Kant on Food, Physical Satisfaction or Humanity Choice? Yuhang Guo 121684092@qq.com Munster University
In western philosophy history, Kant’s topic on food was not enormous and indeed not a central issue in Kant scholarship, but it has its attention within the "duties to oneself". However, this has been traditionally overlooked and this lack of comprehension have been redressed, but again and again the disdain for food that had accompanied western thought from the outset won out. It was generally accepted that Kant’s view of food is linked with physical satisfaction, as hinted at in the passage on good living, one of the primary purposes of food is to supply physical satisfaction. But there is recently arise becomes a Kantian ambivalence …show more content…
When stuffed with food he is in a condition in which he is incapacitated, for a time, for actions that would require him to use his powers with skills and deliberation? It is obvious that putting oneself in such a state violates a duty to oneself. Moreover, these excesses lead to a loss of humanity that entails that we are bereaved of our right for respect: "A human being who is drunk is like a mere animal, not to be treated as a human being." This is because this man loses what makes a human being properly human, and thus worthy of respect, is precisely his capacity for autonomy. He automatically gives up the right these capacities namely respect by relinquishing them through drunkenness however. By contrast, moral quality is a good grasp of humanity. In this sense, there is a classification of drinks and drugs according to their effect, sociability and virtue. For "What really counts ... is the kind of relationship whereby the inclination to good living is curbed by the law of virtue." This is because the "behavior [of not revealing oneself completely] betrays the tendency of our species to be evil-minded towards one another . . . [it] does not fail to deteriorate gradually from presence to intentional deception, and finally to
In western philosophy history, Kant’s topic on food was not enormous and indeed not a central issue in Kant scholarship, but it has its attention within the "duties to oneself". However, this has been traditionally overlooked and this lack of comprehension have been redressed, but again and again the disdain for food that had accompanied western thought from the outset won out. It was generally accepted that Kant’s view of food is linked with physical satisfaction, as hinted at in the passage on good living, one of the primary purposes of food is to supply physical satisfaction. But there is recently arise becomes a Kantian ambivalence …show more content…
When stuffed with food he is in a condition in which he is incapacitated, for a time, for actions that would require him to use his powers with skills and deliberation? It is obvious that putting oneself in such a state violates a duty to oneself. Moreover, these excesses lead to a loss of humanity that entails that we are bereaved of our right for respect: "A human being who is drunk is like a mere animal, not to be treated as a human being." This is because this man loses what makes a human being properly human, and thus worthy of respect, is precisely his capacity for autonomy. He automatically gives up the right these capacities namely respect by relinquishing them through drunkenness however. By contrast, moral quality is a good grasp of humanity. In this sense, there is a classification of drinks and drugs according to their effect, sociability and virtue. For "What really counts ... is the kind of relationship whereby the inclination to good living is curbed by the law of virtue." This is because the "behavior [of not revealing oneself completely] betrays the tendency of our species to be evil-minded towards one another . . . [it] does not fail to deteriorate gradually from presence to intentional deception, and finally to