• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/152

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

152 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Secretion of which of the following hormones is NOT regulated by Humoral control mechanism

a. PTH
b. Glucagon
c. Growth Hormone
d. Calcitonin
c. Growth Hormone
When cortisol level goes down in blood the hypothalamus responds by producing the regulatory hormone called ___ which stimulates the Adenohypophysis to produce ____.

a. ACTH/CRH
b. Insulin/Glucagon
c. CRH/Cortisol
d. CRH/ACTH
d. CRH/ACTH
The following hormones are all controlled via negative feedback mechanism from the adenohypophysis EXCEPT

a. GH
b. PTH
c. ACTH
d. FSH/LH
e. TSH
b. PTH
Which of the following hormones is transported by the process of Facilitated Diffusion across the plasma membrane to work on the DNA of the cells is:

a. Cortisol
b. ADH
c. Thyroxine
d. FSH
c. Thyroxine
The following hormones uses cAMP as the second messenger for its mechanism of action on a cell:

a. Epinephrine
b. ACTH
c. Thyroxine
d. Insulin (did not use second messenger, directly phosphoryalted Tyrosine Kinase which phosphorylated other enzymes)
e. Both a and b (Epinephrine, ACTH, FSH, LH, TSH, PTH, Calcitonin, Glucagon)
e. Both a and b (Epinephrine, ACTH, FSH, LH, TSH, PTH, Calcitonin, Glucagon)
The following hormones are all peptides except for one which is formed from an amino acid

a. ACTH
b. FSH
c. Thyroxine (from Tyrosine)
d. Insulin
c. Thyroxine (from Tyrosine)
What Blood Type(s) can be transfused into a person with Type O Blood?

a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type AB
d. Type O
d. Type O
The three phases of Hemostasis include the following, except
c. clumping
The following are all functions of the growth hormone EXCEPT
responsible for maturation of ovum and sperm
the primary stimulus for release of adrenal medullary hormones come from
the sympathetic nervous system
Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ______.
formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
Steroid hormones exert their action by ______.
entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid gland?
low levels of calcium and phosphorous in blood
Lack of the hormone ___ causes Diabetes insipidus which has the same symptom of polyuria as Diabetes mellitus
ADH
Which hormone is NOT a hyperglycemic hormone
aldosterone
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-base hormones exert their effects through intracellular ______.
second messengers
How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress?
by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
the condition know as goiter can result from too much
TSH
Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?
It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
Thromboembolic disorders ______
include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system
Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?
Excess secretion of platelet derived growth factor
When can erythroblastosis fetalis NOT possibly happen in the child of an RH negative mother?
if the father is Rh-
The coagulation process is an example of a
positive feedback mechanism
Erythropoiesis increases when
oxygen in the blood decreases
Which type of anemia is associated with the absence of the Intrinsic Factor.
Pernicious Anemia
Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of blood?
delivery of oxygen to body cells
Which organ in the body regulate erythrocyte formation?
kidney
Which of the following is true of both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways?
both produce prothrombin activator
Stem cells responsible for production of white blood cells originate in the
bone marrow
The type of leukocyte that will increase during parasitic infections is ___
eosinophils
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does that mean?
There are no antibodies to A and B or to Rh antigen in the plasma
Lack of albumin in blood will affect
maintenance of blood osmotic pressure
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis
fibrinolysis
Leukocytes help blood to perform which of the following functions?
protect body from infection
No visible granules are present in the cytoplasm of ___
monocytes
If a person's plasma lacks globulin protein then which function of blood will be affected
defense mechanism with antibodies
Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil
myeloblast
Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system has:

a. more localized and long-lasting effects.
b. more widespread and long-lasting effects.
c. more localized and short-term effects.
d. more widespread and short-term effects.
b. more widespread and long-lasting effects.
Parathyroid hormone release depends on blood levels of calcium. Such an endocrine reflex is said to be initiated by:

a. hormonal stimulation.
b. humoral stimulation.
c. neural stimulation.
d. positive feedback stimulation.
b. humoral stimulation.
When a chemical messenger helps initiate a response by causing cellular changes in neighboring cells, it is demonstrating _________ signaling.

a. autocrine
b. paracrine
c. allomone
d. pheromone
b. paracrine
Lipid-soluble hormones, such as progesterone, exert their effects when they ______

a. activate a G-protein and second messenger cascade.
b. bind to DNA and initiate transcription.
c. open ion channels in the cell membrane.
d. activate adenylate cyclase.
b. bind to DNA and initiate transcription.
The term down-regulation refers to the process by which:

a. a glandular cell decreases the amount of hormone it secretes.
b. a large amount of hormone shuts down all metabolic activity in a target cell.
c. a cell decreases the number of receptors it has for a hormone.
d. a carrier protein increases the rate of degradation for a hormone and thereby decreases its blood concentration.
e. a carrier protein decreases the rate of degradation of the protein it ferries
c. a cell decreases the number of receptors it has for a hormone.
Glucagon and insulin work ______ on blood glucose levels.

a. antagonistically
b. permissively
c. synergistically
d. together
a. antagonistically
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the:

a. hypothalamus and it increases release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary.
b. hypothalamus and it increases release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the posterior pituitary.
c. anterior pituitary and it increases release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland.
d. parathyroid hormone and it increases release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland.
e. thymus and it increases release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland.
a. hypothalamus and it increases release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary.
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.

a. testosterone
b. estrogen
c. cortisol
d. epinephrine
c. cortisol
Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by humoral stimulus?

a. a change in membrane potential
b. the stimulation of a genetic event resulting in protein synthesis
c. an increase in enzymatic activity
d. direct control of the nervous system
d. direct control of the nervous system
The secretion of the following hormones are all under the control of regulatory hormones released from the Hypothalamus, except

a. FSH
b. PTH
c. ACTH
d. Insulin
e. Both B and D
e. Both B and D
What is the function of the mineralocorticoids secreted by the adrenal gland?

a. Regulate glucose levels in the blood
b. Act as secondary sex hormones
c. Stimulate metabolism of lipids
d. Regulate electrolyte concentration in body fluids
e. Stimulate metabolism of proteins
d. Regulate electrolyte concentration in body fluids
Which of the following cells can give rise to all of the different formed elements in blood?

a. Proerythroblast
b. Myeloid Stem cell
c. Hemocytoblast
d. Megakaryocyte
c. Hemocytoblast
Blood plasma is slightly _____; if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of ________.

a. acidic, glucose
b. acidic, proteins
c. acidic, glycogen
d. basic, glucose
e. basic, proteins
e. basic, proteins
The clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of:

a. erythrocytes in the blood.
b. leukocytes in the blood.
c. platelets in the blood.
d. plasma in the blood.
e. all formed elements in the blood.
a. erythrocytes in the blood.
An individual's hematocrit would vary with:

a. age.
b. sex.
c. altitude.
d. All of the choices are correct
d. All of the choices are correct
Which are characteristics of type O blood?
a: Has anti-A antibodies
b: Has anti-B antibodies
c: Has surface antigen O on its erythrocytes
d. Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes
e. Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes

a. a, b, c
b. a, b, e
c. b, c, e
d. b, c, d
e. c
b. a, b, e
The following substances are released from hemoglobin on erythrocyte destruction except

a. bilirubin
b. bile
c. Iron (stored as Ferriin in liver)
d. carbaminohemoglobin
d. carbaminohemoglobin
Blood plasma treated with enzyme to remove fibrinogen, is called

a. plasma minus fibrins
b. Extracellular fluid
c. Interstitial fluid
d. serum
d. serum
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

a. lymphoblast
b. erythroblast
c. hemocytoblast
d. polymorphonuclear cell
c. hemocytoblast
The most abundant protein in blood plasma responsible for maintaining water balance is

a. globulin
b. albumin
c. transferrin
d. fibrinogen
b. albumin
Each of the following statements concerning red blood cells is true, except one, identify the exception.

a. red cells are biconcave discs
b. red cells lack mitochondria
c. red cells have a large nucleus
d. red cells are specialized to carry oxygen
c. red cells have a large nucleus
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

a. hypoxia (low oxygen level) of EPO-producing cells
b. decreased tissue demand for oxygen
c. an increased number of RBCs
d. moving to a lower altitude
a. hypoxia (low oxygen level) of EPO-producing cells
______ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced

a. polycythemia
b. leukemia
c. anemia
d. hemophilia
c. anemia
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ______.

a. high hematocrit
b. low blood viscosity
c. high blood viscosity
d. high blood pressure
b. low blood viscosity
A person with type A blood has

a. A agglutinins on red blood cells
b. A agglutinogens in their plasma
c. anti-A agglutinins on their red blood cells
d. anti-B agglutinins in their plasma
d. anti-B agglutinins in their plasma
When neither anti-A sera nor anti-B sera of the recipient cot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood of the recipient is type ___.

a. B
b. A
c. AB
d. O
d. O
Erythroblasosis Fetalis, also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, most often occurs in ___ mothers carrying ___ fetuses.

a. Rh +; Rh -
b. Rh -; Rh +
c. Type A; Type O
d. Type AB; Type A
b. Rh -; Rh +
Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?

a. They are all nucleated.
b. They all have cytoplasimic granules.
c. They increase in number only during blood clot formation
d. They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood
a. They are all nucleated.
White blood cells that increase in number in response to parasitic infections are the

a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. basophils
d. lymphocytes
b. eosinophils
All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are

a. granular leukocytes
b. phagocytic
c. also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes
d. important for blood clotting
d. important for blood clotting
Blood Type of a person is determined by the ______

a. type of plasma proteins
b. number of red blood cells
c. differential blood count
d. type of antigen or agglutinogen on the Red Blood Cells.
d. type of antigen or agglutinogen on the Red Blood Cells.
Choose the correct order for the steps of hemostasis

a. blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, blood vessel spasm
b. platelet plug formation, blood coagulation, blood vessel spasm
c. vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation
d. vascular spasm, blood coagulation, platelet plug formation
c. vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation
The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the

a. sticking of platelets to damaged tissue
b. release of tissue factor by the damaged external tissues of the blood vessel
c. release of heparin by granulocytes
d. conversion of thrombin to prothrombin
b. release of tissue factor by the damaged external tissues of the blood vessel
You have a streptococcal infection, which type of leukocyte will increase in your blood?

a. Platelets
b. Eosinophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophils
Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?

a. delivery of oxygen to body cells
b. transport of metabolic wastes from cells
c. prevention of blood loss
d. maintenance of normal pH in body tissues
d. maintenance of normal pH in body tissues
Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones?

a. Regulation
b. Protection
c. Prevention
d. Transportation
d. Transportation
The body's major metabolic hormone is called

a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
b. Thyroxine
c. Cortisol
d. Insulin
b. Thyroxine
Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body?

a. T3 and T4
b. Calcitonin and Parathyroid hormone
c. Insulin and Glucagon
d. Glucocorticoid and Cortisol
b. Calcitonin and Parathyroid hormone
Which of the following hormones is NOT produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland:

a. Growth Hormone
b. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
c. Oxytocin
d. Luteinizing Hormone
c. Oxytocin
Estrogen and Progesterone exert their action by ______.

a. activating a G-protein and second messenger cascade.
b. binding to DNA and initiate transcription.
c. opening ion channels in the cell membrane.
d. activating adenylate cyclase.
c. opening ion channels in the cell membrane.
The following hormones function using a second-messenger mechanism except _______

a. Epinephrine
b. Growth Hormone
c. Insulin
d. ACTH
e. Both c and d
c. Insulin
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because ______.

a. it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
b. embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
c. it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
d. it stores neurohormones in the axon terminal of neurons from the hypothalamus
d. it stores neurohormones in the axon terminal of neurons from the hypothalamus
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluid is ______.

a. insulin
b. aldosterone
c. glucagon
d. cortisol
b. aldosterone
Which hormones are collectively called the gonadotropins?

a. Prolactin and oxytocin
b. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone and melanocyte-stimulating hormone
d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
Which hormone group is not secreted by the adrenal cortex?

a. Corticosteroids
b. Glucocorticoids
c. Mineralocorticoids
d. Gonadocorticoids (androgens)
e. No exceptions; all choices are secreted by the adrenal cortex
e. No exceptions; all choices are secreted by the adrenal cortex
Growth Hormone is responsible for the following functions EXCEPT

a. promotes growth of bone and cartilage
b. increased protein synthesis
c. is responsible for establishing the sleep-wake cycle
d. decreasing use of glucose as source of energy
d. decreasing use of glucose as source of energy
A hormone which function to maintain glucose level of blood when someone has not eaten for 5 hours is ______

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Luteinizing Hormone
d. Oxytocin
b. Glucagon
Which of the following hormones are involved in maintaining blood volume (water content in blood)

a. Oxytocin
b. ADH
c. Calcitonin
d. aldosterone
e. both b and d
e. both b and d
Which are of the heart receives blood from the systemic veins?
right atrium
Which one of the following blood vessels carry oxygenated blood?
pulmonary vein
The sinoatrial node is located in the
right atrium
Cardiac Output is measured as the product of heart rate and the ______
stroke volume
The second heart sound is due to closure of:
semilunar valves
The P wave of an ECG represents
depolarization of the atrium
Which one of the following is caused by a decrease in venous return to the heart:
a decrease in stroke volume and cardiac output
The coronary sulcus is a groove that
marks the border between atria and the ventricles
The plateau phase of the cardiac muscle is due
the calcium channel remain open longer periods of time
Veins in the myocardium drains into the
coronary sinus
Nerve impulses that reach the heart by means of he vagus nerve are
parasympathetic and cause decreased heart rate
When the left ventricle contracts the distance from the apex to the base
decreases
An ECG provides direct information about valve function
False
The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by spasm of coronary arteries is
Angina Pectoris
The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is
significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius
Arteries always carry blood away from the heart
True
Capillaries with an incomplete basement membrane are called
sinusoidal capillaries
Blood is carried away from the heart by
systemic arteries
The Circle of Willis involves blood flow through the liver
False
Peripheral resistance:
increases as blood viscosity increases
The longest vein in the body is the
great saphenous vein
Flow of blood in the veins of the lower limbs is regulated by the presence of valves
True
Circulation time of a red blood cell in an average resting human is about
1 minute
During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed
False
Veins that contain valves are located mostly in the
lower limbs
If cardiac output rises due to an increase in stroke volume or heart rate, but resistance stays the same
Both Blood Pressure and blood flow will increase
Hypovolemic circulatory shock is most directly related to loss of blood volume
True
The myocardium is primarily

a. elastic tissue
b. epithelial tissue
c. cardiac muscle
d. autorhythmic cells
c. cardiac muscle
During the plateau phase of a cardiac muscle cell's action potential, the membrane stays:

a. depolarized as potassium exits and calcium enters.
b. depolarized as potassium enters and calcium exits.
c. repolarized as sodium enters and calcium exits.
d. hyperpolarized as sodium and calcium exit.
e. hyperpolarized as potassium enters and calcium exits.
a. depolarized as potassium exits and calcium enters.
Absence of T wave on ECG recording means there is no

a. atrial repolarization
b. atrial depolarization
c. ventricular repolarization
d. ventricular depolarization
c. ventricular repolarization
During the isovolumetric phase of ventricular systole, the

a. atria are contracting and the ventricles are relaxing
b. av valves and semilunar valves are closed
c. blood is ejected into the circuits
d. all of the above
b. av valves and semilunar valves are closed
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of flow of an electrical impulse through the heart?

a. A-V node, A-V bundle, Purkinje fibers, S-A node
b. S-A node, Purkinje fibers, A-V node, A-V bundle
c. S-A node, A-V node, A-V bundle, Purkinje fibers
d. A-V node, S-A node, Purkinje fibers, A-V bundle
c. S-A node, A-V node, A-V bundle, Purkinje fibers
The left ventricle refills with blood in preparation for initiation of the next cardiac cycle during ventricular

a. systole
b. contraction
c. depolarization
d. diastole
d. diastole
Release of norepinephrine from nerve fibers causes

a. decreased heart rate and force of contraction
b. increased heart rate but decreased force of contraction
c. increased heart rate and force of contraction
d. decreased heart rate but increased force of contraction
c. increased heart rate and force of contraction
The Starling Law of the heart states that

a. the volume of blood that enters the heart during diastole directly affects the force of contraction at systole
b. a reduction in body temperature results in lower heart rate
c. each period of systole must be followed by a period of diastole
d. the presence of negative ionotropic substances increases myocardial contractility
a. the volume of blood that enters the heart during diastole directly affects the force of contraction at systole
When the left ventricle fails, blood backs up in the lungs, causing

a. fibrillation
b. rheumatic fever
c. heart murmurs
d. pulmonary edema
d. pulmonary edema
During exercise, increased muscle contraction helps return more blood to the heart. This would lead to

a. Decrease cardiac output
b. decreased heart rate
c. increased stroke volume
d. decreased stroke volume
c. increased stroke volume
The function of the coronary sinus is to:

a. connect the top and bottom halves of the heart.
b. guide the aorta out of the heart.
c. guide the inferior vena cava into the right atrium.
d. take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium.
e. shunt blood from the right atrium to the left atrium.
d. take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium.
A network of small arteries called the ______ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels.

a. vasa vasorum
b. companion vessels
c. distributing arteries
d. fenestrated arteries
e. throughfare channels
a. vasa vasorum
In arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is the:

a. tunica externa.
b. tunica media.
c. tunica intima.
d. tunica adventitia.
e. None of these because all the layers are of the same dimension
b. tunica media.
The largest arteries of the body are classified as:

a. muscular arteries or distributing arteries
b. arterioles.
c. elastic arteries or conducting arteries
d. muscular and elastic since they have the same dimensions.
e. None of these answers is correct.
c. elastic arteries or conducting arteries
Precapillary sphincters will:

a. control blood flow into the true capillaries.
b. cause blood to flow directly from the met arteriole into the postcapillary venule.
c. open when the tissue needs nutrients.
d. close when the tissue's needs have been met.
e. All of theses answers are correct
e. All of theses answers are correct
If someone suffered from hypertension, such that the blood pressure in their capillaries was elevated, then net filtration pressure would be:

a. above normal.
b. below normal.
a. above normal.
Blood flow is:

a. directly related to both the pressure gradient and the resistance.
b. directly related to the pressure gradient but inversely related to the resistance.
c. inversely related to both the pressure gradient and the resistance.
d. inversely related to the pressure gradient but directly related to the resistance.
b. directly related to the pressure gradient but inversely related to the resistance.
Increased cardiac output _________ the blood pressure.

a. decreases
b. increases
c. will not affect
b. increases
Excitation of the vasomotor center results in:

a. increased sympathetic activity and predominantly more vasoconstriction than vasodilation.
b. increased parasympathetic activity and predominantly more vasodilation than vasoconstriction.
c. increased autonomic activity that increases heart rate and dilates blood vessels.
d. decreased autonomic activity that decreases heart rate and constricts blood vessels.
e. redistribution of blood flow away from the skeletal muscles and toward the skin.
a. increased sympathetic activity and predominantly more vasoconstriction than vasodilation.
Epinephrine, aldosterone, and antidiuretic hormone each cause an increase in blood pressure.

True or False
True
During a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. Highly variable, depending on the heart beat rate
e. None of these answers is correct
b. 2
Large doses of certain stimulants can lead to dangerous increases in heart rates. Such a stimulant is ______

a. positive chronotropic agent.
b. negative chronotropic agent.
c. positive inotropic agent.
d. negative inotropic agent.
a. positive chronotropic agent.
Which of the following would cause a decrease in cardiac output?

a. An increase in venous return
b. An increase in afterload
c. Addition of positive inotropic agents
d. An increase in heart rate
b. An increase in afterload
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ______.

a. a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
b. a rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
c. no change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate
d. no change in blood pressure but a change in respiration
a. a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ______.

a. the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
b. the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
c. the AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart
d. parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
b. the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
When a clot forms on the plaque in a coronary vessel obstructing blood flow to the muscle, the condition is referred to as

a. angioplasty
b. myocardial infarction
c. coronary thrombosis
d. pulmonary embolism
c. coronary thrombosis
Which fetal circulatory structure shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta?

a. Foramen ovale
b. Ductus venosus
c. Ductus arteriosus
d. Umbilical vein
e. Umbilical artery
c. Ductus arteriosus
The hormone that helps to lower blood pressure by blocking absorption of sodium and water is ______

a. Epinephrine
b. Aldosterone
c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Atrial Natruretic Peptide (ANP)
b. Aldosterone
A drug that decreased calcium levels in a muscle cell and thereby lowered the number of cross bridges formed during the heart's contractions would be a:

a. positive chronotropic agent.
b. negative chronotropic agent.
c. positive inotropic agent.
d. negative inotropic agent.
d. negative inotropic agent.
Sympathetic innervation of the heart:
a: increases the heart rate
b: decreases the heart rate
c: increases the force of contractions
d: decreases the force of contractions
e: has no effect on contraction force

a. a, c
b. b, d
c. a, d
d. b, e
e. a, e
a. a, c
Someone with a heart block would have:

a. a long P-R interval.
b. a long T-P interval.
c. a short P-R interval.
d. a short T-P interval.
a. a long P-R interval.
Which of the following would cause a decrease in cardiac output?

a. An increase in venous return
b. An increase in afterload
c. Addition of positive inotropic agents
d. An increase in heart rate
b. An increase in afterload
The plateau phase of the cardiac cycle correlates to the phase of

a. ventricular filling phase
b. ejection phase
c. repolarization
d. isovolumetric contraction phase
d. isovolumetric contraction phase
Drugs know as beta-blockers (blocking sympathetic receptors) will

a. increase heart rate
b. decrease heart rate
c. increase stroke volume
d. increase cardiac output
b. decrease heart rate
If the papillary muscles fail to contract

a. the ventricles will not pump blood
b. the atria will not pump blood
c. the semilunar valves will not open
d. the A-V valves will not close properly
d. the A-V valves will not close properly
In which of the following situations would the end diastolic volume (EDV) be the more:

a. when the heart is beating faster (sympathetic stimulation)
b. when the heart is beating slower (parasympathetic stimulation)
b. when the heart is beating slower (parasympathetic stimulation)
In an ECG recording, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the

a. SA Node to the Purkinje muscle fibers
b. SA Node to the Pulmonary Seminlunar Valves
c. AV Node to the Bundle of His
d. AV Node to the SA Node
a. SA Node to the Purkinje muscle fibers
Mr. K is 57 years old and has been recently diagnosed with hypertension which is also affecting his kidney function. As a physician which group of medication will you prescribe for Mr. K?

a. Antidiuretics
b. Losartan (Angiotensin II blocker)
c. K+ tablets
d. Amlodipine (calcium channel blocker)
e. both b and d
e. both b and d
Circle of Willis is an example of ___

a. venous anatomoses
b. portal system
c. arteriovenous anasomoses
d. arterial anastomoses
d. arterial anastomoses
The blood vessel (also known as the resistance vessels) that play the most important role in the regulation of blood flow to a tissue and blood pressure are the

a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. veins
d. venules
e. capillaries
b. arterioles