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142 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Viruses have all the following except:
A) definite shape
B) metabolism
C) genes
D) ability to infect host cells
E) ultramicroscopic size
B) metabolism
Host cells of viruses include:
A) human and other animals
B) plants and fungi
C) bacteria
D) protozoa and algae
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
The core of every virus particle always contains:
A) DNAO
B) capsomeres
C) enzymes
D) DNA and RNA
E) either DNA or RNA
E) either DNA or RNA
Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except:
A) type of nucleic acid
B) type of capsid
C) presence of an envelope
D) biochemical reactions
E) number of strands in the nucleic acid
D) biochemical reactions
Virus capsids are made from subunits called:
A) envelopes
B) spikes
C) capsomeres
D) prophages
E) peplomers
C) capsomeres
Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus:
A) spike
B) capsomere
C) envelope
D) capsid
E) core
D) capsid
Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A) envelope
B) capsomeres
C) capsid
D) nucleic acid
E) genome
A) envelope
These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors:
A) sheath
B) tail fibers
C) nucleic acid
D) capsid head
E) none of the choices are correct
B) tail fibers
T-even phages:
A) include the poxviruses
B) infect Escherichia coli cells
C) enter host cells by engulfment
D) have helical capsids
E) all of the choices are correct
B) infect Escherichia coli cells
The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is:
A) penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release
B) replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release
C) adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release
D) assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption
E) adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly penetration
C) adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release
The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is:
A) adsorption to the host cells
B) injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
C) host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins
D) assembly of nucleocapsids
E) replication of viral nucleic acid
B) injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during:
A) replication
B) assembly
C) adsorption
D) release
E) penetration
D) release
Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A) live lab animals
B) embryonated bird eggs
C) primary cell cultures
D) continuous cell cultures
E) blood agar
E) blood agar
In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _______, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _______.
A) nucleus, cytoplasm
B) cytoplasm, cell membrane
C) cell membrane, cytoplasm
D) cytoplasm, nucleus
E) nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
A) nucleus, cytoplasm
Host range is limited by:
A) type of nucleic acid in the virus
B) age of the host cell
C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
D) size of the host cell
E) all of the choices are correct
C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called:
A) lysogeny
B) budding
C) plaques
D) cytopathic effects
E) pocks
D) cytopathic effects
Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called:
A) lysogeny
B) budding
C) plaques
D) cytopathic effects
E) pocks
C) plaques
Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called:
A) lysogeny
B) budding
C) plaques
D) cytopathic effects
E) pocks
E) pocks
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called:
A) latent
B) oncogenic
C) prions
D) viroids
E) delta agents
A) latent
Oncogenic viruses include all the following except:
A) hepatitis B virus
B) measles virus
C) papillomavirus
D) HTLVI and HTLVII viruses
E) Epstein-Barr virus
B) measles virus
Uncoating of viral nucleic acid:
A) does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication
B) involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid
C) occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle
D) occurs before replication
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Infectious protein particles are called:
A) viroids
B) phages
C) prions
D) oncogenic viruses
E) spikes
C) prions
Infectious naked strands of RNA are called:
A) viroids
B) phages
C) prions
D) oncogenic viruses
E) spikes
A) viroids
Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism:
A) element
B) macronutrient
C) water
D) growth factor
E) trace element
C) water
Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:
A) element
B) macronutrient
C) water
D) growth factor
E) trace element
E) trace element
An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an:
A) element
B) macronutrient
C) water
D) growth factor
E) trace element
D) growth factor
An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is:
A) iron
B) zinc
C) calcium
D) magnesium
E) potassium
A) iron
An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is:
A) iron
B) zinc
C) calcium
D) magnesium
E) potassium
D) magnesium
The term phototroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C) gets energy from sunlight
D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E) does not need a carbon source
C) gets energy from sunlight
The term autotroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C) gets energy from sunlight
D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E) does not need a carbon source
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source
The term heterotroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C) gets energy from sunlight
D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E) does not need a carbon source
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
The term chemotroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C) gets energy from sunlight
D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E) does not need a carbon source
D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that:
A) have sunlight
B) are very acidic
C) have abundant oxygen and CO2
D) are extremely cold
E) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
E) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called:
A) saprobes
B) parasites
C) autotrophs
D) lithoautotrophs
E) phototrophs
A) saprobes
The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen:
A) occurs in cyanobacteria
B) does not require CO2 as a reactant
C) occurs in certain bacteria
D) does not require sunlight
E) occurs in algae and plants
C) occurs in certain bacteria
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
B) diffusion
Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called:
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
D) osmosis
The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called:
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
C) active transport
The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called:
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
B) diffusion
The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called:
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
E) endocytosis
Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would:
A) be in a hypotonic solution
B) gain water
C) be in a isotonic solution
D) shrivel
E) none of the choices are correct
D) shrivel
Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?
A) bacteria
B) protozoa
C) fungi
D) algae
E) cyanobacteria
B) protozoa
Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) endocytosis
D) osmosis
E) none of the choices are correct
C) endocytosis
Contractile vacuoles are:
A) used to expel excess water from cells
B) found in bacterial cells
C) important to certain organisms in hypotonic environments
D) protein carriers in cell membranes
E) none of the choices are correct
A) used to expel excess water from cells
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37 C incubator and on the shelf of a 50 C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37 C and 50 C, slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?
A) halophile
B) mesophile
C) anaerobe
D) psychrophile
E) capnophile
D) psychrophile
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an:
A) aerobe
B) anaerobe
C) facultative anaerobe
D) microaerophile
E) capnophile
C) facultative anaerobe
A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37 C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an:
A) extremophile
B) thermophile
C) psychrophile
D) facultative psychrophile
E) thermoduric
E) thermoduric
An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32 C is called a/an:
A) extremophile
B) thermophile
C) psychrophile
D) facultative psychrophile
E) thermoduric
E) thermoduric
An organism with a temperature growth range of 45 C to 60 C would be called a/an:
A) extremophile
B) thermophile
C) psychrophile
D) facultative psychrophile
E) thermoduric
B) thermophile
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except:
A) psychrophiles
B) anaerobes
C) facultative anaerobes
D) mesophiles
E) capnophiles
A) psychrophiles
A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with:
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) high salt
D) temperatures above 37 C
E) high acidity
B) oxygen
A microaerophile:
A) grows best in an anaerobic jar
B) grows with or without oxygen
C) needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen
D) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
E) none of the choices are correct
D) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
A halophile would grow best in:
A) acid pools
B) fresh water ponds
C) hot geyser springs
D) arid, desert soil
E) salt lakes
E) salt lakes
The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a ___________ relationship.
A) parasitic
B) saprobic
C) commensal
D) mutualistic
E) none of the choices are correct
D) mutualistic
The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the:
A) binary fission
B) growth curve
C) generation time
D) death phase
E) culture time
A) binary fission
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the:
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) all of the choices are correct
C) stationary phase
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not grown is the:
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) all of the choices are correct
A) lag phase
In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each ______ represents one ____ from the sample.
A) cell, cell
B) cell, colony
C) colony, cell
D) species, colony
E) generation, cell
C) colony, cell
All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called:
A) catabolism
B) redox reactions
C) phosphorylation
D) metabolism
E) cellular respiration
D) metabolism
The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of:
A) anabolism
B) catabolism
C) phosphorylation
D) fermentation
E) biosynthesis
B) catabolism
Enzymes are:
A) broken down in reactions that require energy input
B) proteins that function as catalysts
C) electron carrier molecules
D) not needed for catabolic reactions
E) all of the choices are correct
B) proteins that function as catalysts
Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called:
A) anabolism
B) phosphorylation
C) fermentation
D) exergonic
E) glycolysis
A) anabolism
An apoenzyme:
A) is part of a simple enzyme
B) is also called a coenzyme
C) contains the active site
D) is often an inorganic metal ion
E) is an RNA molecule
C) contains the active site
A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called:
A) substrates
B) apoenzymes
C) catalysts
D) cofactors
E) none of the choices are correct
D) cofactors
Important components of coenzymes are;
A) vitamins
B) metallic ions
C) active sites
D) substrates
E) ribozymes
A) vitamins
Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperatures or other harsh conditions would be termed:
A) denatured
B) ribozymes
C) abzymes
D) exoenzymes
E) extremozymes
E) extremozymes
Enzymes that are only produced only when substrate is present are termed:
A) exoenzymes
B) endoenzymes
C) constitute enzymes
D) induced enzymes
E) conjugated enzymes
D) induced enzymes
Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called:
A) phosphotranferases
B) oxidoreductases
C) decarboxylases
D) aminotransferases
E) ligases
B) oxidoreductases
When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called:
A) negative feedback
B) competitive inhibition
C) enzyme induction
D) enzyme repression
E) none of the choices are correct
A) negative feedback
Most electron carriers are:
A) coezymes
B) enzymes
C) hydrogens
D) inorganic phosphate
E) all of the choices are correct
A) coezymes
Exergonic reactions:
A) include synthesis of large carbohydrates
B) only occur in heterotrophs
C) occur during aerobic cellular respiration
D) do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration
E) occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP
C) occur during aerobic cellular respiration
In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate:
A) ATP
B) ADP
C) pyruvic acid
D) oxygen
E) NAD
B) ADP
In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?
A) ADP
B) glucose
C) carbon
D) hydrogen protons
E) carbon dioxide
D) hydrogen protons
The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is:
A) mitochondria
B) within the cell membrane
C) lysosomes
D) cytoplasm
E) outside of the cell
E) outside of the cell
All of the following are exoenzymes except:
A) ATP synthase
B) streptokinase
C) penicillinase
D) collagenase
E) elastase
A) ATP synthase
All of the following pertain to glycolysis except:
A) occurs without oxygen
B) ends with formation of pyretic acid
C) occurs during fermentation
D) degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O
E) involves reduction of NAD
D) degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O
The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins:
A) glycolysis
B) electron transport system
C) TCA cycle
D) fermentation
E) oxidative phosphorylation
C) TCA cycle
The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is:
A) the final step of the TCA cycle
B) the first redox reaction of the electron transport system
C) an example of oxidative phosphorylation
D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation
E) an example of photophosphorylation
D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation
During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is:
A) pyruvic acid
B) oxygen
C) nitrate
D) cytochrome c
E) FAD
B) oxygen
Which of the following is NOT involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the TCA cycle?
A) reduction of NAD
B) decarboxylation of pyretic acid
C) coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
D) dehydrogenation of pyretic acid
E) pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
E) pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the:
A) cell membrane
B) mitochondria
C) chloroplasts
D) ribosomes
E) cytoplasm
A) cell membrane
In which pathway is the most NADH generated?
A) electron transport system
B) TCA cycle
C) glycolysis
D) alcoholic fermentation
E) mixed acid fermentation
B) TCA cycle
The reactions of fermentation function to produce ___ molecules for use in glycolysis.
A) pyretic acid
B) ATP
C) NAD
D) NADH
E) glucose
C) NAD
During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
A) electron transport
B) TCA cycle
C) glycolysis
D) processing of pyretic acid for the TCA cycle
E) all phases produce the same number of ATP molecules
A) electron transport
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated?
A) 2 ATP
B) 3 ATP
C) 24 ATP
D) 36 ATP
E) 38 ATP
E) 38 ATP
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A) 2 ATP
B) 3 ATP
C) 24 ATP
D) 36 ATP
E) 38 ATP
A) 2 ATP
Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ___ ATP.
A) 2 ATP
B) 3 ATP
C) 24 ATP
D) 36 ATP
E) 38 ATP
B) 3 ATP
As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____________ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.
A) ATP
B) phosphate
C) hydrogen ions
D) oxygen
E) NADH
C) hydrogen ions
Mixed acid fermentation:
A) produces butyric acid
B) occurs in all bacteria
C) produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases
D) is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus
E) also produces ethanol
C) produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases
Anaerobic cellular respiration:
A) is also called fermentation
B) only involves glycolysis
C) does not generate ATP
D) utilizes an electron transport system
E) uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration
D) utilizes an electron transport system
Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba:
A) is a free-living ameba of fresh waters
B) enters typically through broken skin or the conductive
C) is the cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis
D) enters through the nasal mucosa
E) is acquired by swimming in contaminated water
B) enters typically through broken skin or the conductive
Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the:
A) Herpesviruses
B) Pox viruses
C) Adenoviruses
D) Papovaviruses
E) Parvoviruses
E) Parvoviruses
All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae except:
A) Varicella-zoster virus
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Variola virus
D) Herpes simplex viruses
E) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Variola virus
Smallpox is a disease in which:
A) fever, prostration, rash, and possible toxemia and shock occur
B) virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons
C) recurrent episodes are called shingles
D) can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts
E) all of the choices are correct
A) fever, prostration, rash, and possible toxemia and shock occur
All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) except:
A) causes gingivostomatitis
B) causes cold sores and herpes keratitis
C) latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia
D) transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions
E) causes hepatic whitlow in health-care workers
C) latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia
Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes:
A) genital lesions
B) intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals
C) symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching
D) infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is:
A) shingles
B) paralysis
C) encephalitis
D) myocarditis
E) kidney failure
C) encephalitis
Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?
A) interferon
B) valacyclovir
C) acyclovir
D) famciclovir
E) all of the choices are correct
A) interferon
Chickenpox:
A) is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions
B) is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material
C) has an incubation of 10 to 20 days
D) has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the:
A) nasal mucosa
B) finger
C) oral mucosa and tongue
D) eye
E) newborn
B) finger
Varicella-zoster virus:
A) uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry
B) becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes
C) has humans as its reservoir
D) causes chickenpox and shingles
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with:
A) herpes labialis
B) shingles
C) chickenpox
D) infectious mononucleosis
E) herpes keratitis
C) chickenpox
Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except:
A) infects the respiratory epithelium
B) is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva
C) multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland
D) has a 30-50 day incubation
E) can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants
A) infects the respiratory epithelium
Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include:
A) vesicular lesions in oral mucosa
B) fever, and pocks on skin
C) sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
D) fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis
E) none of the choices are correct
C) sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include:
A) vesicular lesions in oral mucosa
B) fever, and pocks on skin
C) sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
D) fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis
E) none of the choices are correct
D) fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis
The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following except:
A) diabetics
B) organ transplant patients
C) infants infected in uterine
D) AIDS patients
E) bone marrow transplant patients
A) diabetics
Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called:
A) hepatitis
B) jaundice
C) liver cancer
D) mononucleosis
E) none of the choices are correct
A) hepatitis
Adenoviruses are:
A) nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses
B) transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions
C) causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children
D) causes of outbreaks among military recruits
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
All of the following pertain to genital warts except:
A) are not common in the United States
B) are sexually transmitted
C) often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix
D) includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata
E) certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis
A) are not common in the United States
Characteristics of the Orthomydoviruses include:
A) enveloped
B) include paramyxoviruses
C) hemagglutin spikes
D) RNA genome
E) neuraminidase spikes
B) include paramyxoviruses
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is:
A) catalase
B) reverse transcriptase
C) hyaluronidase
D) neuraminidase
E) kinase
D) neuraminidase
Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except:
A) influenza
B) rubella
C) dengue fever
D) mumps
E) SARS
C) dengue fever
Symptoms of influenza include:
A) nasal discharge, mild fever, absence of cough
B) fever, diarrhea, vomiting
C) fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge
D) fever, sore throat, rash, cough
E) fever and pneumonia
C) fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge
Reye's syndrome involves:
A) aspirin use
B) a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox
C) fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney
D) children, adolescents, and young adults
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Influenza vaccines include all the following except:
A) inactivated intramuscular vaccine
B) usually incorporates three different strains
C) attenuated, nasal drops vaccine
D) provides lifelong immunity
E) Guillain-Barre syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication
D) provides lifelong immunity
Influenza infection predisposes compromised patients for acquiring:
A) cancer
B) bacterial pneumonia
C) common cold
D) Guillain-Barre
E) all of the choices are correct
B) bacterial pneumonia
Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses:
A) lymphocytic choriomeningitis
B) Lassa fever
C) hantaviruses
D) Bolivian hemorrhagic fever
E) Argentine hemorrhagic fever
C) hantaviruses
Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics except:
A) reservoir is human carriers
B) is a zoonosis
C) symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension
D) transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta
E) first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest
A) reservoir is human carriers
Parainfluenza virus:
A) usually infects the elderly
B) is in the Orthomyxovirus family
C) causes influenza
D) causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia
E) all of the choices are correct
D) causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia
Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of:
A) croup
B) mumps
C) influenza
D) measles (rubeola)
E) rubella
B) mumps
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with:
A) croup
B) mumps
C) influenza
D) measles (rubeola)
E) rubella
D) measles (rubeola)
This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough:
A) croup
B) mumps
C) influenza
D) measles (rubeola)
E) rubella
A) croup
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
A) croup
B) mumps
C) influenza
D) measles (rubeola)
E) rubella
E) rubella
All the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except:
A) transmitted by direct contact with the rash
B) humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
C) secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur
D) involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
E) dry cough, sore throat, fever, conjunctivitis are symptoms
A) transmitted by direct contact with the rash
Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus):
A) causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger
B) uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site
C) can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin
D) Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes:
A) debridement
B) wash bite with soap or detergent
C) wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
D) postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Coronaviruses cause:
A) fever, rash, nasal discharge
B) meningitis
C) common cold
D) SARS
E) common cold and SARS
E) common cold and SARS
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involve:
A) fever, headache, and rash
B) coma, convulsions, paralysis in severe cases
C) myalgia and orbital pain
D) muscle aches and joint stiffness
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
West Nile virus has the following characteristics except:
A) causes hemorrhagic fever
B) is an arbovirus
C) transmitted by a mosquito vector
D) typically is a flu-like illness
E) severe encephalitis can occur in the elderly and the compromised
A) causes hemorrhagic fever
Retroviruses have the following characteristics except:
A) glycoprotein spikes
B) DNA genome
C) enveloped
D) reverse transcriptase
E) viral genes integrate into the host genome
B) DNA genome
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:
A) have an immunodeficiency
B) have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm^3 of blood
C) get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections
D) can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
E) highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
E) highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
Documented transmission of HIV involves:
A) mosquitoes
B) unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
C) respiratory droplets
D) contaminated food
E) all of the choices are correct
B) unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
All of the following pertain to HIV except:
A) attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors
B) viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus
C) becomes latent in host cells
D) ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens
E) can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities
D) ELISA and Western blog tests detect HIV antigens
Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
A) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) protease inhibitors
C) fusion inhibitors
D) integrate inhibitors
E) all of the choices are correct
B) protease inhibitors
This new class of drugs will interfere with viral integration into host DNA:
A) reverse transcriptase
B) protease inhibitors
C) fusion inhibitors
D) integrase inhibitors
E) all of the choices are correct
D) integrase inhibitors
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is:
A) leukemia
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma
C) Kaposi's sarcoma
D) melanoma
E) myeloma
C) Kaposi's sarcoma
Adult T-cell leukemia (ATL):
A) is caused by the retrovirus, HTLV II
B) is an overall leukopenia but with an increased number of neoplastic B lymphocytes
C) is a persistent lymphocytosis with large atypical lymphocytes that is progressive and fatal
D) afflicted lymphocytes have pseudopod-like extensions
E) alpha interferon is use to achieve remission
C) is a persistent lymphocytosis with large atypical lymphocytes that is progressive and fatal
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except:
A) summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
B) transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water
C) can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea
D) if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed
E) caused by Poliovirus (genus Enterovirus)
A) summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
The major agents responsible for the common cold are:
A) Coxsackie viruses
B) Rhinoviruses
C) Influenza viruses
D) Caliciviruses
E) Rotavirus
B) Rhinoviruses
The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is:
A) Coxsackie viruses
B) Rhinoviruses
C) Influenza viruses
D) Caliciviruses
E) Rotavirus
E) Rotavirus
Norwalk agent is:
A) a calcivirus
B) transmitted orofecally
C) sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish
D) a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Spongiform encephalopathies are:
A) associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain
B) chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system
C) caused by prions
D) Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct