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290 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Q: A Cholesteatoma
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A: 1) Occurs in the middle ear
2) May perforate the eardrum 3) Is usually accompanied by a constant odorous discharge |
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Q: Changes is either stiffness or mass occur when the normal middle ear function is altered by disease or trauma causing
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A: A feeling of stuffiness or a complaint of hearing in a barrel
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Q: Otosclerosis
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A: 1) Occurs more often in women than men
2) Occurs more often in caucasians than other races 3) Appears to be inherited |
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Q: Most dysfunctions of the outer or middle ear cause a
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A: conductive loss
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Q: A plastic or steel strut replaces the stapes during a
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A: stapedectomy
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Q: Otitis media may occur with
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A: fluid in the middle ear
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Q: Treatment for chronic otitis media may include
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A: 1) Antibiotics
2) Inflation of the Eustachian tube 3) Myringotomy |
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Q: A radiacal mastiodectomy includes removal of
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A: ossicular chain, mastoid
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Q: The ossicualr chain is supported and suspended by
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A: stapedius, tensor tympani, and ligaments
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Q: The ear, due to its physical characteristcis, enhances which frequencies
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A: 2,000 - 5,000Hz
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Q: In a cross section of the cochlea, the minimum number of rows of hair cells you can see is
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A: 4
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Q: The total number of neural fibers or neurons in the human auditory nerve is about
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A: 30,000
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Q: The basilar membrane separates
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A: the scala media and the scala tympani
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Q: The scala tympani is filled with
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A: perilymph
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Q: The base of the cochlea
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A: begins at the oval window
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Q: The fibers of the auditory nerve, at the point of maximum stimulation of the basilar membrane, discharge and recover at a rate of approximately
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A: up to 1Khz identical to the stimulus frequency
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Q: The cochlea, acting as a frequency analyzer, distributes acoustic stimuli to places along the basilar membranes according to frequency. This forms the basis of a hypothesis called the
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A: place theory
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Q: Each of the semi-circular canals
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A: 1) Are oriented at 90 degree to one another
2) Contain perilymph and endolymph 3) Detect positioning and balance |
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Q: Collections of nerve fibers are called
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A: ganglia and nuclei
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Q: Afferent fibers
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A: transmit from the cochlea to the brain
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Q: Which of the following is a result of tissue and structure damage
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A: 1) A threshold shift
2) Distortion of perception of frequencies 3) Disturbance of perception of loudness |
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Q: A sensorineural hearing loss is due to a disorder in the
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A: inner ear
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Q: A symptom of recruitment is
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A: intolerance for loud sounds
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Q: Malingering is a category of
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A: non-organic loss
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Q: Meniere's syndrome consists of
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A: tinnitus, vertigo and hearing loss
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Q: An organic disorder is when there is damage to
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A: 1) The hearing mechanism
2) The neural pathways 3) The brain |
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Q: Loudness recruitment
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A: Refers to abnormal loudness growth of clients with sensorineural hearing
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Q: Tinnitus is
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A: often managed by hearing instruments or tinnitus maskers
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Q: A characteristic of a conductive loss is
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A: a soft spoken patient
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Q: Which is not a characteristic of a sensorineural loss
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A: hearing better in noise than in quiet
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Q: A dial on the audiometer to control the decibels of output is called
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A: 1)A hearing level dial
2)An attenuator dial |
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Q: Audiometric zero for pure tones is higher than the standard reference level by about
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A: differs at each frequency
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Q: ANSI letters stand for
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A: American National Standards Institute
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Q: The audiometer is designed so that zero on the attenuator dial
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A: represents the level of normal hearing for that frequency
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Q: By air conduction, sound energy changes forms in which of the following manners
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A: acounstic energy, mechanical energy, hydraulic energy, electrical energy to chemical energy (AMHEC)
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Q: The normal ear responds to a range of frequencies from
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A: 20 - 20,000 Hz
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Q: Sound waves, during bone conduction, transmit from the
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A: skull to the cochlea
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Q: Which of the following describes a Phon
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A: A unit of measurement when comparing the loudness of one frequency to another frequency
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Q: routine hearing testing should be performed
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A: in a sound controlled environment
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Q: Audiometric zero is
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A: 1)0 dB Hearing Level
2)0 dB HL 3)The level where normal ears can hear at every frequency |
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Q: In Pure Tone testing, threshold means
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A: The lowest intensity the client hears 50% of the time
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A: What is the meaning of 40 dB threshold re: audiometric zero, at 500 Hz
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A: subject could barely hear a 500 Hz tone at 40 dB about 50% of the time
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Q: The problems produced by excessive ambient noise are
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A: greater for the lower frequencies than the higher frequencies
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Q: Before testing is done
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A: the client's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope
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Q: The descending technique in pure tone audiometry is preferred because it
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A: is easier to hear when a sound stops than when it begins
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Q: Begin testing with the 1000 Hz tone becasue it
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A: has good test re-test reliability
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Q: The symbols used in the audiogram for air conduction are
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A: uniform worldwide
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Q: Individuals with a noise induced hearing impairment can have a 'V' notch at which frequency
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A: 1) 3000
2) 4000 and/or 3) 6000 Hz |
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Q: The loss of acoustic energy as it travels from the test ear to the non-test ear is a definition of
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A: interaural attenuation
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Q: To begin testing for air or bone conduction thresholds, tests should begin at which frequency
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A: 1000 Hz
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Q: If the outer and middle ear parts are normal
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A: air thresholds will equal the bone thresholds
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Q: In bone conduction testing, the receiver should be
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A: placed at the most sensitive spot on the mastoid of the test ear
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Q: Sounds from the bone conduction receiver may stimulate the non-test ear at
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A: 10 dB or less
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Q: A source of information that helps to identify which ear is responding to bone conduction stimuli is
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A: 1) Tympanometry
2) Acoustic reflex testing 3) Bone conduction with masking |
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Q: Bone conduction testing directly stimulates
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A: the cochlea
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Most conductive losses
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Are medically correctable
Display a breakdown or obstruction in the middle ear Display good discrimination |
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Q: Ambient noise in the environment during bone conduction testing will
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A: Affect the test results in the lower freqeuencies
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Q: During the testing process, it is best to test bone conduction
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A: after air conduction testing
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Q: A conductive loss may be caused by
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A: 1)Perforations of the tympanic membrane
2)Immobile middle ear ossicles 3)Otitis media |
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Q: Bone conduction thresholds worse than air conduction threshold may be caused by
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A: 1) Poor placement of the vibrator
2) A skull fracture 3) Thickness of the skull |
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Q: Sound being presented to one ear and then routed to the opposite ear is known as
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A: 1) Cross hearing
2) Shadow hearing 3) Transcranial hearing |
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Q: When the better ear 'answers' for the poorer ear what occurs?
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A: shadow curve
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Which noise is best for masking during pure tone air and bone conduction testing?
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narrow band noise
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Q: Effective masking may be described as
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A: 1) An increased masking noise that does not shift the threshold tone
2) A formula method to determine how much masking noise is appropriate 3) A psychoacoustic method like the one proposed by Hood |
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Q: Masking is performed during air conduction testing when
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A: 1) a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the better ear and the poorer ear
2) A 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the poorer ear and the bone coudction threshold of the better ear |
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Q: Masking is performed during bone conduction testing whenever
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A: a 15 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear
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Q: The occlusion effect occurs during
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A: bone conduction testing causing threshold to shift due to headphones being placed over the ears
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Q: A masking dilemma occurs when
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A: 1)It is impossible to mask
2)The patient displays a bilateral conductive loss 3)Maksing cannot be completed due to overmasking |
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Q: Undermasking is defined as
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A: occurring more often during air conduction testing
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Q: Central masking can effect a threshold by
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A: 5 dB
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Q: In a sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction thresholds are
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A: the same as bone conduction thresholds
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Q: an air-bone gap means the
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A: air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds
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Q: a sensorineural component is the difference between
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A: BC threshold and the range of normal hearing
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Q: a pure conductive loss shows
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A: All bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
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Q: in a purely conductive loss
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A: sound is reduced before its arrival at the inner ear
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Q: a mixed loss exhibits
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A: 1)a sensorineural component
2) a conductive component |
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Q: An audiogram with less loss at the high and low frequencies than the middle frequency region is classified as a
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A: trough-shaped curve
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Q: Pure Tone Average estimates
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A: SRT
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Q: To calculate PTA in a hearing loss when thresholds drop 15-20 dB or more at any or all frequencies
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A: add the 2 frequencies with the least loss and divide by 2
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Q: PTA describes the following audiogram classification fairly accurately
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A: 1) flat loss
2) fragmentary audiogram |
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Q: Although pure tones sound artificial to us, they have the advantage of
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A: Measuring a specific frequency without involvement of other frequencies
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Q: Speech Reception Threshold
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A: is a level above SDT by about 8-10 dB
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Q: Dynamic Range is the usable range of earing between
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A: SRT and UCL
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Q: The Most Comfortable Level is
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A: 1) About 65 dB SPL for normal ears
2) About 45 dB HL for normal ears |
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Q: The range between threshold and MCL
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A: differs at each frequency
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Q: a patient with a conductive loss has
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A: the same dynamic range as normal ears
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Q: When patients have a sensorineural loss, MCL
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A: retains a relationship with the lower boundary
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Q: Recruitment is
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A: common in patients with cochlear losses
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Q: When a patient has normal pure tone thresholds of 0 dB HL across frequencies, it is difficult to accurately measure
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A: SAT
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Q: When a patient has a large conductive component, it is difficult to accurately measure
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A: UCL
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Q: Speech discrimination test
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A: approximate a sample of speech sounds in an ordinary conversation
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Q: The patient has pure tone air conduction thresholds of 40 dB HL at each frequency. If the patient has a conductive hearing loss, his MCL would be approximately
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A: 80 dB HL or above
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Q: Discriminating complex sounds depend on
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A: timbre
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Q: In a complex sound, the fundamental frequency is the
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A: loudest frequency
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Q: We recognize the different vowel sounds because of variations in
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A: timbre
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Q: a formant is
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A: a concentration of energy around certain frequencies
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Q: the most important energy for recognizing speech sounds are
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A: second and third formants
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Q: the upward spread of masking occurs when
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A: a low frequency sound masks out a high frequency sound
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Q: Masking is required for discrimination tests when
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A: masking was used for air conduction test
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Q: Binaural testing
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A: helps decide which ear to fit
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Q: Tympanometry identifies
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A: a measure of the dynamic compliance of the TM
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Q: By convention, the range of pressures exerted in tympanometry range from
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A: +200mm (H2O) to -200mm (H20)
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Q: the tympanogram measures
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A: the intensity of the sound in the cavity between the probe tip and the TM
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Q: the point of maximum compliance in a tympanogram represents
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A: the point at which the pressure exerted through the probe tip exactly matches the pressure within the middle ear
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Q: a "0"mm (H20) pressure reading means
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A: that no pressure is exerted on the TM
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Q: this figure represents what type of tympanogram
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A: type A
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Q: this figure represents what type of tympanogram
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A: type B
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Q: this figure represents what type of tympanogram
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A: type C
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Q: the configuration and height of the tympanogram can be a factor in deciding the proper matrix for the fitting of a hearing aid
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A: a high type A tells us to decrease the output by 2-3 dB
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Q: Tympanometry is effective in identifying
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A: 1) Middle ear pathologies
2) Cochlear pathologies 3) VIIIth cranial nerve pathologies |
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Q: sound cannot travel through the following medium or mediums?
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A: vacuum
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Q: any complex sound can be broken down into individual frequencies by a technique known as?
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A: Fourier spectral analysis
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Q: how many octaves occur from 125 Hz to 2000 HZ
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A: 4 octaves
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Q: the quality or timbre of a sound is a property that depends on
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A: the relative strength of each frequency
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Q: the speed of sound in air in feet per second is
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A: 1100
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Q: what does the term "67 dB" mean
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A: it is meaningless without a reference level
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Q: the decibel is
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A: a ratio between two intensities
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Q: the weakest sound normal human ears can hear in the most sensitive frequency range of the ear is an effective sound pressure of about
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A: 0.0002 dynes/cm
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Q: a formant is
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A: a frequency region within a complex tone where certain harmonics have relatively large energy
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Q: the normal human earcanal resonance is in the approximate range of
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A: 2500 - 4000 Hz
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q: The harmonics of speech reinforce some frequencies more than others. The reinforced frequencies are
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A: formants
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Q: Vowles differ from consonants in that they
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A: use more open vocal cord voicing
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Q: When tilting the frequency response the last number in a matrix, ie 110/37/15 means
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A: the 15 dB difference occurs between 500 Hz and the first peak
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Q: The patient's MCL on a speech circuit of the audiometer is usually judged on
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A: the volume at 1000 Hz
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Q: ANSI developed the Articulation Indes (AI) to express
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A: speech clarity
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Q: Positive reinforcement involves
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A: presenting a tone that is ony inaduible without the instrument on
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Q: Our quest of improving speech understanding begins by studying
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A: speech production
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Q: Most auditory systems follow a power law. This logarithmic concept is
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A: a 6 dB increase in sound pressure doubles the loudness
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Q: Sones compare
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A: loudness up frequency
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Q: Mels measure
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A: pitch
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Q: Dexterity of a patient's fingers enter into the choice of instruments because of difficulty in
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A: 1) Inserting the earmold into the ear
2) Replacing the batteries 3) Adjusting the volume or any of the controls of the hearing aid |
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Q: A bone conduction instrument should be used when
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A: the patinet has chronic otitis media
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Q: A basic problem for clients with an asymmetrical hearing loss is
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A: 1) Discriminating speech from the side of the head with no usable hearing
2) An inability to locate sound 3) Hearing in the presence of noise |
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Q: Pressure Measuring Instruments (PMIs) are
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A: built to the sound pressure standard of 20 micropascals
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Q: Properly selected hearing instruments should allow
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A: imporved communication ability of normal conversational speech in noise
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Q: Slope of loss can determine a successful fitting. A most favorable slope is
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A: flat or gradually falling
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Q: Calculations of amplified sound to patients MCL do not include
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A: reserve gain
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Q: Calculating prescription formulas are compared to
|
A: specification sheets
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Q: Some patients with binaural amplification can experience
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A: degradation effect
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Q: The following fitting requires amplification to two ears
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A: binaural
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Q: Functional gain testing with CIC instruments is
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A: simple for the patient to understand with less test-retest variability than conventional sound field testing
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Q: With real ear measurement testing, which of the following is true
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A: the probe should be within 5 mm of the eardrum in order to avoid standing waves
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Q: The deeper microphone placement offers what advantage
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A: natural high frequency emphasis between 2700 and 4000 Hz
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Q: The deeper receiver placement offers what advantage
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A: increased headroom with undistorted output
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Q: CICs offer a reduction in feedback for all but the following reasons
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A: increased headroom with undistorted output
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Q: The Occlusion Effect is due to
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A: increase in bone-conduction sound for frequencies below 2000 Hz
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Q: When the wind is coming from directly ahead, wind noise is reduced in CICs by the following amount
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A: 23 dB
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Q: All but one of the following are considered possible disadvantages of CIC fittings
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A: introduction of programmable CICs
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Q: Earmold impressions for CICs should
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A: extend at least 2 mm beyond the second bend using medium viscosity, silicon material
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Q: With CIC fittings, which of the following frequency modifications should be made
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A: less high frequency amplification should be provided due to the deeper microphone placement
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Q: The Zeta Noice Blocker was
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A: a successful early attempt at digital noise reduction technology
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Q: The first commercially available Digital Signal Processing hearing instrument
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A: included a body-worn electronic processor
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Q: A programmable hearing instrument iwht 4 channels and 1 memory could be considered a ________ programmable hearing instrument
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A: class 3
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Q: In digital signal processing, a set of mathematical steps involving muliplication, addition, and subtraction is referred to as
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A: algorithm
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Q: The number 512 would have a binary code of
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A: 1000000000
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Q: The sampling rate
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A: 1) Refers to how often the waveform amplitude is measured
2) Has a direct bearing on the frequency bandwidth of the hearing instrument |
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Q: Quantization is related to
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A: number of bits
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Q: The number of bits impact the
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A: dynamic range of the hearing instrument
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Q: Imaging occurs during the
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A: digital to analog conversion stage
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Q: Which of the following is not an advantage attributable to digital signal processing in hearing instruments
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A: use of active filters for frequency response shaping
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Q: The Zeta Noice Blocker was
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A: a successful early attempt at digital noise reduction technology
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Q: The first commercially available Digital Signal Processing hearing instrument
|
A: included a body-worn electronic processor
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Q: A programmable hearing instrument iwht 4 channels and 1 memory could be considered a ________ programmable hearing instrument
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A: class 3
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Q: In digital signal processing, a set of mathematical steps involving muliplication, addition, and subtraction is referred to as
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A: algorithm
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Q: The number 512 would have a binary code of
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A: 1000000000
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Q: The sampling rate
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A: 1) Refers to how often the waveform amplitude is measured
2) Has a direct bearing on the frequency bandwidth of the hearing instrument |
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Q: Quantization is related to
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A: number of bits
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Q: The number of bits impact the
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A: dynamic range of the hearing instrument
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Q: Imaging occurs during the
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A: digital to analog conversion stage
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Q: Which of the following is not an advantage attributable to digital signal processing in hearing instruments
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A: use of active filters for frequency response shaping
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Q: When you cup your hand behind the ear, sound
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A: increase by 5-8 dB
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Q: The first patent for a telephone type hearing instrument was in
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A: 1892
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Q: The first electric hearing instrument
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A: collected and amplified sound
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Q: The carbon granule microphone
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A: caused static and fading with body movement
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Q: Desk and suitcase sized hearing instruments, popular in the 1920's had more gain and clarity because of
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Vacuum tube amplifiers
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Q: Wearable instruments were a result of
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A: the miniature vacuum tube
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Q: Crystal microphones and receivers
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A: are very fragile
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Q: A FET changed the high impedance problems of the
|
A: ceramic microphone
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Q: Magnetic microphones
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A: have a good frequency response in the speech range
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Q: The miniature vacuum tube was introduced in about
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A: 1938
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Q: The three major concepts in the use of electricity are
|
A: current, voltage and resistance
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Q: A capacitor
|
A: blocks the low frequencies and passes the high frequencies
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Q: A resistor
|
A: restricts the flow of electrons
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Q: "Energy can not be created or destroyed" is
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A: the law of conservation of energy
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Q: The following is not a transducer
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A: volume control
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Q: Electrcal energy uses the atom. Atoms
|
A: are electronically neutral
|
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Q: Part of the basic law of electrical energy is
|
A: protons attract electrons
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Q: To produce current
|
A: electrons move from atom to atom
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Q: A greater flow of current produces
|
A: more volume
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Q: Semi-conductors act like a conductor with the application of
|
A: heat, light or an electric field
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Q: The function of a microphone is to
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A: convert acoustic energy into electrical energy
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Q: Coupling in a hearing instrument refers to connecting
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A: one stage of an amplifier to the next
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Q: The "T" position on a hearing aid switch can be used to
|
A: 1) Amplify a telephone conversation
2) Couple a hearing aid into a loop inductor system 3) Couple directly into the audio of a radio or TV set with a separate induction coil |
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Q: The following components can change or modify the frequency response of a hearing instrument
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A: a microphone
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Q: The following is a transducer
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A: electret microphone
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Q: Amplifiers
|
A: generate distortion
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Q: A linear amplifier has a 1:1 relationship. This means that if you rotate the volume control on a linear aid, you change
|
A: the gain and the output
|
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Q: Hard peak clipping occurs in a
|
A: class A amplifier
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Q: Peak rounding
|
A: causes harmonic distortion above the knee
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Q: There are two types of compression - input and output. The difference is
|
A: the placement of the feedback loop
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Q: The signal/noise ratio of a hearing aid response is
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A: the difference in decibels between the signal and the noise in the system
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Q: Acoustic gain is measured in
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A: decibels SPL
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Q: High Frequency Average (HFA) full-on gain is measured by averaging the gain at
|
A: 1000, 1600 and 2500 Hz
|
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Q: High Frequency Average SSPL 90 (HFA SSPL 90) refers to
|
A: high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input
|
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Q: The Saturation Sound Pressure level should
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A: directly relate to the client's UCL
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Q: ANSI standards can compare
|
A: one instrument to another
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Q: The SSPL 90 curve measures
|
A: all the tones across frequency
|
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Q: All ANSI instrument measurements are
|
A: SPL
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Q: Input sound pressure is measured
|
A: at the microphone opening of the hearing instrument
|
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Q: Gain control is another name for
|
A: volume wheel
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Q: Residual hearing, in combination with the hearing instrument, will
|
A: help improve communication
|
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Q: At night, the battery in the instrument
|
A: can be left in the open battery door
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Q: A BTE instrument, properly attached
|
A: fits the contour of the ear
|
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Q: An advantage of a CIC fitting is
|
A: Reduced acoustic feedback during phone use
Decreased wind noise |
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Q: When adjusting the volume control, the patient must
|
A: find an area on the control where sounds are comfortable
|
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Q: When a standard instrument has a telephone coil, the patient
|
A: switches to the "T" position, then needs to increase the volume control
|
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Q: Advise the patient to wear the instrument
|
A: regularly on a daily basis
|
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Q: Binaural amplification allows the patient to
|
A: wear both instruments at a quieter volume setting
|
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Q: The patient maintains the instrument by
|
A: keeping it clean and free of wax
|
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Q: Teach the patient to
|
A: operate the OTM switches and noise switches
|
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Q: Basic verification involves
|
A: checking MCL and UCL in quiet and nosie
|
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Q: Verification procedures
|
A: check the accuracy of your fitting
|
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Q: An effective verification is
|
A: a measurable improvement in communication
|
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Q: Functional gain of the instrument
|
A: is one method of fitting verification
|
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Q: Speech tests measured through the audiometer circuit
|
A: are 20 dB less because of ANSI Standards
|
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Q: Ideally, when presenting recorded words in noise
|
A: the words are 10 dB louder than the noise
|
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Q: Sound field is
|
A: a controlled environment
|
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Q: Most patients use enough gain in the hearing instrument to understand quiet speech at a level of
|
A: 55 dB SPL
|
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Q: When UCL's are not balanced, a loud signal is perceived as
|
A: lateralizing to the ear with the higher output
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Q: The following measurements use SPL as a reference
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A: Probe microphones
Sound field aided thresholds ANSI specifications |
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Q: Which of the following is not a coupler used for measuring hearing aid performance
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A: Zwisks Ear Simulator
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Q: A Real Ear Measurement System incorporates all of the following
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A: signal generator, reference microphone, measurement microphone, display device
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Q: REUR Measurements are taken in
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A: an open human ear canal
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Q: At what distance from the Tympanic Membrane should the end of the probe tube be placed
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A: within 5 mm
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Q: When testing compression hearing aids, which signal type is best to use
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A: Fast Fourier Transform
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Q: Loud speaker placement should be
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A: 1 meter at 45 azimuth
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Q: Which of the following is not included in correct test protocols
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A: plugging the hearing aid vent to control feedback
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Q: RESR Measurements for compression hearing aids have been replaced with
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A: a family of curves starting at a soft level and gradually increasing in intensity
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Q: Which of the following Real Ear Targets has been documented to be the best for Non-Linear Hearing Aids
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A: none have been proven to be better than any other
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Q: Insertion Loss occurs when
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A: the level of the ear canal with a hearing aid inserted is less than the input level
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Q: Follow-up care is a cariety of procedures which comprise
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A: Long term management of the client's needs and use of amplification
A process which never ends while the client is under the care of the HIS Bringing out the best that the instrument can give |
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Q: Emphasizing counseling to maximize amplification benefits is
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A: A program that should start before the fitting
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Q: Aural rehabilitation
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A: continues for as long as the patient wears an instrument
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Q: Patients are always aware of
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A: the way they hear today
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Q: When the patient experiences difficulties, one of the problems could be
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A: 1) A procedural flaw in the original hearing loss assessment
2) An error in judgement in hearing instrument selection 3) Misestimation of some aspect of the hearing problem |
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Q: User satisfaction must include
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A: patient preference
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Q: Client acceptance involves counseling on
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A: Emotional and social concerns
Attitude and motivation |
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Q: Friends and family help patients wearing hearing instruments to hear better by
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A: combining visual clues
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Q: Your counseling avoids
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A: unreasonable expectations
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Q: Family and friends can have a negative influence on the patient by
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A: expressing frustration that the patient does not have "normal" hearing
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Q: When a hearing aid sounds weak, hollow, distorted, or intermittent, the first check is
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A: a weak battery
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Q: An otoscope helps when cleaning the
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A: receiver
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Q: When a hearing aid is dead, you can check receiver and microphone function by
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A: turning the instrument to telecoil
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Q: A hearing aid that works with the battery door slightly open but shuts off when you close the door has
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A: wires touching the battery
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Q: You CANNOT use feedback checks when
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A: checking the telephone coil
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Q: An earhook damper is plugged when during a feedback check
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A: the instrument feeds back ony when the coupler is removed
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Q: A sign of a dirty volume control is
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A: intermittent static
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Q: Reductin of background noise can be improved by
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A: directional microphones
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Q: When a new hearing instrument has feedback at the patient's comfortable level the problem is usually
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A: manufacturer's error
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Q: An ITE or canal aid has internal feedback when
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A: the receiver tubing is not completely sealed to the sound bore
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Q: The adult ear canal
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A: rises upward and forward, then descends to the drum
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Q: The isthmus is
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A: where the canal narrows to enter the temporal bone
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Q: The pinna and external canal together
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A: 1) gather and reinforce the acoustical signals
2) with the irregular shape of the auricle, cause increases and decreases 3) forms a resonating tube |
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Q: The average resonant frequency of the ear canal plus concha is
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A: 2700 Hz
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Q: The dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the
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A: tympanic membrane
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Q: The ear canal contains
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A: cilia, ceruminous glands, sebaceous glands
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Q: The Vagus Nerve (Xth Cranial) is found
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A: along the bottom of the ear canal
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Q: Which of the following terms is not part of the tympanic membrane
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A: crus
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Q: An otoscopic inspection should reveal
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A: a view of the pearly white tympanic membrane
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Q: Which of the following is part of the pinna
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A: 1) tragus
2) intertragal notch 3) triangular fossa |
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Q: Atresia refers to
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A: a closure of the external auditory canal
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Q: Perforation of the eardrum can be caused by
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A: 1) an infection
2) a fracture of the temporal bone 3) a nearby explosion |
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Q: The following are types of hearing loss
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A: 1) conductive
2) central 3) sensorineural |
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Q: Conductive losses may be caused by
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A: 1) a prolapsed canal
2) impacted cerumen |
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Q: Which surgical technique repairs the tympanic membrane
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A: myringoplasty
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Q: A cholesteatoma can be described as
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A: a pouch of skin filled with epithelial debris
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Q: When an excess of cerumen or a blockage of cerumen is detected, the hearing aid specialist should
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A: refer the patient to a physician
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Q: A swollen ear may be caused by
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A: 1) eczema
2) otitis externa 3) dermatitis |
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Q: Tympanosclerosis may be described as
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A: calcium deposits
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Q: A tympanic membrane perforation may cause a
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A: conductive loss
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Q: Theorectically, the increase in sound pressure provided by the middle ear structure is about
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A: 27 dB
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Q: The footplate of the stapes fits into the
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A: oval window
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Q: A type "A" tympanogram would indicate
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A: normal pressure and compliance
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Q: The difference in area size between the tympanic membrane and the footplate of the stapes increasing the sound pressure at the footplate is
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A: the transfer function or aerial ratio
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Q: The middle ear cavity contains
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A: annular ligament, malleus, stapes and tensor tympani
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Q: The middle ear system is often referred to as
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A: an impedance matching transformer
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Q: The middle ear cavity, as a transducer, changes energy from one form to another. The energy change is from
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A: acoustic energy to mechanical energy to hydraulic energy (AMH)
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Q: The middle ear muscles contract, resulting in
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A: an acoustic reflex
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Q: The Eustachian tube begins in the lower portion of the tympanic cavity and ends at the
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A: nasopharynx
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Q: The Eustachian tube of a child is
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A: 1) straight
2) short 3) horizontal |