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290 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Q: A Cholesteatoma
A: 1) Occurs in the middle ear
2) May perforate the eardrum
3) Is usually accompanied by a constant odorous discharge
Q: Changes is either stiffness or mass occur when the normal middle ear function is altered by disease or trauma causing
A: A feeling of stuffiness or a complaint of hearing in a barrel
Q: Otosclerosis
A: 1) Occurs more often in women than men
2) Occurs more often in caucasians than other races
3) Appears to be inherited
Q: Most dysfunctions of the outer or middle ear cause a
A: conductive loss
Q: A plastic or steel strut replaces the stapes during a
A: stapedectomy
Q: Otitis media may occur with
A: fluid in the middle ear
Q: Treatment for chronic otitis media may include
A: 1) Antibiotics
2) Inflation of the Eustachian tube
3) Myringotomy
Q: A radiacal mastiodectomy includes removal of
A: ossicular chain, mastoid
Q: The ossicualr chain is supported and suspended by
A: stapedius, tensor tympani, and ligaments
Q: The ear, due to its physical characteristcis, enhances which frequencies
A: 2,000 - 5,000Hz
Q: In a cross section of the cochlea, the minimum number of rows of hair cells you can see is
A: 4
Q: The total number of neural fibers or neurons in the human auditory nerve is about
A: 30,000
Q: The basilar membrane separates
A: the scala media and the scala tympani
Q: The scala tympani is filled with
A: perilymph
Q: The base of the cochlea
A: begins at the oval window
Q: The fibers of the auditory nerve, at the point of maximum stimulation of the basilar membrane, discharge and recover at a rate of approximately
A: up to 1Khz identical to the stimulus frequency
Q: The cochlea, acting as a frequency analyzer, distributes acoustic stimuli to places along the basilar membranes according to frequency. This forms the basis of a hypothesis called the
A: place theory
Q: Each of the semi-circular canals
A: 1) Are oriented at 90 degree to one another
2) Contain perilymph and endolymph
3) Detect positioning and balance
Q: Collections of nerve fibers are called
A: ganglia and nuclei
Q: Afferent fibers
A: transmit from the cochlea to the brain
Q: Which of the following is a result of tissue and structure damage
A: 1) A threshold shift
2) Distortion of perception of frequencies
3) Disturbance of perception of loudness
Q: A sensorineural hearing loss is due to a disorder in the
A: inner ear
Q: A symptom of recruitment is
A: intolerance for loud sounds
Q: Malingering is a category of
A: non-organic loss
Q: Meniere's syndrome consists of
A: tinnitus, vertigo and hearing loss
Q: An organic disorder is when there is damage to
A: 1) The hearing mechanism
2) The neural pathways
3) The brain
Q: Loudness recruitment
A: Refers to abnormal loudness growth of clients with sensorineural hearing
Q: Tinnitus is
A: often managed by hearing instruments or tinnitus maskers
Q: A characteristic of a conductive loss is
A: a soft spoken patient
Q: Which is not a characteristic of a sensorineural loss
A: hearing better in noise than in quiet
Q: A dial on the audiometer to control the decibels of output is called
A: 1)A hearing level dial
2)An attenuator dial
Q: Audiometric zero for pure tones is higher than the standard reference level by about
A: differs at each frequency
Q: ANSI letters stand for
A: American National Standards Institute
Q: The audiometer is designed so that zero on the attenuator dial
A: represents the level of normal hearing for that frequency
Q: By air conduction, sound energy changes forms in which of the following manners
A: acounstic energy, mechanical energy, hydraulic energy, electrical energy to chemical energy (AMHEC)
Q: The normal ear responds to a range of frequencies from
A: 20 - 20,000 Hz
Q: Sound waves, during bone conduction, transmit from the
A: skull to the cochlea
Q: Which of the following describes a Phon
A: A unit of measurement when comparing the loudness of one frequency to another frequency
Q: routine hearing testing should be performed
A: in a sound controlled environment
Q: Audiometric zero is
A: 1)0 dB Hearing Level
2)0 dB HL
3)The level where normal ears can hear at every frequency
Q: In Pure Tone testing, threshold means
A: The lowest intensity the client hears 50% of the time
A: What is the meaning of 40 dB threshold re: audiometric zero, at 500 Hz
A: subject could barely hear a 500 Hz tone at 40 dB about 50% of the time
Q: The problems produced by excessive ambient noise are
A: greater for the lower frequencies than the higher frequencies
Q: Before testing is done
A: the client's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope
Q: The descending technique in pure tone audiometry is preferred because it
A: is easier to hear when a sound stops than when it begins
Q: Begin testing with the 1000 Hz tone becasue it
A: has good test re-test reliability
Q: The symbols used in the audiogram for air conduction are
A: uniform worldwide
Q: Individuals with a noise induced hearing impairment can have a 'V' notch at which frequency
A: 1) 3000
2) 4000 and/or
3) 6000 Hz
Q: The loss of acoustic energy as it travels from the test ear to the non-test ear is a definition of
A: interaural attenuation
Q: To begin testing for air or bone conduction thresholds, tests should begin at which frequency
A: 1000 Hz
Q: If the outer and middle ear parts are normal
A: air thresholds will equal the bone thresholds
Q: In bone conduction testing, the receiver should be
A: placed at the most sensitive spot on the mastoid of the test ear
Q: Sounds from the bone conduction receiver may stimulate the non-test ear at
A: 10 dB or less
Q: A source of information that helps to identify which ear is responding to bone conduction stimuli is
A: 1) Tympanometry
2) Acoustic reflex testing
3) Bone conduction with masking
Q: Bone conduction testing directly stimulates
A: the cochlea
Most conductive losses
Are medically correctable
Display a breakdown or obstruction in the middle ear
Display good discrimination
Q: Ambient noise in the environment during bone conduction testing will
A: Affect the test results in the lower freqeuencies
Q: During the testing process, it is best to test bone conduction
A: after air conduction testing
Q: A conductive loss may be caused by
A: 1)Perforations of the tympanic membrane
2)Immobile middle ear ossicles
3)Otitis media
Q: Bone conduction thresholds worse than air conduction threshold may be caused by
A: 1) Poor placement of the vibrator
2) A skull fracture
3) Thickness of the skull
Q: Sound being presented to one ear and then routed to the opposite ear is known as
A: 1) Cross hearing
2) Shadow hearing
3) Transcranial hearing
Q: When the better ear 'answers' for the poorer ear what occurs?
A: shadow curve
Which noise is best for masking during pure tone air and bone conduction testing?
narrow band noise
Q: Effective masking may be described as
A: 1) An increased masking noise that does not shift the threshold tone
2) A formula method to determine how much masking noise is appropriate
3) A psychoacoustic method like the one proposed by Hood
Q: Masking is performed during air conduction testing when
A: 1) a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the better ear and the poorer ear
2) A 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the poorer ear and the bone coudction threshold of the better ear
Q: Masking is performed during bone conduction testing whenever
A: a 15 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear
Q: The occlusion effect occurs during
A: bone conduction testing causing threshold to shift due to headphones being placed over the ears
Q: A masking dilemma occurs when
A: 1)It is impossible to mask
2)The patient displays a bilateral conductive loss
3)Maksing cannot be completed due to overmasking
Q: Undermasking is defined as
A: occurring more often during air conduction testing
Q: Central masking can effect a threshold by
A: 5 dB
Q: In a sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction thresholds are
A: the same as bone conduction thresholds
Q: an air-bone gap means the
A: air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds
Q: a sensorineural component is the difference between
A: BC threshold and the range of normal hearing
Q: a pure conductive loss shows
A: All bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
Q: in a purely conductive loss
A: sound is reduced before its arrival at the inner ear
Q: a mixed loss exhibits
A: 1)a sensorineural component
2) a conductive component
Q: An audiogram with less loss at the high and low frequencies than the middle frequency region is classified as a
A: trough-shaped curve
Q: Pure Tone Average estimates
A: SRT
Q: To calculate PTA in a hearing loss when thresholds drop 15-20 dB or more at any or all frequencies
A: add the 2 frequencies with the least loss and divide by 2
Q: PTA describes the following audiogram classification fairly accurately
A: 1) flat loss
2) fragmentary audiogram
Q: Although pure tones sound artificial to us, they have the advantage of
A: Measuring a specific frequency without involvement of other frequencies
Q: Speech Reception Threshold
A: is a level above SDT by about 8-10 dB
Q: Dynamic Range is the usable range of earing between
A: SRT and UCL
Q: The Most Comfortable Level is
A: 1) About 65 dB SPL for normal ears
2) About 45 dB HL for normal ears
Q: The range between threshold and MCL
A: differs at each frequency
Q: a patient with a conductive loss has
A: the same dynamic range as normal ears
Q: When patients have a sensorineural loss, MCL
A: retains a relationship with the lower boundary
Q: Recruitment is
A: common in patients with cochlear losses
Q: When a patient has normal pure tone thresholds of 0 dB HL across frequencies, it is difficult to accurately measure
A: SAT
Q: When a patient has a large conductive component, it is difficult to accurately measure
A: UCL
Q: Speech discrimination test
A: approximate a sample of speech sounds in an ordinary conversation
Q: The patient has pure tone air conduction thresholds of 40 dB HL at each frequency. If the patient has a conductive hearing loss, his MCL would be approximately
A: 80 dB HL or above
Q: Discriminating complex sounds depend on
A: timbre
Q: In a complex sound, the fundamental frequency is the
A: loudest frequency
Q: We recognize the different vowel sounds because of variations in
A: timbre
Q: a formant is
A: a concentration of energy around certain frequencies
Q: the most important energy for recognizing speech sounds are
A: second and third formants
Q: the upward spread of masking occurs when
A: a low frequency sound masks out a high frequency sound
Q: Masking is required for discrimination tests when
A: masking was used for air conduction test
Q: Binaural testing
A: helps decide which ear to fit
Q: Tympanometry identifies
A: a measure of the dynamic compliance of the TM
Q: By convention, the range of pressures exerted in tympanometry range from
A: +200mm (H2O) to -200mm (H20)
Q: the tympanogram measures
A: the intensity of the sound in the cavity between the probe tip and the TM
Q: the point of maximum compliance in a tympanogram represents
A: the point at which the pressure exerted through the probe tip exactly matches the pressure within the middle ear
Q: a "0"mm (H20) pressure reading means
A: that no pressure is exerted on the TM
Q: this figure represents what type of tympanogram
A: type A
Q: this figure represents what type of tympanogram
A: type B
Q: this figure represents what type of tympanogram
A: type C
Q: the configuration and height of the tympanogram can be a factor in deciding the proper matrix for the fitting of a hearing aid
A: a high type A tells us to decrease the output by 2-3 dB
Q: Tympanometry is effective in identifying
A: 1) Middle ear pathologies
2) Cochlear pathologies
3) VIIIth cranial nerve pathologies
Q: sound cannot travel through the following medium or mediums?
A: vacuum
Q: any complex sound can be broken down into individual frequencies by a technique known as?
A: Fourier spectral analysis
Q: how many octaves occur from 125 Hz to 2000 HZ
A: 4 octaves
Q: the quality or timbre of a sound is a property that depends on
A: the relative strength of each frequency
Q: the speed of sound in air in feet per second is
A: 1100
Q: what does the term "67 dB" mean
A: it is meaningless without a reference level
Q: the decibel is
A: a ratio between two intensities
Q: the weakest sound normal human ears can hear in the most sensitive frequency range of the ear is an effective sound pressure of about
A: 0.0002 dynes/cm
Q: a formant is
A: a frequency region within a complex tone where certain harmonics have relatively large energy
Q: the normal human earcanal resonance is in the approximate range of
A: 2500 - 4000 Hz
q: The harmonics of speech reinforce some frequencies more than others. The reinforced frequencies are
A: formants
Q: Vowles differ from consonants in that they
A: use more open vocal cord voicing
Q: When tilting the frequency response the last number in a matrix, ie 110/37/15 means
A: the 15 dB difference occurs between 500 Hz and the first peak
Q: The patient's MCL on a speech circuit of the audiometer is usually judged on
A: the volume at 1000 Hz
Q: ANSI developed the Articulation Indes (AI) to express
A: speech clarity
Q: Positive reinforcement involves
A: presenting a tone that is ony inaduible without the instrument on
Q: Our quest of improving speech understanding begins by studying
A: speech production
Q: Most auditory systems follow a power law. This logarithmic concept is
A: a 6 dB increase in sound pressure doubles the loudness
Q: Sones compare
A: loudness up frequency
Q: Mels measure
A: pitch
Q: Dexterity of a patient's fingers enter into the choice of instruments because of difficulty in
A: 1) Inserting the earmold into the ear
2) Replacing the batteries
3) Adjusting the volume or any of the controls of the hearing aid
Q: A bone conduction instrument should be used when
A: the patinet has chronic otitis media
Q: A basic problem for clients with an asymmetrical hearing loss is
A: 1) Discriminating speech from the side of the head with no usable hearing
2) An inability to locate sound
3) Hearing in the presence of noise
Q: Pressure Measuring Instruments (PMIs) are
A: built to the sound pressure standard of 20 micropascals
Q: Properly selected hearing instruments should allow
A: imporved communication ability of normal conversational speech in noise
Q: Slope of loss can determine a successful fitting. A most favorable slope is
A: flat or gradually falling
Q: Calculations of amplified sound to patients MCL do not include
A: reserve gain
Q: Calculating prescription formulas are compared to
A: specification sheets
Q: Some patients with binaural amplification can experience
A: degradation effect
Q: The following fitting requires amplification to two ears
A: binaural
Q: Functional gain testing with CIC instruments is
A: simple for the patient to understand with less test-retest variability than conventional sound field testing
Q: With real ear measurement testing, which of the following is true
A: the probe should be within 5 mm of the eardrum in order to avoid standing waves
Q: The deeper microphone placement offers what advantage
A: natural high frequency emphasis between 2700 and 4000 Hz
Q: The deeper receiver placement offers what advantage
A: increased headroom with undistorted output
Q: CICs offer a reduction in feedback for all but the following reasons
A: increased headroom with undistorted output
Q: The Occlusion Effect is due to
A: increase in bone-conduction sound for frequencies below 2000 Hz
Q: When the wind is coming from directly ahead, wind noise is reduced in CICs by the following amount
A: 23 dB
Q: All but one of the following are considered possible disadvantages of CIC fittings
A: introduction of programmable CICs
Q: Earmold impressions for CICs should
A: extend at least 2 mm beyond the second bend using medium viscosity, silicon material
Q: With CIC fittings, which of the following frequency modifications should be made
A: less high frequency amplification should be provided due to the deeper microphone placement
Q: The Zeta Noice Blocker was
A: a successful early attempt at digital noise reduction technology
Q: The first commercially available Digital Signal Processing hearing instrument
A: included a body-worn electronic processor
Q: A programmable hearing instrument iwht 4 channels and 1 memory could be considered a ________ programmable hearing instrument
A: class 3
Q: In digital signal processing, a set of mathematical steps involving muliplication, addition, and subtraction is referred to as
A: algorithm
Q: The number 512 would have a binary code of
A: 1000000000
Q: The sampling rate
A: 1) Refers to how often the waveform amplitude is measured
2) Has a direct bearing on the frequency bandwidth of the hearing instrument
Q: Quantization is related to
A: number of bits
Q: The number of bits impact the
A: dynamic range of the hearing instrument
Q: Imaging occurs during the
A: digital to analog conversion stage
Q: Which of the following is not an advantage attributable to digital signal processing in hearing instruments
A: use of active filters for frequency response shaping
Q: The Zeta Noice Blocker was
A: a successful early attempt at digital noise reduction technology
Q: The first commercially available Digital Signal Processing hearing instrument
A: included a body-worn electronic processor
Q: A programmable hearing instrument iwht 4 channels and 1 memory could be considered a ________ programmable hearing instrument
A: class 3
Q: In digital signal processing, a set of mathematical steps involving muliplication, addition, and subtraction is referred to as
A: algorithm
Q: The number 512 would have a binary code of
A: 1000000000
Q: The sampling rate
A: 1) Refers to how often the waveform amplitude is measured
2) Has a direct bearing on the frequency bandwidth of the hearing instrument
Q: Quantization is related to
A: number of bits
Q: The number of bits impact the
A: dynamic range of the hearing instrument
Q: Imaging occurs during the
A: digital to analog conversion stage
Q: Which of the following is not an advantage attributable to digital signal processing in hearing instruments
A: use of active filters for frequency response shaping
Q: When you cup your hand behind the ear, sound
A: increase by 5-8 dB
Q: The first patent for a telephone type hearing instrument was in
A: 1892
Q: The first electric hearing instrument
A: collected and amplified sound
Q: The carbon granule microphone
A: caused static and fading with body movement
Q: Desk and suitcase sized hearing instruments, popular in the 1920's had more gain and clarity because of
Vacuum tube amplifiers
Q: Wearable instruments were a result of
A: the miniature vacuum tube
Q: Crystal microphones and receivers
A: are very fragile
Q: A FET changed the high impedance problems of the
A: ceramic microphone
Q: Magnetic microphones
A: have a good frequency response in the speech range
Q: The miniature vacuum tube was introduced in about
A: 1938
Q: The three major concepts in the use of electricity are
A: current, voltage and resistance
Q: A capacitor
A: blocks the low frequencies and passes the high frequencies
Q: A resistor
A: restricts the flow of electrons
Q: "Energy can not be created or destroyed" is
A: the law of conservation of energy
Q: The following is not a transducer
A: volume control
Q: Electrcal energy uses the atom. Atoms
A: are electronically neutral
Q: Part of the basic law of electrical energy is
A: protons attract electrons
Q: To produce current
A: electrons move from atom to atom
Q: A greater flow of current produces
A: more volume
Q: Semi-conductors act like a conductor with the application of
A: heat, light or an electric field
Q: The function of a microphone is to
A: convert acoustic energy into electrical energy
Q: Coupling in a hearing instrument refers to connecting
A: one stage of an amplifier to the next
Q: The "T" position on a hearing aid switch can be used to
A: 1) Amplify a telephone conversation
2) Couple a hearing aid into a loop inductor system
3) Couple directly into the audio of a radio or TV set with a separate induction coil
Q: The following components can change or modify the frequency response of a hearing instrument
A: a microphone
Q: The following is a transducer
A: electret microphone
Q: Amplifiers
A: generate distortion
Q: A linear amplifier has a 1:1 relationship. This means that if you rotate the volume control on a linear aid, you change
A: the gain and the output
Q: Hard peak clipping occurs in a
A: class A amplifier
Q: Peak rounding
A: causes harmonic distortion above the knee
Q: There are two types of compression - input and output. The difference is
A: the placement of the feedback loop
Q: The signal/noise ratio of a hearing aid response is
A: the difference in decibels between the signal and the noise in the system
Q: Acoustic gain is measured in
A: decibels SPL
Q: High Frequency Average (HFA) full-on gain is measured by averaging the gain at
A: 1000, 1600 and 2500 Hz
Q: High Frequency Average SSPL 90 (HFA SSPL 90) refers to
A: high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input
Q: The Saturation Sound Pressure level should
A: directly relate to the client's UCL
Q: ANSI standards can compare
A: one instrument to another
Q: The SSPL 90 curve measures
A: all the tones across frequency
Q: All ANSI instrument measurements are
A: SPL
Q: Input sound pressure is measured
A: at the microphone opening of the hearing instrument
Q: Gain control is another name for
A: volume wheel
Q: Residual hearing, in combination with the hearing instrument, will
A: help improve communication
Q: At night, the battery in the instrument
A: can be left in the open battery door
Q: A BTE instrument, properly attached
A: fits the contour of the ear
Q: An advantage of a CIC fitting is
A: Reduced acoustic feedback during phone use
Decreased wind noise
Q: When adjusting the volume control, the patient must
A: find an area on the control where sounds are comfortable
Q: When a standard instrument has a telephone coil, the patient
A: switches to the "T" position, then needs to increase the volume control
Q: Advise the patient to wear the instrument
A: regularly on a daily basis
Q: Binaural amplification allows the patient to
A: wear both instruments at a quieter volume setting
Q: The patient maintains the instrument by
A: keeping it clean and free of wax
Q: Teach the patient to
A: operate the OTM switches and noise switches
Q: Basic verification involves
A: checking MCL and UCL in quiet and nosie
Q: Verification procedures
A: check the accuracy of your fitting
Q: An effective verification is
A: a measurable improvement in communication
Q: Functional gain of the instrument
A: is one method of fitting verification
Q: Speech tests measured through the audiometer circuit
A: are 20 dB less because of ANSI Standards
Q: Ideally, when presenting recorded words in noise
A: the words are 10 dB louder than the noise
Q: Sound field is
A: a controlled environment
Q: Most patients use enough gain in the hearing instrument to understand quiet speech at a level of
A: 55 dB SPL
Q: When UCL's are not balanced, a loud signal is perceived as
A: lateralizing to the ear with the higher output
Q: The following measurements use SPL as a reference
A: Probe microphones
Sound field aided thresholds
ANSI specifications
Q: Which of the following is not a coupler used for measuring hearing aid performance
A: Zwisks Ear Simulator
Q: A Real Ear Measurement System incorporates all of the following
A: signal generator, reference microphone, measurement microphone, display device
Q: REUR Measurements are taken in
A: an open human ear canal
Q: At what distance from the Tympanic Membrane should the end of the probe tube be placed
A: within 5 mm
Q: When testing compression hearing aids, which signal type is best to use
A: Fast Fourier Transform
Q: Loud speaker placement should be
A: 1 meter at 45 azimuth
Q: Which of the following is not included in correct test protocols
A: plugging the hearing aid vent to control feedback
Q: RESR Measurements for compression hearing aids have been replaced with
A: a family of curves starting at a soft level and gradually increasing in intensity
Q: Which of the following Real Ear Targets has been documented to be the best for Non-Linear Hearing Aids
A: none have been proven to be better than any other
Q: Insertion Loss occurs when
A: the level of the ear canal with a hearing aid inserted is less than the input level
Q: Follow-up care is a cariety of procedures which comprise
A: Long term management of the client's needs and use of amplification
A process which never ends while the client is under the care of the HIS
Bringing out the best that the instrument can give
Q: Emphasizing counseling to maximize amplification benefits is
A: A program that should start before the fitting
Q: Aural rehabilitation
A: continues for as long as the patient wears an instrument
Q: Patients are always aware of
A: the way they hear today
Q: When the patient experiences difficulties, one of the problems could be
A: 1) A procedural flaw in the original hearing loss assessment
2) An error in judgement in hearing instrument selection
3) Misestimation of some aspect of the hearing problem
Q: User satisfaction must include
A: patient preference
Q: Client acceptance involves counseling on
A: Emotional and social concerns
Attitude and motivation
Q: Friends and family help patients wearing hearing instruments to hear better by
A: combining visual clues
Q: Your counseling avoids
A: unreasonable expectations
Q: Family and friends can have a negative influence on the patient by
A: expressing frustration that the patient does not have "normal" hearing
Q: When a hearing aid sounds weak, hollow, distorted, or intermittent, the first check is
A: a weak battery
Q: An otoscope helps when cleaning the
A: receiver
Q: When a hearing aid is dead, you can check receiver and microphone function by
A: turning the instrument to telecoil
Q: A hearing aid that works with the battery door slightly open but shuts off when you close the door has
A: wires touching the battery
Q: You CANNOT use feedback checks when
A: checking the telephone coil
Q: An earhook damper is plugged when during a feedback check
A: the instrument feeds back ony when the coupler is removed
Q: A sign of a dirty volume control is
A: intermittent static
Q: Reductin of background noise can be improved by
A: directional microphones
Q: When a new hearing instrument has feedback at the patient's comfortable level the problem is usually
A: manufacturer's error
Q: An ITE or canal aid has internal feedback when
A: the receiver tubing is not completely sealed to the sound bore
Q: The adult ear canal
A: rises upward and forward, then descends to the drum
Q: The isthmus is
A: where the canal narrows to enter the temporal bone
Q: The pinna and external canal together
A: 1) gather and reinforce the acoustical signals
2) with the irregular shape of the auricle, cause increases and decreases
3) forms a resonating tube
Q: The average resonant frequency of the ear canal plus concha is
A: 2700 Hz
Q: The dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the
A: tympanic membrane
Q: The ear canal contains
A: cilia, ceruminous glands, sebaceous glands
Q: The Vagus Nerve (Xth Cranial) is found
A: along the bottom of the ear canal
Q: Which of the following terms is not part of the tympanic membrane
A: crus
Q: An otoscopic inspection should reveal
A: a view of the pearly white tympanic membrane
Q: Which of the following is part of the pinna
A: 1) tragus
2) intertragal notch
3) triangular fossa
Q: Atresia refers to
A: a closure of the external auditory canal
Q: Perforation of the eardrum can be caused by
A: 1) an infection
2) a fracture of the temporal bone
3) a nearby explosion
Q: The following are types of hearing loss
A: 1) conductive
2) central
3) sensorineural
Q: Conductive losses may be caused by
A: 1) a prolapsed canal
2) impacted cerumen
Q: Which surgical technique repairs the tympanic membrane
A: myringoplasty
Q: A cholesteatoma can be described as
A: a pouch of skin filled with epithelial debris
Q: When an excess of cerumen or a blockage of cerumen is detected, the hearing aid specialist should
A: refer the patient to a physician
Q: A swollen ear may be caused by
A: 1) eczema
2) otitis externa
3) dermatitis
Q: Tympanosclerosis may be described as
A: calcium deposits
Q: A tympanic membrane perforation may cause a
A: conductive loss
Q: Theorectically, the increase in sound pressure provided by the middle ear structure is about
A: 27 dB
Q: The footplate of the stapes fits into the
A: oval window
Q: A type "A" tympanogram would indicate
A: normal pressure and compliance
Q: The difference in area size between the tympanic membrane and the footplate of the stapes increasing the sound pressure at the footplate is
A: the transfer function or aerial ratio
Q: The middle ear cavity contains
A: annular ligament, malleus, stapes and tensor tympani
Q: The middle ear system is often referred to as
A: an impedance matching transformer
Q: The middle ear cavity, as a transducer, changes energy from one form to another. The energy change is from
A: acoustic energy to mechanical energy to hydraulic energy (AMH)
Q: The middle ear muscles contract, resulting in
A: an acoustic reflex
Q: The Eustachian tube begins in the lower portion of the tympanic cavity and ends at the
A: nasopharynx
Q: The Eustachian tube of a child is
A: 1) straight
2) short
3) horizontal