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297 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the minimum pieces of information required for every patient? (2)
- AMPLE
- OPQRSTA
When would you use the Medication Assessment? (1)
whenever you suspect you should be administering or assisting with a medication
Medication assessment is broken into …. areas. What are they? (3)
2
medication assessment
medication administration
Medication Assessment, not administration (7)
- list 6 R's (medication, dose, route, time, patient and documentation)
- list 3 C's and an E (colour, clarity, concentration and expiry date)
- confirm indications
- verify no contraindications (list them all)
- list side effects (all of them)
- verbalize that vitals are done (before administration and within 5 minutes after administration)
- confirm online or offline medical directions
Medication administration (3)
- verbalize the dose range
- the dose to be given
- how to properly administer the medication
3 C's and an E
clarity
colour
concentration
expiry date
When would you use a Neurological assessment? (1)
whenever your patient has an altered level of consciousness or memory loss
What should you check in a neurological assessment? (4)
- LOC
- CMS X in all 4 extremities
- Pupils
- Consider AEIOU & TIPS
AEIOU
A - alcohol, apnea, anaphylaxis
E - epilepsy, environmental
I - insulin
O - overdose
U - underdose
TIPS
T- trauma
I - infection
P - psychiatric, poisoning
S - stroke, shock
When to use a GI / Gu assessment? (1)
whenever your patient has some form of suspected medical emergency related to the abdomen, GI tract or GU system
GI
gastrointestinal
GU
genitourinary
Genitourinary
organs of the reproduction or urination
GI / GU assessment (4)
- last bladder & bowel movement (anything unusual?)
- recent surgeries / illnesses
- coughing up blood (coffee - ground like appearance)
- is there any chance you could be pregnant?
When would you use a poisoning / overdose assessment? (1)
whenever you believe your patient has been exposed to a poison or overdosed on a medication or other substance
Poisoning / Overdose assessment (6)
- what have you taken?
- how much have you taken?
- when did you take it?
- what else did you take? (with it?)
- why did you take it?
- weight of the patient
When would you use an obstetrical assessment? (1)
whenever you believe your patient is indicating that birth is imminent
Obstetrical assessment (10)
- how long have you been pregnant?
- when are you due?
- how many times have you been pregnant?
- how many children do you have?
- what prenatal care have you had?
- how many children are you expecting?
- any bleeding / fluid discharge?
- what are the contractions like? (onset, frequency, duration, strength)
- what medications are you on?
- what risk factors do you have?
Describe the breathing process : Inhalation (4)
- active part of breathing
- diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, allowing the lungs to expand
- the decrease in pressure allows lungs to fill with air
- air travels to the alveoli where exchange of gases occurs
What is negative pressure? (1)
the decrease in pressure in the lungs allowing it to fill with air
Describe the breathing process: Exhalation (4)
- does not normally require muscular effort (passive phase)
- diaphragm and intercostal muscles relaxe
- the thorax decreases in size, and ribs and muscles assume their normal positions
- the increase in pressure forces air out
Homeostasis
the maintenance of relatively stable internal physiological conditions, normal state
What is the gas exchange process? (4)
- inhalation delivers oxygen- rich air to alveoli
- oxygen diffuses into the blood
- breathing is primarily adjusted by the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
- balance of CO2 and O2 is necessary to mer the body's needs and maintain homeostasis
Primary breathing stimulus process (4)
- the brain stem senses the level of carbon dioxide in the blood, stimulating breathing
- when we exhale, we blow off more CO2 than we inhale
- if CO2 levels increase, breathing rate will increase and the breaths become deeper
- if CO2 levels decrease, breathing rate will decrease and the breaths are less deep
Hypoxia
a deficiency of oxygen reaching the tissues of the body
Hypoxic Drive
is a form of respiratory drive in which the body uses oxygen chemoreceptors instead of carbon dioxide receptors to regulate the respiratory cycle

(based on lack of oxygen in the blood rather than amount of CO2)
COPD
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
COPD patients often develop higher levels of …. in their blood. (1)
CO2
Signs and symptoms of Hypoxia (5)
- nervousness, irritability, and fear
- tachycardia (HR over 100 BPM)
-
Tachycardia
faster than normal heart rate

* normal human beats 60 - 100 times per minute
Conditions resulting in Hypoxia (9)
- myocardial infarction
- pulmonary edema
- acute narcotic overdose (pinpoint pupils/ respiratory depression)
- smoke inhalation
- stroke
- chest injury
- shock
- lung disease
- asthma
Recognizing Adequate breathing (4)
- normal rate rhythm and depth
- regular and equal chest rise and fall
- work required to breath (laboured or unlabored)
- no adventitious sounds on auscultation (you don't hear anything unusual with your stethoscope)
Normal Respiration Rates - adult, child, infant (3)
adult - 12 to 20 breaths / min
child - 15 - 30 breaths / min
infant - 25 - 40 breaths / min
Recognizing inadequate breathing (6)
- laboured breathing (using more energy than usual)
- use of accessory muscles
- pale or blue skin
- cool, clammy skin
- irregular respiration pattern
- advantageous lung sounds
When positioning an unconscious patient you must always control …… so the body moves as a …… to prevent damage if spinal injury is suspected.
- head
- unit
Who would you use a jaw thrust for? (1)
a patient suspected of spinal injury
What is the difference between a child/ infants airway anatomy and an adults? (4)
- structure is less rigid
- airway is smaller
- tongue is proportionally larger
- dependent on the diaphragm for breathing
OPA
oropharyngeal airways
Oropharyngeal airways (3)
- keeps the tongue from blocking the upper airway
- allows for easier suctioning of the airway
- used on unconscious patients without a gag reflex assessed by assessing the eyelash flicker
Absence of an eyelash flicker when assessing gag reflex does Not …
guarantee a lack of gag reflex, but it it acceptable practice
Inserting an OPA (4)
- select the proper size airway (measuring from corner of mouth to ear lobe)
- open the patient's mouth
- hold the airway upside down and insert it in the patient's mouth
- rotate the airway 180 degrees until the flange rests on the patients lips
How do select the proper size of OPA for a patient?
measure from corner of mouth to ear lobe
What is the other method to inserting an OPA, the one ACP prefers? (1)
method using a tongue depressor to hold the tongue out of the way while the OPA is inserted directly into the mouth (often used on paediatric patients)
Nasopharyngeal Airways (2)
- used on conscious patients who can't maintain their airway
- can be used on patients with gag reflex
What patients should Nasopharyngeal airways not be used on? (4)
- possible skull fractures
- obvious facial trauma
- patients prone to nosebleeds
- who may have a nasal obstruction
Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (3)
- select the proper size airway and insert it into the largest nostril, usually the right nostril
- lubricate the airway with water based lube
- with the bevel turned toward the septum, insert the airway.
How do you select the right size nasopharyngeal airway?
measure from tip of nose to the tragus on the ear lobe
For left side insertion of a nasopharyngeal airway…
insert as you would an OPA, starting off with the bevel toward the septum and then rotate 180 degrees
What are 5 pieces of suctioning equipment? (3)
- portable suction (manual)
- mounted suction (automatic)
- portable suction (automatic)
- tonsil tip, or Yankauer catheter
- french, or whistle tip catheter
Who would you use Sellick's Maneuver? Who is allowed to perform it? (2)
unconscious patients to prevent passive regurgitation
EMT's and paramedics
What should EMR's ensure before the Sellick's maneuver is performed? (1)
ensure the airway is open and ventilate for over 1 - 2 seconds to prevent gastric distention
What are 5 causes of airway obstructions? (5)
- relaxation of the tongue (common in supine patient)
- vomited stomach contents
- blood clots, bone fragments, damaged tissue
- swelling cause by allergic reactions
- foreign objects
Recognizing an Obstruction process (6)
- obstruction may be partial or complete
- is patient able to speak or cough?
- if patient is unconscious, attempt to deliver artificial ventilation
- perform abdominal thrusts / chest compressions (as necessary)
- use suction if needed
- if attempts to clear the airway are unsuccessful, transport immediately/ rapidly
Who should receive oxygen in high concentrate (if possible)?
all injured or ill patients
Never withhold oxygen from… (2)
- anyone who may benefit from it
- COPD patients (used to be contraindicated but it isn't anymore)
Contraindication
a reason that makes it inadvisable to prescribe a particular drug or employ a particular procedure or treatment
Oxygen Cylinders and it's specifications (5)
- available as a compressed combustible gas
- pin -indexing safety system
- oxygen regulators
- humidified oxygen
- available in several sizes (D tank - 350L, E tank - 625L, M tank - 3000 L)
Oxygen Flowmeters
pressure-compensated flowmeter
- affected by gravity; must be kept upright
- usually found on the wall of an ambulance or hospital

Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
- not affected by gravity; can be used in any position
Using supplemental oxygen (9)
- inspect cylinder and markings
- "crack" the cylinder if it does not have a dust cap & check the air quality
- attach the regulator/flowmeter
- attach proper delivery device to flow meter
- adjust flowmeter to desired flow rate
- apply the oxygen device to the patient after ensuring the oxygen is flowing properly
- When done, discard the mask, or the mask stays on the patient in the hospital
- turn off the flowmeter
Hazards of Oxygen and precautions (4)
- oxygen supports combustion
- keep possible ignition sources away from the area
- oxygen tanks are under high pressure (2000 psi in a full tank)
- no smoking in/ around your ambulance
NRB
Non - rebreather mask
BVM
Bag - Valve - mask
What are 5 oxygen delivery equipment (5)
- nasal cannula
- simple face mask
- non rebreather mask
- venturi mask
- bad valve mask
Nasal cannula (4)
- 24% to 44% oxygen
- flow rate: 1-6 L/min
- contraindication ( sever hypoxia, apnea, mouth breather, severe distress)
- well tolerated
Simple Face Mask (4)
- 35% to 60% oxygen
- flow rate: 6 - 10 L/min
- carbon dioxide collects in mask if less that 6L/min
- not used very often anymore
Non rebreather mask (4)
- up to 90% - 95% oxygen
- flow rate: 10 - 15 L/min
- fit firmly on face
- MAKE SURE the reservoir bag is never less than 2/3 full
Venturi mask (4)
- 24% to 50% oxygen
- flow rate dependent on colour inserted
- able to deliver precise amount of oxygen
- used with some COPD patients (Dr. ordered)
Bag Valve Devices (5)
- self refilling bag
- valve allowing inflow of 15L/min
- 15 and 22 mm fittings
- delivered high concentrated O2 (over 95%)
- non rebreathing valve
Rate of Artificial Ventilations - adult, child, infant (3)
adult - 1:5 sec 1 second ventilation 12/min
Child - 1:3 sec 1 second ventilation 20/min
infant - 1:3 sec 1 second ventilation 20/min
Mouth to Mask Technique (4)
- kneel at patient's head and open airway
- place the mask on the patients face
- take a normal breath and breathe into the patient for 1 second
- remove your mouth and watch for patient's chest to fall
Bag Valve Mask Device (3)
- can deliver nearly 100% oxygen when used at 15L/min and a reservoir
- provides 40 - 60% with oxygen and without reservoir
- Delivers LESS tidal volume than mouth to mask
- requires practice to be proficient
What delivers LESS tidal volume than mouth to mask device? (1)
BVM device
Two person BVM technique (4)
- have suction ready
- insert OPA / NPA (mandatory is patient is unconscious)
- one caregiver maintains seal while other delivers ventilations (this is the preferred method if there are enough rescuers)
- slowly squeeze bag, looking for chest rise and fall
Gastric Distention
when the stomach fills with air, usually resulting in the patient vomiting
How can you cause gastric distention? (3)
- ventilations are too forceful
- ventilations are too frequent
- airway is not completely open or blocked
Ventilating people with stomas (3)
- ventilations are delivered through the stoma
- attach BVM device to tube or use infant mask
- stoma may need to be suctioned
Oxygen tank sizes (3)
- D cylinder 350L factor 0.16
- E cylinder 625L factor 0.28
- M cylinder 3000L factor 1.56
Calculating a Tank Life (2)
- tank pressure 200 x factor / flow rate
- 2000 psi - 200 psi x 0.16 / 10 LPM
= 28.8 minutes of O2 delivery time
Oxygen Tank colours (1)
- green and white with stainless steel or aluminum body
When is a oxygen tank considered empty? (1)
when there is 200psi left in the cylinder
At what point is an oxygen tank not suitable to be kept in service on an ambulance? (1)
500psi or less
Anatomy
studies the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another
Physiology
concerns the function of the body, how all the body parts work and carry out their life - sustaining activities
What are the 5 planes of the body? (5)
- anterior
- posterior
- midaxillary
- midline
- midclavicular line
Anterior
the front surface of the body
Posterior
the back surface of the body
What are the 5 anatomic body positions? (5)
- prone
- supine
- fowler's position (high and low)
- trendelenburg position
- knees flexed position
Prone position
the patient is lying face down (stomach is touching the floor)
Supine position
the patient is lying face up (back is touching the floor)
Fowler's position
patient is placed in a semi-upright sitting position (45-60 degrees) and may have knees either bent or straight

- is implemented during events of respiratory distress
Trendelenburg position
patient is laying flat on the ground (prone position) with feet higher than the head by 15 to 30 degrees
Superior and inferior - definitions (2)
superior (situated above, or directed upward) or ( higher in ranking, station or authority)

inferior - (situated below, or directed downward) or (or to the lower of two (or more) similar structures)
Lateral and medial - definitions (2)
lateral (denoting a position farther from the median plane or midline of the body or a structure) or (pertaining to a side)

medial (pertaining to the middle layer of structures) or (situated toward the median plane or midline of the body or a structure)
Proximal and distal - definitions (2)
proximal - nearest to a point of reference, as to a center or median line or to the point of attachment or origin

distal - remote; farther from any point of reference
Superficial and deep - definitions (2)
superficial - situated on or near the surface

deep - situated far beneath the surface; not superficial
ventral and dorsal - definitions (2)
ventral - relating or situated on or close to the abdomen

dorsal - being or located near, on, or toward the back or posterior part of the human body
Palmer and Planter - definitions (2)
palmer - positions towards/ on the palm of the hand


planter - position towards/ on the sole of the foot
Apices and Bilateral - definitions (2)
apices - the tip, point, or vertex summit

bilateral - relating to, or affecting the right and left sides of the body or the right and left members of paired organs
Dorsal body Cavity
protects the nervous system, has two subdivisions
What are the two subdivisions of the dorsal body cavity? (2)
- cranial cavity
- vertebral / spinal cavity

* the cranial and spinal cavities are continuous with one another
Cranial cavity
in the skull, encases the brain
Vertebral / spinal cavity
which runs within the bony vertebral column, encloses the spinal cord
Within the axial portion of the body are two large cavities, what are they? (2)
- dorsal body cavity
- ventral cavity
Ventral cavity
the more anterior and larger of the close body cavities, it has two subdivisions
What are the two subdivisions of the ventral cavity? (2)
- thoracic cavity
- abdominopelvic cavity
Thoracic Cavity
surrounded by ribs and muscles of the chest, further subdivided into 2 parts
The thoracic cavity is subdivided into.. (2)
- pleural cavities
- mediastinum
Pleural Cavities (1)
each housing a lung
Mediastinum (1)
contains the pericardium and remaining thoracic organs (esophagus, trachea and others)
Pericardium
is a tough double layered membrane which covers the heart
Abdominopelvic Cavity (3)
- contains the stomach, intestines, spleen, liver and other organs
- the inferior part, the pelvic cavity, lies the pelvis and contains the bladder, some reproductive organs and the rectum
- organs in the abdominopelvic cavity are less protected than those in the thoracic cavity, and consequently are more vulnerable to trauma
What are the 4 abdominal divisions? (4)
- RUQ: Right upper quadrant
- LUQ: Left upper quadrant
- RLQ: Right lower quadrant
- LLQ: Left lower quadrant
What organs are found in the RUQ? (9)
- liver
- gallbladder
- duodenum
- right adrenal gland
- head of pancreas
- upper love of right kidney
- hepatic flexure of colon
- section of ascending colon
- section of transverse colon
What organs are found in the LUQ? (9)
- left lobe of liver
- stomach
- spleen
- upper lobe of left kidney
- pancreas
- left adrenal gland
- splenic flexure of colon
- section of transverse colon
- section of descending colon
What organs are found in the RLQ? (9)
- lower love of right kidney
- cecum
- appendix
- section of ascending colon
- right ovary
- right fallopian tube
- right ureter
- right spermatic cord
- part of uterus
What organs are found in the LLQ? (8)
- lower lobe of left kidney
- sigmoid colon
- section of descending colon
- left ovary
- left fallopian tube
- left ureter
- left spermatic cord
- part of uterus
What are the 6 levels of structural organization in the human body? (6)
- chemical level
- cellular level
- tissue level
- organ level
- organ system
- organism/ organismal level
Structural organization of the body: chemical level (4)
simplest level of organization
atoms combine to form molecules
which from organelles
which form cells
Structural organization of the body: cellular level (3)
all cells have common functions
individual cells vary widely in size and shape
reflecting their unique functions in the body
What are the four different types of tissues? (4)
- epithelial
- muscle
- connective
- nervous
Epithelial tissue (1)
covers the bodies surface and lines its cavities
Muscle tissue (1)
provides movement
Connective tissue (1)
supports and protects the bodies organs
Nervous tissue (1)
provides a means of rapid internal communication via electrical impulses
Structural organization of the body: organ level (1)
a discrete structure composed of at least two (usually four) tissue types that performs a specific function for the boy
Structural organization of the body: organ system (1)
organs that work together to accomplish a common purpose make up an organ system
Structural organization of the body: organism / organismal level (1)
the highest level of organization
represents the sum total of all structural levels working together to promote life
Integumentary system (4)
- forms the external body covering
- protects deeper tissues from injury
- synthesizes vitamin D
- site of cutaneous receptors, sweat and oil glands
Skeletal system (4)
- protects and supports bodies organs
- provides framework the muscles use to cause movement
- blood cells are formed within bones
- stores minerales
Muscular system (4)
- allows manipulation of the environment
- locomotion and facial expressions
- maintains posture
- produces heat
Nervous system (2)
- fast acting control system of the body
- responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands
Endocrine system (1)
- glands secrete hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction and metabolism by body cells
Cardiovascular system (2)
- blood vessels transport blood, which carries oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, etc
- the heart pumps blood
Lymphatic system / Immune system (4)
- picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to blood
- disposes of debris in the lymphatic stream
- houses white blood cells (lymphocytes) involved in immunity
- the immune response mounts the attack against foreign substances within the body
Lymphocytes
white blood cells
Respiratory system (2)
- keeps blood constantly supplied with oxygen and removes carbon dioxide
- the gaseous exchanges occur through the walls of the air sacs in the lungs
Digestive system (2)
- breaks down food into absorbable units that enter the blood for distribution to body cells
- indigestible food are eliminated as feces
Urinary system (2)
- eliminates nitrogenous wastes from the body
- regulates water, electrolytes and acid base balance of the blood
Reproductive system (5)
- overall function is production of offspring
- testes produce sperm and male sex hormones
- ducts and glands aid in delivery of sperm to the female reproductive tract
- ovaries produce eggs and female sex hormones
- remaining structures serve as sites for fertilization and development of the fetus
- mammary glands of female breasts produce milk to nourish the newborn
The integumentary system is compose of … (3)
- epidermis & germinal layer
- dermis
- subcutaneous tissue
What is the purpose of the integumentary system? (3)
- protects the body from the environment
- regulates body temperature
- transmits information from environment to the brain
The musculoskeletal system is composed of… (3)
- 206 bones
- more than 600 muscles
- different types of joints
The functions of the musculoskeletal system are … (5)
- gives for to the body
- protects vital organs
- acts as a framework for attachment of muscles
- designed to permit motion of the body
- generates heat
The musculoskeletal system is divided into … (2)
- axial skeleton
- appendicular skeleton
The axial skeleton includes… (3)
- cranium
- spine
- ribs
The appendicular skeleton includes …. (1)
- everything else
The spinal column consists of… (5)
- 7 cervical
- 12 thoracic
- 5 lumbar
- 5 sacrum (fused)
- 4 coccyx (fused)
The leg consists of what parts? (6)
- hip
- thigh (femur)
- knee (patella)
- lower leg (tibia & fibula)
- ankle
- foot
The arm consists of what parts? (6)
- shoulder girdle
- arm (humerus)
- elbow
- forearm (radius & ulna)
- wrist
- hand
What are the three different types of muscles in the human body? (3)
- skeletal
- smooth
- cardiac
Skeletal muscle (3)
- voluntary
- attached to the bones of the body
- also called striated muscles
Smooth muscles (2)
- involuntary
- carries out automatic muscular functions of the body
Cardiac muscles (3)
- involuntary
- has own blood supply and electrical system
- can tolerate interruptions of blood supply for only very short periods of time
The nervous system is composed of … (2)
- brain & spinal
- nerves
What are the different type of nerves in the musculoskeletal system? (3)
- motor nerves
- sensory nerves
- connecting nerves
What are the functions of the nervous system? (2)
- controls the body's voluntary and involuntary actions
- links the organs of the body to the central nervous system
The nervous system is protected by … (3)
- meninges
- skull and spinal
- column
What is Meninges composed of? (3)
- Dura Mater
- Arachnoid
- pia mater
What are the functional divisions of the nervous system? (2)
- somatic nervous system
- autonomic nervous system
Somatic nervous system (1)
regulates voluntary actions
Autonomic nervous system (2)
- controls involuntary body functions
- has two divisions
What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system? (2)
- sympathetic nervous system
- parasympathetic nervous system
The two physical divisions of the nervous system are.. (2)
- central nervous system
- peripheral nervous system
Central nervous system (1)
brain and spinal cord
Peripheral nervous system (1)
all other nerves and nerve fibers
The endocrine system is composed of… (2)
- glands (produce hormones)
- hormones
What is the function of the endocrine system? (1)
- acts as message and control system to maintain homeostasis
What are the 7 glands in the endocrine system? (7)
- pituitary
- thyroid
- parathyroid
- pancreas
- adrenal
- ovaries
- testes
Pituitary glands (2)
- located in the brainstem
- produces numerous hormones to control and regulate other glands
Thyroid glands (3)
- located near the neck
- produces thyroxin
- regulates growth and metabolism
Parathyroid glands (2)
- located in the neck
- produces parathormone
Pancreas glands (3)
- located in the abdominal cavity and retroperitoneal cavity
- produces insulin (via beta cells) and glucagon (alpha cells)
- regulates blood sugar levels
Adrenal glands (3)
- located on the kidneys
- produces adrenaline
- primarily regulates the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
Ovary glands (3)
- located in the RLQ and LLQ quadrants
- produces female hormones (estrogen, progesterone..)
- regulates the menstrual cycle and secondary sex characteristics
Teste glands (3)
- located in the scrotum
- produces testosterone
- regulates secondary sex characteristics
What are the two feedback loops of the endocrine system? (2)
- positive feedback loop
- negative feedback loop
Positive feedback loop (3)
- the least common
- causes itself to produce more and more of the effect until the stimulus is stopped
- ex clotting, childbirth (uterine contractions)
Negative feedback loop (3)
- the most common type
- continues to produce the hormone until the stimulus is gone (fear factor returns to zero)
- ex adrenaline rush
The circulatory system is composed of … (3)
- heart
- blood vessels
- blood
The functions of the circulatory system are.. (2)
- provides oxygen and nutrients to all cells of the body
- serves as a transport mechanism for hormones and byproducts of metabolism
The heart is composed of… (4)
- myocardium
- conduction pathways
- nodes
- pericardium
Blood vessels are composed of … (3)
arteries
capillaries
veins
Blood is composed of… (4)
RBC's
WBC's
Platelets
plasma
SA node
main pacemaker
List all the major arteries (6)
- aorta
- pulmonary
- carotid
- femoral
- brachial
- radial
List all the major veins (5)
- superior vena cava
- inferior vena cava
- pulmonary
- subclavian
- femoral
The components of blood are… (4)
- plasma
- red blood cells (erythrocyte)
- white blood cells (leukocyte)
- platelets
Plasma (3)
- accounts for 55% of blood volume
- made up of 95% water
- acts primarily as "filler"
Red blood cells (3)
- accounts for 45% of blood volume
- purpose is to transport oxygen via hemoglobin
- erythrocyte
White blood cells (3)
- leukocyte
- accounts for less than 1% of blood volume
- purpose is to fight off infection
Platelets (2)
- accounts for less than 1% of blood volume
- purpose is to initiate clotting if a vessel is breached
Pulse (2)
- the wave of blood through the arteries formed when the left ventricle contracts
- can be felt where an artery passes near the skin surface and over a bone
Perfusion (2)
- circulation of blood within an organ or tissue providing requirements of life
- if inadequate, the patient is said to be in shock
The lymphatic system is compose of … (5)
- blood vessels
- interstitial fluid (lymph)
- interstitial spaces
- lymph vessels and nodes
- spleen
What are the functions of the lymphatic system? (2)
- ensure constant volume of the vascular system
- fights infections
The respiratory system is composed of… (4)
- upper airway (nose, mouth…)
- lower airway (larynx, trachea…)
- diaphragm & intercostal muscles
- respiratory control center (brainstem)
The upper airway includes… (4)
- nose
- mouth
- pharynx
- epiglottis
The lower airway includes… (7)
- larynx
- trachea
- carina
- bronchi
- bronchioles
- alveoli
- pulmonary capillaries
What is the function of the respiratory system? (1)
- passive exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) with the circulatory system and the environment
The diaphragm (4)
- dome shaped muscles
- divides thorax from abdomen
- contracts during inhalation
- relaxes during exhalation
Inspiration is an active process which means… ? (1)
it requires energy
Inspiration process (3)
- diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, increasing the size of the thoracic cavity
- pressure in the lungs decreases (negative pressure)
- air travels to lungs
Expiration is an passive process which means… ? (1)
it normally does not require energy
Expiration process (3)
- diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax
- as the muscles relax, all dimensions of the thorax decrease
- pressure in the lungs increases, forcing the air out of the lungs
Does the body use all the inhaled oxygen? (1)
no
What controls breathing and why? (2)
- brain stem (medulla oblongata)
- increases breathing rate if the carbon dioxide level in blood becomes too high (trying to get rood of extra CO2)
What are the different parts of the digestive system? (12)
- mouth
- salivary glands
- oropharynx
- esophagus
- stomach
- pancreas
- liver
- bile ducts
- small intestine
- large intestine
- appendix
- rectum
What are the things EMR's are required to know about medications? (10)
- generic name
- trade name
- classification
- general mechanism of action
- indications
- contraindications
- side effects
- precautions
- routes
- dosages
What are the three risks we take when administering medications? (3)
- potential side effects (no drug exerts a single desired effect)
- potential allergic/anaphylactic reactions (even if you ask all the right questions)
- potential for overdosing the patient (even if you give the proper amount)
What is a drug? (4)
- any substance taken by mouth
- injected into a muscle, blood vessel, or cavity of the body
- inhaled
- applied topically to treat of prevent a disease or condition
Pharmacology (1)
the study of the properties and effects of medications
Drugs (1)
chemical agents used in the diagnosis, treatment and prevention of disease
Dose (1)
amount of medication given - the dose will change the effects of the medication on the patient
Action (1)
therapeutic effects expect on the body
Polypharmacy (1)
multiple medications prescribed, possibly by multiple physicians
Overmedication (1)
taking medication(s) exceeding the therapeutic dose
Indications (1)
reasons to administer a medication, closely tied in with its therapeutic use
Contraindications (1)
conditions in which a medication should not be given, even if indicated
Side effects (1)
actions of a drug other than the desired ones, may occur even if the medication is properly administered
Lethal dose (1)
the quantity of medication that will produce lethal effects on the patient
Onset of action (1)
when the medication has been absorbed; the time it takes for absorption
Duration (1)
the length of time the medication will have an effect
OTC
over the counter
Over the counter (1)
medications which are available from a pharmacist without a doctor's prescription
Prescription Medication (1)
medications which are available from a pharmacist which require a doctor's prescription to obtain
What are the 5 different drug sources? (5)
- plants
- animals
- minerals
- synthetic / laboratory
- micro- organisms
Conversions - metric system (3)
- 1000g = 1 kg
- 0.001g = 1 mg
- 0.000 001 = 1 mcg (microgram)
Drug Uses (7)
- prevention
- diagnosis
- treatment
- contraception
- curative
- recreational
- supportive
List the schedule of controlled drugs (5)
- Schedule H
- Narcotics Schedule
- Schedule G
- Schedule F
- Nonperscription
Schedule of controlled drugs: Schedule H description (2)
- restricted drugs
- no recognized medicinal properties
Schedule of controlled drugs: Narcotics Schedule description (1)
- stringently restricted drugs
Schedule of controlled drugs: Schedule G description (2)
- controlled drugs
- prescriptions requires due to abuse potential
Schedule of controlled drugs: Schedule F description (2)
- prescription drugs
- low abuse potential
Schedule of controlled drugs: Nonprescription description (2)
- available from the pharmacy, only used on a physician's order
- limited public access
Hallucinogens are under what schedule of controlled drugs? (1)
Schedule H
What are the three subcategories in the narcotic schedule? (3)
- coca leaf derivatives (cocaine)
- opiates and derivative (morphine, codeine….)
- other drugs (phencyclidine, cannabis)
What are 5 examples of opiates and derivative drugs? (5)
- morphine
- codeine
- methadone
- hydromorphone
- meperidine
Schedule G consists of what type of drugs? (3)
- narcotic anaglesics (nalbuphine, butorphanol)
- stimulants (amphetamines)
- depressants (phenobarbital, amobarbital, secobarbital)
Schedule F consists of what type of drug? (1)
- anxiolytics (benzodiazepines)
The two types of routes of administration are… (2)
- parenteral administration
- enteral administration
Parenteral administration (1)
drugs enter body via means other than GI tract
Enteral administration (1)
drugs enter body via the GI tract
List the 10 different administration methods under parenteral administration. (10)
- intravenous
- endotracheal
- intramuscular
- subcutaneous
- transdermal
- inhalation
- umbilical
- topical
- nasal
- instillation
List the 5 different administration methods under enteral administration. (5)
- oral
- sublingual
- buccal
- rectal
- nasogastric / orogastric
IV
intravenous
ET
endotracheal
IM
intramuscular
SQ , SC
subcutaneous
MDI , neb
inhalation
PO
oral
SL
sublingual
PR
rectal
NG/OG
nasogastric / orogastric
Drugs are classified by… (3)
- body system (physiologic classification)
- class of agent (chemical classification)
- mechanism of action (therapeutic classification)
Administration - Per Oral
into the mouth and swallowed
Administration - Sublingual
under the tongue and NOT swallowed
Administration - Buccal
in mouth (usually between cheeks and gums)
Administration - Rectal
through the rectum - NOT IN OUR SCOPE OF PRACTICE!
Administration - Nasogastric / Orogastric
used with a nasogastric tube already in place, not in your scope
Administration - Intravenous
via an IV line
Administration - Endotracheal
into the lungs (Via ET tube)
Administration - Intramuscular
into the muscles
Administration - Subcutaneous
into the SC layer of skin
Administration - Transdermal
through the skin
Administration - Inhalation
into the lungs
Administration - Umbilical
used on neonates, IV into the umbilical vein
Administration - Tropical
through the skin (such as lotions)
Administration - Nasal
absorbed into the nasal mucosa
Administration - Instillation
eye drop
Speed of Absorption varies by route (3)
- rapid absorption
- moderate absorption
- slow absorption
What are types of administration that are considered rapid absorption? (3)
- intravenous
- inhalation
- aerosol
What are types of administration that are considered moderate absorption? (2)
- sublingual
- intramuscular
What are types of administration that are considered slow absorption? (3)
- oral
- subcutaneous
- transdermal
Why is storing some medications a cause for concern? (5)
- light sensitive
- vulnerable to temperature
- shelf life
- vulnerable to moisture
- security
What are the different types of drug packaging? (12)
- ampule / amp
- vial
- tablet / capsule
- transdermal patch
- paste
- gas
- aerosols / sprays
- metered dose inhalers
- nebulizer
- prefilled syringe
- auto injector
- gel
Drug packaging - Ampule / amp (2)
- a glass container with a thin neck, usually scored so it can be snapped off
- after the top is broken off, it is drawn into a syringe and administer
Are EMR's allowed to draw up medications? (1)
no
Drug packaging - Vial (single or multi-dose) (2)
- bottles with a sealed rubber diaphragm
- may contain single or multiple doses
What is an example of drug that can be packaged via Ample or vial? (1)
epinephrine (drawn drug)
Drug packaging - Tablet or capsule (1)
- composed of a powder that has been compressed into an easily swallowed form and tablets are often covered with sugar coating to improve taste
ASA is in what form of drug packaging?
tablets or capsules
Drug packaging - Transdermal Patch (1)
- a Band -Aid like adhesive, usually 2"x2" which delivers the medication over time
Nitroglycerin can be packaged in what different methods? (4)
- transdermal patch
- paste
- aerosols/ sprays
- tablets/ capsules
Drug packaging - Past (1)
- a thick concoction which is usia;;y applied to the skin
Drug packaging - gas (2)
- found under pressure in a cylinder, it may be heavier or lighter than air
- delivered via some type of mask (demand valve or not)
Drug packaging - aerosols / sprays (1)
- liquids that are given initially into the mouth, may be SL, PO or Buccal
Patients are not allowed to take their Nitro spray while under the care of an EMR. T/F
True
MDI
metered dose inhaler
Drug packaging - Metered Dose Inhaler (1)
- usually powder or aerosolized form of medication that is inhaled (as deep as possible) into the lungs
What kind of drug would be found in an MDI? (2)
- Ventolin
- Atrovent
Drug packaging - Nebulizer (2)
- a special type of mask designed to aerosolize a liquid medication for inhalation
- mask runs at 5 to 8 Imp of O2
Drug packaging - pre filled syringe (2)
- these save time over vials and amps
- they are self-contained systems of pre filled syringe which contain a single dose of the drug with an attached needle
What type of drug packaging is out of an EMR's scope of practice? (6)
- ampule / amp
- vial
- * transdermal patches (unsure)
- gas
- aerosols/ sprays
- prefilled syringes
Drug packaging - Auto injector (1)
- similar to a pre filled syringe, except designed for emergency use into muscle or subcutaneous tissue (instead of IV)
Drug packaging - gel (1)
- a trick liquide designed to be swallowed and administered slowly
Is oral glucose to be swallowed down or administered bucally? (1)
swallowed down