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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The Security Manuel contains procedures for classifying, marking, and handling of classified information.
a. True b. False |
A
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The Manual for the Navy Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP) is also know as what instruction?
a. JAGINST 1770.1 b. BUPERSINST 1770.1 c c. NAVMEDCOMINST 1770.1 d. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1770.1 |
B
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What authority publishes the Decedent Affairs Manual?
a. Naval Military Personnel Command b. Secretary of the Navy c. Bureau of Medicine and Surgery d. Chief of Naval Personnel |
B
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The Manual of Navy Officer Manpower and Personnel Classifications is issued in how many volumes?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
B
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Which publication contains a lineal list of Officer personnel?
a. Navy Register b. Officer Transfer Manual c. Officer Distribution Control Report d. Manual of the Navy Officer Manpower and Personnel Classifications |
A
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The U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations is prepared and distributed by whom?
a. Secretary of Defense b. Secretary of the Navy c. Chief of Naval Personnel d. Chief of Naval Operations |
B
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The purpose of the Officer Transfer Manual is to improve awareness of distribution procedures and to make the assignment process more efficient.
a. True b. False |
A
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The Joint Federal Travel Regulations (JFTR) applies to all federaland civilian employees?
a. True b. False |
B
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What volume of the JFTR applies to all Federal Civilian Employees?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
B
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The U.S. Navy Travel Instruction (NTI) is issued jointly by which of the following agencies?
a. CNO and Comptroller of the Navy b. CNO and COMNAVMILPERSCOM c. SECNAV and SECDEF d. CNO and SECNAV |
D
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What manual is issued for the information, guidance, and compliance of all personnel in the administration of military pay?
a. DODPM b. SDSPROMAN c. MILPERSMAN d. ENLTRANSMAN |
B
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What volume of the SDSPROMAN provides details for terminal operation and event reporting?
a. I b. II c. III d. IV |
B
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The Passenger Transportation Manual consists on nine chapters. As a YN, you should familiarize yourself with which of the following chapters?
a. Chapters one, two, and three b. Chapters two, four, and five c. Chapters three, four, and five d. Chapters four, five, and six |
A
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Of the following manuals, which one provides information on retirement ceremonies?
a. Naval Military Personnel Manual b. Enlisted Transfer Manual c. Social Usage and Protocol Handbook d. Navy and Marine Corps Awards Manual |
C
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What authority covers matters pertaining to decorations and medals?
a. Navy and Marine Corps Awards Manual b. Navy Social Usage and Protocol Handbook c. Navy Military Personnel Manual d. U.S. Navy Regulations |
D
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What instruction covers the ordering, custody, and disposition of Navy-wide examinations?
a. BUBERSINST 1430.16 b. SECNAVINST 5210.11 c. OPNAVINST 3120.32 d. OPNAVINST 5510.1 |
A
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The Navy Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSIC) are used for which of the following purposes?
a. Classifying subjects b. Identifying directives c. Setting up filing systems d. Each of the above |
D
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To which of the following publications should you refer to find the proper addressing of mail to an activity of the Department of the Navy?
a. SSIC b. SNDL c. NAVSO d. DODPM |
B
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What are the goals of the Records Disposal Act?
a. Preservation of records b. Destruction of temporary records c. Retirement and transfer of records d. All of the above |
D
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Which of the following instructions sets forth the policy and responsibilities for the management of information requirements of the Department of the Navy?
a. SECNAVINST 5212.5 b. SECNAVINST 5213.10 c. SECNAVINST 5214.2 d. SECNAVINST 5215.1 |
D
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When new forms and publications are needed, the Supply Department prepares a DOD single line item requisition system document, DD Form 1348.
a. True b. False |
A
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ARTICLE 101 OF THE UCMJ IS KNOWN AS WHAT?
a. Improper use of countersign b. Drunk on Duty c. Forcing a safeguard d. Captured or abandoned property |
A
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ARTICLE 102 OF THE UCMJ IS KNOWN AS WHAT
a. Improper use of countersign b. Drunk on Duty c. Forcing a safeguard d. Captured or abandoned property |
C
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ARTICLE 103 OF THE UCMJ IS KNOWN AS WHAT
a. Improper use of countersign b. Drunk on Duty c. Forcing a safeguard d. Captured or abandoned property |
D
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You are preparing a standard Navy letter and “In reply refer to” is not printed on the letterhead. In what position should the senders symbols start?
a. First line below letterhead, 1 inch from the right edge. b. First line below letterhead, ½ inch from the right edge. c. Second line below letterhead, 2 inch from the right edge. d. Second line below letterhead, 2 ½ inches from the right edge. |
C
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In which of the following circumstances is it mandatory that a Naval letter be serialized?
a. When the letter is addressed outside the command. b. When the letter is addressed inside the command. c. When the letter contains adverse material. d. When the letter contains classified material. |
A
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On what day should a standard Naval letter be dated?
a. Day the letter is prepared in the rough. b. Day the letter is prepared in the smooth. c. Day the letter is submitted in for signature. d. Day the letter is signed |
D
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In what position on a standard letter should a special postal service designation be typed or stamped?
a. Right margin on the first line below the date b. Right margin on the second line below the date c. Left margin on the first line below the date d. Left margin on the second line below the date |
B
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If a standard letter has two “via” addressees, which of the following number or letter sequence is correct
a. (a) (b) b. (1) (2) c. a. b. d. 1. 2. |
B
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Of the following letter configurations, which one is the correct way to identify a reference in the reference line of a standard letter?
a. (A) b. (a) c. A d. A |
B
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The signature page of a letter must contain at least how many lines of text?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
B
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What is the proper placement of the signature information on a standard Naval letter?
a. At the center of the page, two line below the last line of text. b. Starting at the center of the page, four lines below the last line of text. c. Ending flush with the right margin, two lines below the last line of text. d. Ending flush with the left margin, four lines below the last line of text. |
B
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What type of stationary is used for the first page of a joint letter?
a. Letterhead of the senior originating command. b. Plain bond. c. Letterhead of the activity having the greatest interest in the subject. d. White manifold. |
C
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Where are the words JOINT LETTER typed?
a. One line above the SSIC information, left margin b. One line above the SSIC information, centered c. One line below the date d. Two lines below the date |
C
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When a multiple-address letter is mailed, photocopies of the letterhead copy with signature are authorized.
a. True b. False |
A
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Same-page endorsements are appropriate in which of the following conditions?
a. A minimum of the three lines of endorsement text must appear on the signature page of the basic letter. b. The basic correspondence and endorsement must bear the same security classification. c. The endorsement comments are brief and few or no record copies required. d. The originator has requested a reply within 3 working days. |
A
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What type of paper should be used for a new-page endorsement?
a. Letterhead b. Plain bond c. White tissue d. Yellow Tissue |
A
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A basic letter contains three references. You are preparing a first endorsement that contains a reference not mentioned in the basic letter. How should you identify the new reference?
a. (a)d b. (d) c. (1) d. (4) |
C
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There are four different formats used for memorandums.
a. True b. False |
A
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Of the following types of memoranda, which one is the most formal?
a. Printed memorandum from b. Plain-paper memorandum c. Letterhead memorandum d. Memorandum for |
A
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On a Business Letter, the address should always be placed on the second line below the date.
a. True b. False |
A
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In a Business Letter, which of the following complimentary closings should be used?
a. Sincerely b. Yours truly c. Truly Yours d. Sincerely Yours |
A
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A Naval message, which of the following examples is the correct format for a date-time-group?
a. 95FEB28 1030Z b. 28FEB95 1030Z c. 281030Z FEB 95 d. 1030Z 28FEB95 |
C
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A ROUTINE Naval message should be processed within a maximum of how many hours?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 3 d. 4 |
A
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A PRIORITY Naval message should be processed within a maximum of how many hours?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 3 d. 4 |
C
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An IMMEDIATE Naval message should be processed within a maximum of how many minutes?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 |
B
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A FLASH Naval message is processed with an objective of less than how many minutes?
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 |
A
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Of the following special-handling markings, which one is NOT commonly found a Naval message?
a. SPECAT b. LIMIDS c. PASS TO d. PERSONAL FOR |
B
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Special delivery instructions should follow which of the following elements of a Naval message?
a. TO b. FROM c. SUBJ d. SSIC |
B
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The authorized message address of the various components of the Department Of Defense are located in (a) what publication and (b) are updated how many times a year?
a. (a) SNDL, Part 1 (b) once b. (a) SNDL, Part 2 (b) twice c. (a) MAD (b) three times d. (a) MAD (b) four times |
B
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When a Naval message is prepared, what individual makes sure the drafter has met the requirements of NTP-3?
a. Signer b. Drafter c. Releaser d. Originator |
C
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Official mail, when sent through the postal system, is transmitted in an envelope that is metered.
a. True b. False |
A
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When typing the addresses on envelopes, you should always make sure you double-space.
a. True b. False |
B
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Where should the address be positioned on an envelope?
a. Centered up and down, 2 inches from the left edge. b. Centered up and down, 2 inches from the right edge c. One-third the length of the envelope from the left side and halfway down from the top d. One-third the length of the envelope from the right side and halfway down from the top |
A
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To have a continuous chain of receipts for a letter you are mailing, what class/type of mail service should you use?
a. First class b. Registered c. Certified d. Expressed |
B
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If you are assigned to the Captain’s Office, you will be handling official outgoing mail for the ship?
a. True b. False |
A
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As Mail Yeoman, you open an envelope addressed to your ship. Inside you find an inner envelope marked SECRET. What should you do with the inner envelope?
a. Open it and log it in the classified mail log b. Deliver it unopened to the Executive Officer c. Deliver it unopened to the Security Manager d. Deliver it unopened to the Commanding Officer |
A
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Action correspondence may be tracked by correspondence control slips?
a. True b. False |
A
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After the required blocks on a correspondence control slip are filled in, you should then pass it to whom?
a. Mail Yeoman b. Office Supervisor c. Executive Officer d. Postal Clerk |
B
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What is the purpose of the second sorting of incoming official mail?
a. To separate congressional mail from priority mail. b. To separate routine mail from non-routine mail. c. To determine who is receiving official mail. d. To facilitate logging of all incoming mail. |
B
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A mail control form may be used for which of the following additional purpose?
a. As a mail log b. As a follow up record c. As a cross-reference sheet d. Each of the above |
D
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When a number of letters are addressed to the same activity, they should be sent in the same envelope
a. True b. False |
A
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What is the quickest form of written communications in the Navy?
a. E-mail b. Message c. Memorandum d. Naval Letter |
A
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A Navy Letter carries a Subject Identification Number of 8510. What is the major subject group of this letter?
a. Logistics b. General Material c. Ordnance Material d. Operations and Readiness |
C
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Of the following subject identification codes, which one pertains to civilian personnel?
a. 5000 b. 8000 c. 10000 d. 12000 |
D
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A document should be crossed referenced under which of the following circumstances?
a. When it contains more than one subject b. When two or more subject codes are used within the document c. When enclosures are separated from the basic correspondence d. Each of the above |
D
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If a document is to be removed from a file, it must be accounted for and identify of the person holding it must be recorded.
a. True b. False |
A
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Of the following categories, which one is NOT included in a Personnel Security Investigation (PSI)?
a. ENTNAC b. NAC c. SBI d. BI |
A
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Which of the following agencies conducts a National Agency Check?
a. OPNAV b. DIS c. DCII d. FBI |
B
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A person who enters military service undergoes which of the following agency checks?
a. BI b. SBI c. NAC d. ENTNAC |
D
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Which of the following documents is/are required to process an NAC?
a. Personnel Security Questionnaire (DD 398-2) b. Application Fingerprint Card (FD 258) c. Both 1 and 2 above d. Request for Personnel Security Investigation (DD 1879) |
C
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Which of the following checks is NOT made during a standard BI?
a. Subject interview b. Command interview c. Inquiries of local agencies d. Employment and credit history |
D
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In reference to a BI, no investigation should extend further back than the subject’s 18th birthday.
a. True b. False |
A
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A special background investigation (SBI) is conducted only when specifically required by whom?
a. CNO b. BUPERS c. NAVPERS d. CHNAVPERS |
B
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Which of the following checks may be used as the investigative basis for a Top Secret clearance?
a. BI b. PR c. SBI d. Each of the above |
C
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The investigative requirements for the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) are based on which of the following factors of the position?
a. Knowledge b. Location c. Paygrade d. Sensitivity |
D
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What authority is authorized to grant, deny, or revoke security clearances for all Department of the Navy personnel?
a. OPNAV b. SECNAV c. BUPERS d. DONCAF |
D
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Normally, interim clearances are granted for a maximum of how many days?
a. 90 b. 120 c. 180 d. 240 |
C
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Which of the following forms is used to request security determinations from DONCAF?
a. Personnel Security Action Request b. Record of Investigation, Clearance, and Access c. Classified Information Non-disclosure Agreement d. Request for Personnel Security Investigation |
A
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Which of the following forms is used to record a clearance granted by DONCAF?
a. OPNAV 5510/10 b. OPNAV 5520/20 c. OPNAV 5510/20 d. OPNAV 5520/30 |
B
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Of the following individuals, which one is NOT to witness the execution of the Classified Information Non-disclosure Agreement?
a. Commanding Officer b. Executive Officer c. Security manager d. Leading Yeoman |
D
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Which of the following is not a category of classification?
a. For Official Use Only b. Confidential c. Top Secret d. Secret |
A
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The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security should carry what classification?
a. Secret b. Top Secret c. Confidential |
B
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The disclosure of information that could cause serious damage to national security should carry what classification.
a. Secret b. Top Secret c. Confidential |
A
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The disclosure of information that could cause identifiable damage to national security carry what classification?
a. Secret b. Top Secret c. Confidential |
C
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Who is responsible for controlling the dissemination of classified material within the command?
a. Command Security Manager b. Administrative Officer c. Execution Officer d. Commanding Officer |
A
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Who is delegated the responsibility to ensure personnel are instructed on prevention of unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
a. Command Security Manager b. Administrative Officer c. Executive Officer d. Commanding Officer |
A
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Top Secret documents cannot be reproduced without the permission of which of the following authorities?
a. Department head b. Security Manager c. Commanding Officer d. Issuing or higher authority |
D
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After a Top Secret document has been transferred, downgraded, or destroyed, the record of disclosure should be maintained for how many years?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 |
B
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There is no requirement to maintain records of receipts, distribution, or disposition on which of the following types of classified material?
a. Secret b. Top Secret c. Confidential |
C
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Which of the following instructions prescribes that classified correspondence be serially numbered by the originator for each calendar year?
a. SECNAVINST 5215.1 b. SECNAVINST 5216.5 c. OPNAVINST 5215.1 d. OPNAVINST 5216.5 |
B
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A system of security checks at the close of each working day must be instituted to make sure that classified material held by a command is properly protected.
a. True b. False |
A
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Which of the following classes of classified material should not be mailed?
a. Secret b. Top Secret c. Confidential |
B
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Receipts for classified material should be maintained for a minimum of how many years?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
B
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Whenever classified material is mailed, it should be enclosed in two opaque, sealed envelopes.
a. True b. False |
A
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How many officials are required to witness the destruction of Secret material?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
B
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The basic laws of NJP may be found in what section of the Manual for Courts-Martial?
a. Part I b. Part II c. Part III d. Part V |
D
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Which of the following statements is correct concerning NJP?
a. It is a forum for command members to air grievances b. The legal protection is less extensive than it is for non-punitive measures c. It provides Commanders with a means for promoting positive behavior changes d. All NJP authority must be delegated by SECNAV |
C
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No Officer may limit the Article 15 authority of a subordinate Commander without the specific approval of what official?
a. CNO b. SECDEF c. SECNAV d. CHNAVPERS |
C
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May Reserve personnel recalled to active duty for imposition of NJP receive punishment involving restraint? If so, under what circumstances?
a. Yes; when the CO of the Reserve center approves the recall. b. Yes; when SECNAV approves the recall. c. Yes; when recalled to active duty for a period longer than the period of restraint. d. No |
A
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