the deepest muscles of the perineum? |
1. Pubococcygeus 2. Iliococcygeus 3. Coccygeus |
|
|
What makes up the middle layer of the perineum? |
1. The external urethral sphincter 2. Compressor urethrae 3. Deep transverse perineal (DTP) |
|
|
What makes up the superficial layer of the perineum? |
1. The ischiocavernosus 2. Bulbospongiosus 3. Superficial transverse perineal (STP) 4. External anal sphincter |
|
|
Surgical incision of the perineum to enlarge vaginal orifice is called? |
Episiotomy |
|
|
An incision from the orifice through the perineal body toward the anus is called? |
Median Episiotomy |
|
|
An incision from the orifice posterolaterally to avoid the perineal body and anal sphincter is called? |
Mediolateral episiotomy |
|
|
What form of complication from circumcision may cause painful erections and need surgical correction? |
A skin bridge |
|
|
The urethra passes through the _____? |
Corpus spongiosum |
|
|
What happens to sperm that is not released by ejaculation? |
Reabsorbed into the body |
|
|
What are the external genitalia of the female urogenital triangle? |
1. Mons pubis 2. labia majora & minora 3. Urethral orifice 4. Vaginal orifice 5. Clitoris |
|
|
How many cuneiforms does each foot have? |
3 |
|
|
How many metatarsals does each foot have? |
5 |
|
|
How many phalanges does each foot have? |
14 |
|
|
How many sesamoid bones does each foot have? |
2 |
|
|
What are the bones of the lower limbs used for? |
Bipedal posture and ambulation |
|
|
Body weight is transferred from the lumbar vertebrae to the sacrum, then distributed via _____ to the femur? |
os coxae |
|
|
What allows the femur to return the center of gravity beneath the body trunk? |
The oblique angle |
|
|
Body weight is tranferred by the femur to the tibia, to the _____, and then distributed by _____? |
Talus; foot arches |
|
|
What causes the femurs to be more oblique in woman than in men? |
A wider pelvis |
|
|
Having more oblique femurs results in women having a _____ than men? |
Larger Q angle |
|
|
What is the largest and heaviest bone in the body? |
The femur |
|
|
What does the proximal end of the femur consist of? |
The head, neck, greater trochanter, and lesser trochanter |
|
|
A thick ridge known as _____ connects trochanters posteriorly. |
Inter-trochanteric crest |
|
|
The attachment site of the ligament capitis is on the tip of the large rounded head called? |
Fovea capitis |
|
|
What does the thick gluteal tuberosity give rise to? |
The linea aspera |
|
|
The neck of the femur projects the head medially at what angle? |
The angle of inclination |
|
|
How much does the angle of inclination decrease with age? |
135 degrees to 120 degrees |
|
|
What does the smaller angle of inclination do to the femur when the bone is becoming more brittle? |
Increases the stress on the bone |
|
|
True or false, when viewed superiorly, the head of the femur is projected medially but not anteromedially? |
False |
|
|
The femoral head projection viewed superiorly creates what type of angle in men and women? |
A 7 degree torsional angle in men and a 12 degree torsional angle in women |
|
|
What two bones make up the leg? |
The tibia and fibula |
|
|
Which bone of the leg is the larger weight bearing bone? |
The tibia |
|
|
Which bone of the foot acts primarily as an attachment site for foot muscles? |
The fibula |
|
|
What holds the shafts of the tibia and fibula together throughout its length? |
Interosseus membrane |
|
|
What is the second largest bone in the body? |
The tibia |
|
|
Which bone of the leg articulates with the distal femur? |
The proximal tibia |
|
|
The femoral condyles rest on two prominent tibial plateaus separated by what? |
Intercondylar eminence |
|
|
What is the intervening cartilage that provides cushion between the femur and tibia? |
Menisci |
|
|
The large tibial tuberosity on on the anterior surface of the tibia is an attachment site for what? |
The quads |
|
|
What does the triangular shaft of the tibia produce? |
A sharp anterior border |
|
|
What strengthens the thin triangular shaft of the fibula to the tibia? |
The interosseus membrane |
|
|
What forms the lateral malleolus? |
The fibula |
|
|
What forms the medial malleolus? |
The tibia |
|
|
The tibia and fibula articulate distally with the talus forming the only _____ in the body. |
Mortise-and-tenon joint |
|
|
What are the most common injuries to the lower limb? |
Knee, leg, and foot injuries |
|
|
What percent of injuries to the lower limb make up hip injuries? |
3% |
|
|
Why are adolescents most vulnerable to injuries? |
Sports and maturing musculoskeletal systems |
|
|
What are fractures to the hip bone called? |
Pelvic fractures |
|
|
Fractures to the proximal femur results in what type of fractures? |
Hip fractures |
|
|
What is a small part of bone that is "torn away" from the main bone called? |
Avulsion fractures |
|
|
Where do avulsion fractures commonly occur at? |
Apophyses, iliac spines, and ischial rami |
|
|
What are bony projections that lack secondary ossification centers? |
Apophyses |
|
|
What is the most common site for femoral fractures and why? |
The femoral neck due to its angle of inclination |
|
|
What type of fractures are common in the elderly? |
Hip fractures |
|
|
Fractures of the femoral shaft is most common in youth and from _____? |
Direct blows |
|
|
What is the most common site for compound fractures and why? |
The tibia due to its close proximity to the body surface |
|
|
What are compound fractures? |
Open fractures |
|
|
What type of fractures are common in skiers? |
Boot top fractures |
|
|
What type of fracture usually occurs from excessive eversion or inversion of the foot? |
Fibular fractures |
|
|
What region contains the largest, most powerful muscles of the thigh and has unique designs for human walking? |
The gluteal region |
|
|
The remaining thigh muscles are organized into ___ compartments separated by _____? |
3; intermuscular septa |
|
|
What are the three compartments of the thigh? |
1. Anterior compartment 2. Posterior compartment 3. Medial compartment |
|
|
What are the three compartments of the leg? |
1. Anterior compartment 2. Posterior compartment 3. Lateral compartment |
|
|
The anterior compartment muscles are innervated by which nerve? |
The femoral nerve |
|
|
The posterior compartment muscles are inverted by which nerve? |
The tibial (sciatic) nerve |
|
|
Which nerve innervates the medial compartment? |
The obturator nerve |
|
|
True or false, the gluteal region abducts the thigh? |
True |
|
|
The hip flexors of the anterior compartment include: |
1. Pectineus 2. Iliopsoas 3. Sartorius |
|
|
The sartorius crosses two joints allowing what movements? |
Flexion of the knee and thigh with medial rotation of the knee allowing "cross legged" sitting |
|
|
Which muscle of the anterior compartment is a two jointed muscle that can flex the hip and extend the knee? |
The rectus femoris |
|
|
The quads are how many times stronger than the hamstrings? |
3x stronger |
|
|
The patella floats in a track superficial to the _____? |
Suprapatellar bursa |
|
|
Which muscle prevents the supra patellar bursa from getting "bunched up?" |
Small articulates genu muscle |
|
|
What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body? |
The patella |
|
|
The muscles of the medial compartment constitute: |
- The adductor longus, braves, and magnus - Gracilis - Obturator externus |
|
|
What is the smallest weakest adductor also known as "first gear"? |
Obturator externis |
|
|
What is the largest and most powerful muscle in the medial compartment also known as the 2nd gear muscle? |
The adductor magnus |
|
|
What three muscles span two joints and assist in medial knee stabilization? |
1. Gracilis (medial compartment) 2. Sartorius (anterior compartment) 3. Semitendinosus (posterior compartment) |
|
|
The gracilis, sartorius, and semitendinosus converge into a common tendon (_____, "_____") and insert on the medial aspect of the _____? |
(Pes anserinus, "goose foot"); tibial tuberosity |
|
|
How does the gracilis, sartorius, and semitendinosus stabilize the knee when standing? |
They pull medially on the knee |
|
|
The gracilis, sartorius, and semitendinosus are all innervated by which three different nerves? |
1. Gracilis - Obturator 2. Sartorius - Femoral 3. Tibial - Semitendinosus |
|
|
What are called the "tear drop" muscles? |
the vastus medals and vestus lateralis |
|
|
Which ligament is the strap like sartorius visibly inferior to? |
The inguinal ligament |
|
|
What ligament is inferior to the patella? |
The patellar ligament |
|
|
Anteriorly, the _____ demarcates the lower limb from the body trunk |
Inguinal ligament |
|
|
How is the gluteal region a large transition zone posteriorly? |
Physically its part of the trunk Functionally its part of the lower limb |
|
|
What is the lateral area from the greater trochanter to the iliac crest? |
The hip region |
|
|
What region is demarcated posterosuperiorly by the gluteal folds? |
The thigh region |
|
|
Which gluteal muscles form the bulk of the gluteal region? |
- The gluteus maximus, medium, and minimus - tensor fasciae latae |
|
|
What two layers are the gluteal muscles organized into? |
Superficial and deep |
|
|
Which gluteal muscles make up the superficial layer? |
1. gluteus maximus 2. gluteus medius 3. gluteus minimus 4. tensor fasciae latae |
|
|
The gluteus medius, minimus, and tensor fasciae latae act as _____ and _____ of the thigh by keeping the pelvis level during the swing phase when the _____ limb is weight bearing? |
Abductors and medial rotators; ipsilateral limb |
|
|
What gluteal muscles make up the deep layer? |
1. Piriformis 2. Obturator internus 3. Superior Gemellus 4. Inferior gemellus 5. Quadratus femoris |
|
|
What is the action/role of the deep gluteal muscles? |
Laterally rate the thigh and to keep the femoral head steady in the acetabulum |
|
|
What does the superior/inferior gemelli and quadratic femurs make up? |
The triceps coxae |
|
|
Which layer of gluteal muscles keep the pelvis level when walking? |
The superficial gluteal muscles |
|
|
What is the largest nerve in the body? |
The sciatic nerve |
|
|
The sciatic nerve passes through the _____ and the _____ to enter the posterior thigh. |
greater sciatic foramen and gluteal muscles |
|
|
What percent of the population is especially vulnerable to injury during intragluteal injections? |
0.5% of the population |
|
|
Distally the sciatic nerve bifurcates in the popliteal region to become the _____ (laterally) and the _____ (medially). |
Fibular nerve and the tibial nerve |
|
|
True or false, it is often desirable to administer drugs via intramuscular injection? |
True |
|
|
Large muscles provide a substantial volume for absorption of drugs via _____? |
Intramuscular veins |
|
|
Why is the sciatic nerve easily pierced by intragluteal injections? |
Because of its large size |
|
|
What is the only quadrant that is safe for injections of the buttock? |
The superolateral quadrant, superior to a line extending from PSIS to greater trochanter |
|
|
True or false, the two actions of the hamstrings can be performed maximally at the same time and why? |
False, full flection of the knee shortens muscles too much for them to extend the hip & hyperextension of the hip shortens the muscles to much to flex the knee |
|
|
True or false, the hamstrings are active when standing still? |
True |
|
|
Why would a person with paralyzed hamstrings fall forward? |
Because the gluteus maximus cannot sustain the force to keep them erect |
|
|
The leg is divided into which three compartments by the bones, interosseous membrane, and intermuscular septa? |
1. Anterior compartment 2. Lateral compartment 3. Posterior compartment |
|
|
True or false, the muscle groups in each compartment of the leg share similar function and innervation? |
True |
|
|
The anterior compartment contains muscles for what? |
dorsiflexion (extension) |
|
|
The relatively small anterior compartment is especially confined and vulnerable to what? |
compartment syndromes |
|
|
What two band like fascias bind down the extensor tendons from the anterior compartment to prevent them from bow-stringing during use? |
The superior and inferior extensor retinaculum |
|
|
What are the four muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg? |
1. Extensor hallucis longus (EHL) 2. Extensor digitorum longus (EDL) 3. Tibialis Anterior (TA) 4. Fibularis tertius (FT) |
|
|
Which muscle of the anterior leg compartment inserts on the middle and distal phalanges of toes 1-4 to dorsiflex the toes? |
EDL |
|
|
Which muscle of the anterior leg compartment inserts on the distal 1st phalanx to dorsiflex the great toe? |
EHL |
|
|
Which muscle of the anterior leg compartment inserts on the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal to dorsiflex the ankle and evert the foot? |
FT |
|
|
Which muscle of the anterior leg compartment inserts on the inferior surface of the medial cuneiform and base of the 1st metatarsal to dorsiflex the ankle and foot? |
TA |
|
|
What is the smallest leg compartment? |
The lateral compartment |
|
|
What two muscles are found in the lateral compartment of the leg? |
1. Fibularis longus (FL) 2. Fibularis brevis (FB) |
|
|
What is the function of the lateral leg compartment muscles? |
To evert the foot |
|
|
Which muscle of the lateral leg compartment inserts on the inferior portion of the medial cuneiform and base of the 1st metatarsal? |
FL |
|
|
Which muscle of the lateral leg compartment inserts on the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal? |
FB |
|
|
True or false, both lateral leg compartment muscles share a common tendinous sheath? |
True |
|
|
Along with everting the foot, the muscles of the lateral leg compartment fix the medial margin of the foot during what phase of walking? |
During the toe off phase |
|
|
When do the muscles of the lateral leg compartment prevent medial sway by pulling laterally on the leg while depressing the medial margin of the foot? |
While standing on one foot |
|
|
What is the largest leg compartment? |
The posterior compartment |
|
|
The posterior leg compartment contains 7 muscles for what actions? |
Plantar flexion, inversion, and toe flexion |
|
|
How many muscles are in the superficial compartment and what are they? |
3; The gastroc, soles, & plantaris |
|
|
How many muscles are in the deep compartment and what are they? |
4; popliteus, FHL, FDL TP |
|
|
Swelling of the posterior compartment can lead to what? |
muscular necrosis and paralysis |
|
|
Which pulse if felt through the flexor retinaculum? |
The posterior tibial artery |
|
|
What is the passageway through the flexor retinaculum called? |
Tarsal tunnel |
|
|
What causes tarsal tunnel syndrome? |
Compressing the tibial nerve |
|
|
What do the he soleus and the two gastroc heads comprise? |
Triceps surae |
|
|
How much plantar flexion force does the triceps surae force? |
93% |
|
|
True or false, The gastroc and the soleus act independently? |
True |
|
|
Stroll with the _____, but jump with the _____? |
Soleus; Gastroc |
|
|
The soles is composed of what muscle type? |
Slow twitch fibers |
|
|
What reveals that the coleus is constantly active when standing still? |
Electromyography (EMG) studies |
|
|
True or false, the gastroc can plantarflex the ankle when the knee is fully flexed? |
False |
|
|
The planters is a small muscle with a long tendon often mistaken for which nerve? |
The Freshman's nerve |
|
|
True or false, the plantar is is insignificant as a muscle and is absent in 5-10% of the population? |
True |
|
|
The pantries is rich in muscle spindles responsible for? |
Sensors for proprioception |
|
|
What are the 4 muscles int he deep posterior compartment? |
1. Popliteus 2. FHL 3. FDL 4. TP |
|
|
What is the only muscle of the deep posterior leg compartment acts on the knee? |
The popliteus |
|
|
What do the other 3 muscles in the deep posterior compartment do |
Plantarflexion and toe flexors |
|
|
Deep plantar flexors are small and low-leverage, collectively producing only how much of the plantar flexion force? |
7% |
|
|
What forms the floor of the popliteal fossa? |
The popliteus |
|
|
True or false, the popliteus is a flexor of the knee? |
False, it pulls the lateral meniscus posteriorly when the knee flexes and assists the PCL from damage |
|
|
What is the deepest muscle of the posterior compartment? |
The tibias posterior |
|
|
What is the primary focus of the TP? |
To synergistically support the TA |
|
|
When walking, the triceps surae delivers a thrust of plantarflextion to the ball of the foot, immediately followed by a final thrust to the great toe by the FHL during _____? |
Toe off |
|
|
What is stronger, the FDL or the FHL? |
The FHL |
|
|
Most blood from the foot drains into which two veins? |
The small saphenous vein and the great saphenous vein |
|
|
Which vein drains the lateral side of the foot, ascends the posterior leg between the two heads of the gusto and empties into the deep popliteal vein? |
The small saphenous vein |
|
|
Which vein drains the medial side of the foot and ascends the lateral leg and thigh and empties into the deep femoral vein? |
The great saphenous vein |
|
|
What type of surgery can relieve the pressure of compartment syndrome? |
Fasciotomy |
|
|
True or false, it is legal to drive barefoot in all 50 states? |
True |
|
|
The foot contains how many tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges? |
7 tarsals 5 metatarsals 14 phalanges |
|
|
Name the three zones for the foot and their bones: |
1. Hindfoot: talus & calcaneus 2. Midfoot: Navicular, cuboid, cuneiforms 3. Forefoot: metatarsals & phalanges |
|
|
The part of the foot contracting the ground is known as what? |
The sole or plantar region |
|
|
What is the most superficial part of the foot? |
The dorsum |
|
|
How many bones of the body are found in the foot? |
52/206 (25%) |
|
|
How much percent of the force is absorbed by the foot arches upon impact when walking? |
15% |
