Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
168 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Components of the first line of defense include all the following except:
A) the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin B) nasal hairs C) flushing action of tears and blinking D) flushing action of urine E) phagocytic white blood cells |
E) phagocytic white blood cells
|
|
|
Nonspecific chemical defenses include:
A) lysozyme B) lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat C) skin's acidic pH and fatty acids D) stomach hydrochloric acid E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is:
A) lactic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) lysozyme D) histamine E) bile |
C) lysozyme
|
|
|
The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the:
A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes |
B) respiratory tract
|
|
|
This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora:
A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes |
A) skin
|
|
|
Plasma:
A) is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended B) is mostly water C) contains albumin and globulins D) contains fibrinogen E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Which is incorrect about blood cells?
A) after birth produced in red bone marrow sites B) develop from undifferentiated stem cells C) include mast cells D) include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranuloctyes E) include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei |
C) include mast cells
|
|
|
The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
B) eosinophils
|
|
|
The least numerous of all white blood cells, that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
A) basophils
|
|
|
Comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBC's, and are the cells that function in the body's immune system,
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
E) lymphocytes
|
|
|
The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
C) neutrophils
|
|
|
Comprise 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
D) monocytes
|
|
|
All of the following pertain to platelets except:
A) contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide B) also called thrombocytes C) originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes D) function in blood clotting and inflammation E) they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells |
A) contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
|
|
|
Hemopoiesis is the:
A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues |
C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
|
|
|
Diapedesis is the:
A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues |
E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
|
|
|
Plasma cells:
A) function in cell-mediated immunity B) are derived from T-lymphocytes C) function in blood clotting D) produce and secrete antibodies E) all of the choices are correct |
D) produce and secrete antibodies
|
|
|
The reticuloendothelial system:
A) is a support network of connective tissue fibers B) originates in the cellular basal lamina C) provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs D) is heavily populated with macrophages E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Which of the following lymphoid organs and tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
C) spleen
|
|
|
These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck:
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
A) lymph nodes
|
|
|
This gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes:
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
B) thymus
|
|
|
The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as:
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
D) GALT
|
|
|
The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except:
A) redness B) warmth C) swelling D) pain E) chills |
E) chills
|
|
|
All the following are events of early inflammation except:
A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis B) chemical mediators and cytokines are released C) brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation D) exudate and pus can accumulate E) capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema |
A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
|
|
|
Which is incorrect about inflammation:
A) can last hours to years B) pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability C) serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction D) fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen E) basophils and mast cells release histamine |
B) pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
|
|
|
Which is mismatched:
A) interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication B) interleukin-2 -- stimulate T cell mitosis and B cell antibody production C) serotonin -- causes smooth muscle contraction D) prostaglandins -- activate eosinophils and B cells E) tumor necrosis factor -- increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis |
D) prostaglandins -- activate eosinophils and B cells
|
|
|
Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all:
A) vasoactive mediators B) mediators of B cell activity C) mediators of T cell activity D) mediators that increase chemotaxis E) fever inducers |
A) vasoactive mediators
|
|
|
These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections:
A) monocytes B) eosinophils C) basophils D) neutrophils E) lymphocytes |
B) eosinophils
|
|
|
When opsonization accompanies phagocytosis, this process involves:
A) formation of a phagolysosome B) myeloperoxidase giving rise to OCl- C) antibodies or complement coating the microbial cell surface D) the liberation of lysozyme E) neutrophils but not macrophages |
C) antibodies or complement coating the microbial cell surface
|
|
|
All of the following pertain to interferon except:
A) protein B) produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells C) includes alpha, beta, and gamma types D) inhibit viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression E) increase capillary permeability and vasodilation |
E) increase capillary permeability and vasodilation
|
|
|
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are:
A) complement B) interferons C) leukotrines D) pyrogens E) lysozymes |
D) pyrogens
|
|
|
Which is incorrect about complement?
A) composed of at least 26 blood proteins B) only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen C) act in a cascade reaction D) involves a classical pathway E) involves an alternate pathway |
B) only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen
|
|
|
The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves:
A) initiation of the cascade B) production of inflammatory cytokines C) a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes D) cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b E) C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane |
C) a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes
|
|
|
Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
A) inflammatory response B) phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils C) interferon D) T cell and B cell responses E) anatomical barriers in the body |
D) T cell and B cell responses
|
|
|
The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where:
A) immune responses to antigen occur B) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes C) antigen is filtered from the blood D) antigen is filtered from tissue fluid E) T lymphocytes complete maturation |
B) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes
|
|
|
The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called:
A) antibodies B) sensitized T cells C) activated macrophages D) plasma cells E) Bursa cells |
D) plasma cells
|
|
|
Helper T cells:
A) secrete antibodies B) function in allergic reactions C) directly destroy target cells D) suppress immune reactions E) activate B cells and other T cells |
E) activate B cells and other T cells
|
|
|
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions:
A) are the result of genetic expression B) function in recognition of self molecules C) receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system D) aid in cellular development E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
The major histocompatibility complex is:
A) glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells except red blood cells B) a series of genes that code for MHC cell receptors C) found on the third chromosome D) located in the thymus gland E) all of the choices are correct |
B) a series of genes that code for MHC cell receptors
|
|
|
Class II MHC genes code for:
A) certain secreted complement components B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells E) all of the choices are correct |
D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
|
|
|
Class I MHC genes code for:
A) certain secreted complement components B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells E) all of the choices are correct |
B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes
|
|
|
Lymphocytes:
A) possess MHC antigens for recognizing self B) have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens C) gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self D) develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except:
A) two identical heavy polypeptide chains B) two identical light polypeptide chains C) disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains D) four antigen binding sites E) a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain |
D) four antigen binding sites
|
|
|
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the:
A) variable region B) joining region C) constant region D) light region E) hinge region |
A) variable region
|
|
|
Lymphocyte maturation involves:
A) hormonal signals that initiate development B) B cells maturing in bone marrow sites C) T cells maturing in the thymus D) release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Properties of effective antigens include all the following except:
A) foreign to the immune system B) molecular complexity C) large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000 D) large polymers made up of repeating subunits E) cells or large, complex molecules |
D) large polymers made up of repeating subunits
|
|
|
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an:
A) antigenic determinant B) hapten C) antigen binding site D) variable region E) none of the choices are correct |
A) antigenic determinant
|
|
|
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed:
A) antigenic determinant B) hapten C) antigen binding site D) variable region E) none of the choices are correct |
B) hapten
|
|
|
Superantigens are:
A) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign B) cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens D) those that evoke allergic reactions E) none of the choices are correct |
C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
|
|
|
Antigen presenting cells:
A) include dendritic cells B) include macrophages C) engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic D) hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires:
A) typically a protein antigen B) binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on a macrophage C) binding of T cell to a site on the antigen D) interleukin-1 activating the helper cell E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?
A) is called the crystallizable fragment B) forms the antigen binding sites C) contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells D) contains an effector molecule that can fix complement E) determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs |
B) forms the antigen binding sites
|
|
|
Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?
A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response |
A) neutralization
|
|
|
Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?
A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response |
D) agglutination
|
|
|
Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response |
B) opsonization
|
|
|
Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response |
E) anamnestic response
|
|
|
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is:
A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM |
A) IgA
|
|
|
The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is:
A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM |
D) IgG
|
|
|
The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is:
A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM |
C) IgE
|
|
|
All of the following are characteristics of IgM except:
A) has 10 antigen binding sites B) contains a central J chain C) is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell D) is an opsonin E) is a dimer |
E) is a dimer
|
|
|
Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA |
D) IgM and IgG
|
|
|
The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are:
A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA |
C) IgD only
|
|
|
Monoclonal antibodies:
A) originate from a single B cell clone B) have a single specificity for antigen C) are secreted by hybridomas D) are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
The most significant cells in graft rejection are:
A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells |
C) cytotoxic T cells
|
|
|
These lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells:
A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells |
E) natural killer (NK) cells
|
|
|
These cells carry CD8 receptors and function to inhibit B cells and other T cells:
A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells |
B) suppressor T cells
|
|
|
Cytotoxic T cells:
A) are activated by APC-bound antigen B) lack specificity for antigen C) secrete lymphotoxins and perforins that damage target cells D) secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells E) all of the choices are correct |
C) secrete lymphotoxins and perforins that damage target cells
|
|
|
An example of artificial passive immunity would be:
A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct |
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
|
|
|
An example of natural passive immunity would be:
A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct |
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta
|
|
|
An example of artificial active immunity would be:
A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct |
B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
|
|
|
All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except:
A) IgM B) IgG C) IgE D) complement E) foreign cells |
C) IgE
|
|
|
Human blood types involve all the following except:
A) MHC genes B) ABO antigen markers C) inheritance of two of three possible alleles D) genetically determined glycoprotein markers E) genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors |
A) MHC genes
|
|
|
The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh- will have which of the following?
A) anti A, anti Rh B) anti B, anti Rh C) anti A D) anti B E) anti A, anti B, anti Rh |
D) anti B
|
|
|
A person with O type blood:
A) lacks all the alleles for ABO blood type B) lacks A and B antigens C) could not have the Rh factor D) is called a universal recipient E) all of the choices are correct |
B) lacks A and B antigens
|
|
|
A person who has anti A and anti B serum antibodies will have blood type:
A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) Rh |
D) O
|
|
|
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause:
A) recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBC's B) fever and anemia C) systemic shock and kidney failure D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
A female who is Rh+:
A) inherited two recessive genes B) is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status C) is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn D) can never have an Rh- baby E) all of the choices are correct |
B) is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status
|
|
|
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when:
A) maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus B) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother C) maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus D) fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother E) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother |
B) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
|
|
|
Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor:
A) all other fetuses are at risk B) she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn C) she can never again have a low risk pregnancy D) only future Rh- fetuses are at risk E) none of the choices are correct |
B) she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn
|
|
|
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?
A) ingestant B) inhalant C) injectant D) contactant E) none of the choices are correct |
C) injectant
|
|
|
Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?
A) ingestant B) inhalant C) injectant D) contactant E) none of the choices are correct |
B) inhalant
|
|
|
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the:
A) sensitizing dose B) provocative dose C) allergic dose D) hypersensitivity dose E) desensitizing dose |
A) sensitizing dose
|
|
|
What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters that body for a second time?
A) degranulation B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability |
B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
|
|
|
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A) degranulation B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability |
A) degranulation
|
|
|
Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?
A) degranulation B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability |
C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?
A) rhinitis B) rashes C) sneezing D) diarrhea E) contact dermatitis |
E) contact dermatitis
|
|
|
Which is mismatched:
A) food allergy -- Type I hypersensitivity B) poison ivy dermatitis -- Type 4 hypersensitivity C) serum sickness -- Type 3 hypersensitivity D) transfusion reaction -- Type 2 hypersensitivity E) hay fever -- Type 4 hypersensitivity |
E) hay fever -- Type 4 hypersensitivity
|
|
|
Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an:
A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency C) hypersensitivity D) transfusion reaction E) desensitization |
D) transfusion reaction
|
|
|
Histamine causes all the following except:
A) increased sensitivity to pain B) constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine C) relaxes vascular smooth muscle D) wheal and flare reaction in skin E) pruritis and headache |
A) increased sensitivity to pain
|
|
|
The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is:
A) prostaglandin B) histamine C) leukotriene D) serotonin E) platelet-activating factor |
C) leukotriene
|
|
|
The gene that maintains a normal cell division cycle is:
A) oncogene B) pronto-oncogene C) tumor suppressor gene D) translocated gene E) none of the choices are correct |
C) tumor suppressor gene
|
|
|
Oncogenic viruses include all the following except:
A) certain Retroviruses B) certain Papillomaviruses C) Epstein-Barr virus D) HIV E) Hepatitis B virus |
D) HIV
|
|
|
Immunotherapy is the:
A) use of antitoxins B) use of immune serum globulin C) conferring of passive immunity D) administering of preformed antibodies E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
High titers of specific antibodies are components of:
A) specific immune globulin (SIG) B) gamma globulin C) immune serum globulin (ISG) D) attenuated vaccines E) toxoids |
A) specific immune globulin (SIG)
|
|
|
Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by:
A) removal of virulence genes from the microbe B) treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation C) passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture D) long-term subculturing of the microbe E) all of the choices are correct |
B) treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation
|
|
|
Live, attenuated vaccines:
A) include the Sabin polio vaccine B) include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR) C) contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person D) require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines:
A) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules B) are always genetically engineered C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses D) confer passive immunity E) all of the choices are correct |
C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
|
|
|
Antitoxins:
A) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules B) are always genetically engineered C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses D) confer passive immunity E) all of the choices are correct |
D) confer passive immunity
|
|
|
Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make:
A) adjuvant B) booster C) antibodies to toxin D) gamma globulin E) "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine |
E) "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
|
|
|
Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?
A) adjuvant B) booster C) antibodies to toxin D) gamma globulin E) "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine |
A) adjuvant
|
|
|
Variolation involved using:
A) dried, ground smallpox scabs B) a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus C) preparations of human cowpox lesions D) antibodies to the smallpox virus E) none of the choices are correct |
A) dried, ground smallpox scabs
|
|
|
Toxoids:
A) contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin B) use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins C) contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin D) include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus E) are horse serums used for passive protection |
C) contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin
|
|
|
The DTaP immunization:
A) contains diphtheria toxoid B) is administered in childhood C) contains tetanus toxoid D) contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients:
A) killed, inactivated vaccines B) attenuated vaccines C) toxoids D) immune serums E) subunit vaccines |
B) attenuated vaccines
|
|
|
Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
A) mycology B) hematology C) serology D) histology E) virology |
C) serology
|
|
|
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is:
A) cross-reactions B) agglutination C) precipitation D) specificity E) sensitivity |
E) sensitivity
|
|
|
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is:
A) cross-reactions B) agglutination C) precipitation D) specificity E) sensitivity |
D) specificity
|
|
|
Whole antigens are detected in this type of test:
A) cross-reactions B) agglutination C) precipitation D) specificity E) sensitivity |
B) agglutination
|
|
|
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test:
A) cross-reactions B) agglutination C) precipitation D) specificity E) sensitivity |
C) precipitation
|
|
|
Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in this type of test:
A) cross-reactions B) agglutination C) precipitation D) specificity E) sensitivity |
B) agglutination
|
|
|
A serum titer involves:
A) serially diluting a serum sample B) determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction C) determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction D) the Western blot method E) none of the choices are correct |
A) serially diluting a serum sample
|
|
|
When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called:
A) Ouchterlony double diffusion B) Western blot C) immunelectrophoresis D) radioimmunoassay (RIA) E) the Quellung test |
D) radioimmunoassay (RIA)
|
|
|
This test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody:
A) Ouchterlony double diffusion B) Western blot C) immunelectrophoresis D) radioimmunoassay (RIA) E) the Quellung test |
D) radioimmunoassay (RIA)
|
|
|
This test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test:
A) Ouchterlony double diffusion B) Western blot C) immunelectrophoresis D) radioimmunoassay (RIA) E) the Quellung test |
B) Western blot
|
|
|
The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine:
A) can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests B) emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation C) are observed in the fluorescent microscope D) are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
The food borne disease that involves neurotoxin is:
A) gastrointestinal anthrax B) Bacillus cereus intoxication C) botulism D) Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis E) all of the choices are correct |
C) botulism
|
|
|
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of:
A) Clostridium botulinum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium tetani E) all of the choices are correct |
B) Clostridium perfringens
|
|
|
This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis:
A) Clostridium botulinum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium tetani E) all of the choices are correct |
B) Clostridium perfringens
|
|
|
Salmonelloses are:
A) not caused by Salmonella typhi B) associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces C) gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea D) enteric fevers that often include septicemia E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
All coliforms are:
A) enteric pathogens B) rapid lactose fermenters C) oxidase positive D) fastidious E) strains of E. coli |
B) rapid lactose fermenters
|
|
|
Brucellosis is:
A) a zoonosis B) seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain and weakness C) associated with pathogen in the blood D) an occupational illness of people that work with animals E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Typhoid fever has the following characteristics except:
A) spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces B) transmitted by ingesting fecal contaminated food and water C) chronic carriers have pathogen in their gallbladder D) infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain E) becomes a septicemia, spreads to lymph nodes and spleen, and causes liver abscesses |
A) spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces
|
|
|
Shigella species have the following characteristics except:
A) not motile B) reservoir is human carriers C) belong to Enterobacteriaceae D) infect the small intestine E) produce enterotoxin |
D) infect the small intestine
|
|
|
Plague includes:
A) septicemic form -- called black death B) bubonic form -- buboes develop C) pneumonic form -- sputum highly contagious D) disease control -- control of rodent population E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (X factor) in its growth medium?
A) Legionella B) Haemophilus C) Brucella D) Shigella E) all of the choices are correct |
B) Haemophilus
|
|
|
The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its:
A) fimbriae B) neurotoxin C) enterotoxin D) capsule E) none of the choices are correct |
D) capsule
|
|
|
An agent of conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Haemophilus aegyptius D) Haemophilus parainfluenzae E) Haemophilus aphrophilus |
C) Haemophilus aegyptius
|
|
|
A common cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Haemophilus aegyptius D) Haemophilus parainfluenzae E) Haemophilus aphrophilus |
A) Haemophilus influenzae
|
|
|
The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called:
A) fungal virulence B) parasitism C) dimorphism D) dermatophytes E) opportunistic fungi |
C) dimorphism
|
|
|
The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are:
A) urinary and reproductive B) digestive and respiratory C) blood and wounds D) respiratory and cutaneous E) none of the choices are correct |
D) respiratory and cutaneous
|
|
|
All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except:
A) Candida B) Histoplasma C) Blastomyces D) Coccidioides E) Paracoccidiodes |
A) Candida
|
|
|
The terms used for the four levels of fungal infection include the following except:
A) cutaneous B) bloodborne C) systemic D) subcutaneous E) superficial |
B) bloodborne
|
|
|
Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include:
A) grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano B) is a yeast with a capsule C) is a dermatophyte D) grows in dry, arid soil E) none of the choices are correct |
A) grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano
|
|
|
All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except:
A) pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano B) has highest incidence in the southwestern United States C) is transmitted by inhalation of arthropores D) often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise E) is also called Valley Fever |
A) pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano
|
|
|
Blastomyces dermatitidis:
A) favors forest soil, high in organic matter B) is transmitted by skin contact with fomites C) is a dermatophyte D) causes subcutaneous infection E) all of the choices are correct |
A) favors forest soil, high in organic matter
|
|
|
Mycetoma is:
A) a subcutaneous infection B) also called athlete's foot C) caused by dermatophytes D) only seen in the Midwest E) all of the choices are correct |
A) a subcutaneous infection
|
|
|
Dermatophytoses are:
A) fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails B) also called ringworm C) also called tines D) often time-consuming to eradicate completely E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Oral thrush is caused by:
A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Candida albicans C) Malassezia furfur D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci E) none of the choices are correct |
B) Candida albicans
|
|
|
This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:
A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Candida albicans C) Malassezia furfur D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci E) none of the choices are correct |
D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
|
|
|
This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:
A) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci B) Fusarium species C) Rhizopus species D) Geotrichum candidum E) Aspergillus flavis |
E) Aspergillus flavis
|
|
|
Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by:
A) ingestion of cysts of the pathogen B) contaminated food C) contaminated water D) anal-oral sexual contact E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Amebiasis is a disease of the:
A) conjunctiva of the eye B) brain and meninges C) intestines and often the liver D) lung tissue E) skin |
C) intestines and often the liver
|
|
|
Diseases transmitted by vectors include:
A) balantidiasis B) amebiasis and trichomoniasis C) amebic meningoencephalitis D) trypanosomiasis leishmaniasis E) cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis |
D) trypanosomiasis leishmaniasis
|
|
|
The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes:
A) balantidiasis B) amebiasis and trichomoniasis C) amebic meningoencephalitis D) trypanosomiasis leishmaniasis E) cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis |
A) balantidiasis
|
|
|
Which of the following is an apicoplexan parasite?
A) Naegleria fowleri B) Toxoplasma gondii C) Balantidium coli D) Giardia lamblia E) Entamoeba histolytica |
B) Toxoplasma gondii
|
|
|
Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?
A) toxoplasmosis B) trichomoniasis C) giardiasis D) malaria E) balantidiasis |
B) trichomoniasis
|
|
|
Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission?
A) toxoplasmosis B) trichomoniasis C) giardiasis D) malaria E) balantidiasis |
A) toxoplasmosis
|
|
|
Trichomonas vaginalis:
A) does not produce cysts B) in males causes urethritis C) in females causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge D) has four flagella and an undulating membrane E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Giardiasis involves:
A) a protozoan that does not form cysts B) infection of the large intestine C) symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea D) vector transmission E) all of the choices are correct |
C) symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea
|
|
|
African sleeping sickness is caused by:
A) Trypanosoma cruzi B) Trypanosoma brucei C) Leishmania brasiliensis D) Isospora belli E) Plasmodium falciparum |
B) Trypanosoma brucei
|
|
|
Chagas disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the:
A) reduviid, "kissing", bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) phlebotomine (sand) fly E) hard bodied tick |
A) reduviid, "kissing", bug
|
|
|
Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the:
A) reduviid, "kissing", bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) phlebotomine (sand) fly E) hard bodied tick |
D) phlebotomine (sand) fly
|
|
|
The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the:
A) reduviid, "kissing", bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) phlebotomine (sand) fly E) hard bodied tick |
B) tsetse fly
|
|
|
Which is incorrect about malaria:
A) merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells B) trophozoites develop in RBCs C) the mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites D) gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human E) none of the choices are correct |
A) merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells
|
|
|
This is a zoonosis, caused by an apicomplexan, that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard body tick:
A) cryptosporidiosis B) cyclosporiasis C) babesiosis D) toxoplasmosis E) none of the choices are correct |
C) babesiosis
|
|
|
Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include:
A) headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea B) chills, fever, sweats C) bloody, mucus-filled stools, and fever D) a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer E) none of the choices are correct |
A) headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea
|
|
|
Parasitic helminthes have the following characteristics except:
A) are multicellular animals B) have a definitive host where the adult form lives C) have developmental forms that include cysts D) include roundworms E) include tapeworms |
C) have developmental forms that include cysts
|
|
|
Ascaris lumbricoides:
A) is an intestinal roundworm B) spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food C) larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines D) larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed and return to intestines to mature E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
Enterobius vermicularis is:
A) a whipworm B) common only to the tropics and subtropics C) an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites D) often fatal in heavy infestations E) all of the choices are correct |
C) an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites
|
|
|
Strongyloides stercoralis:
A) is a tapeworm B) is ingested with food and does not migrate out of the intestine C) heavy infestation is rare D) immunosuppressed patients can die from disseminated disease E) all of the choices are correct |
D) immunosuppressed patients can die from disseminated disease
|
|
|
Elephantiasis includes all the following except:
A) caused by filarial nematodes B) helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors C) larval infestation causes blockage of main lymphatic channels D) severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum E) microfilariae are in the blood |
B) helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors
|
|
|
Schistosomiasis involves:
A) a blood fluke B) eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidium C) snails allow development into cercaria D) cercaria enter hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
|
|
|
The thin envelope of life that surrounds the earth's surface is called the:
A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere E) ecosystem |
B) biosphere
|
|
|
A collection of organisms together with their physical and chemical factors are called a/an:
A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere E) ecosystem |
E) ecosystem
|
|
|
The overall role that a species serves in a community is its:
A) niche B) habitat C) population D) community E) biome |
A) niche
|
|
|
The energy of photons is converted into chemical energy during:
A) ammonification B) nitrogen fixation C) photosynthesis D) nitrification E) denitrification |
C) photosynthesis
|
|
|
The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH4+) occurs during:
A) ammonification B) nitrogen fixation C) photosynthesis D) nitrification E) denitrification |
B) nitrogen fixation
|
|
|
The oxidation of ammonia (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) is called:
A) ammonification B) nitrogen fixation C) photosynthesis D) nitrification E) denitrification |
D) nitrification
|
|
|
Which organism is a nitrogen fixing symbiont of legumes?
A) Rhizobium B) Nitrobacter C) Pseudomonas D) Nostoc E) Azotobacter |
A) Rhizobium
|
