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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What margins would you NEVER use when typing a business letter?

a. 1 inch
b. 2 inches
c. ¾ inch
d. 1 ½ inches
C
Which of the following is correct when using a complimentary close?

a. Very Respectfully
b. Very Respectfully,
c. Sincerely
d. Sincerely,
D
A point paper should be kept to a minimum of how many page(s)?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. as few as possible to get the point across
A
On a Memorandum of Agreement, where do you type “MEMORANDUM OF AGREEMENT”?

a. Top left hand margin same line as the date
b. Centered, second line below the date line
c. Centered, one line below the Letter Head
d. Top left hand margin one line below the date
B
You are preparing a first endorsement, the basic letter has two enclosures, you are adding two more enclosures, how will you number your enclosures?

a. Encl (1) and Encl (2)
b. Enclosure (1) and Enclosure (2)
c. Encl (3) and Encl (4)
d. None, you can’t add to the basic letter
C
How many action addressees should you have before you drop the “To Line” and use a Distribution Block?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. more than 1
C
When typing a classified letter, how would the subject line appear?

a. Subj: (U) CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS
b. (U) Subj: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS
c. Subj: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS (U)
d. None of the above
C
When typing a Joint Letter, the senior official signs where?

a. Left Side
b. Center of Page
c. Right Side
d. Left side above the other signatures
C
How many major subject identification codes are found in the SSIC manual?

a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
C
Which of the following SSIC numbers represents a secondary subject?

a. 5000
b. 5200
c. 5210
d. 5211
C
What is punitive article 86?

a. Desertion
b. Missing movement
c. Absence without leave
d. Conspiracy
C
What article is failure to obey an order or regulation?

a. 92
b. 93
c. 94
d. 95
A
What article is wrongful use or possession of a controlled substance?

a. 110
b. 111
c. 112
d. 112a
D
Authority to assign EMI may be delegated to which of the following?

a. Department Head
b. Division Officer
c. E7
d. E6
D
What number of days do you have before you must reply to a congressional communication?

a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
C
What is the proper way to mark an enclosure to be sent under separate cover?

a. Enclosure: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
b. Enclosure: (1) SECNAVISNT 5216.5D (s/c)
c. Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
d. Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (s/c)
C
When typing a first endorsement on a 3 page letter, what is the number of your first page?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. None, you don’t number the first page
C
What manual gives the guidelines to take a sworn affidavit or oath?

a. Manual for courts-martial
b. UCMJ
c. JAGMAN
d. MILPERSMAN
C
Who can conduct a preliminary inquiry investigation?

a. Convening Authority
b. Commanding Officer
c. Executive Officer
d. Board of Inquiry
A
What instruction governs the format and procedures for validating the ODCR?

a. SECNAVINST 7220.10
b. SECNAVINST 1301.11
c. BUPERSINST 1301.40
d. BUPERSINST 7220.1
C
How many copies of the ODCR do you receive from BUPERS monthly?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
B
What color of ink do you use to make corrections on the ODCR?

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Black
d. None, you don’t make corrections
A
Where do you send the ODCR if there is a discrepancy on the UIC?

a. BUPERS
b. EPMAC
c. CNO
d. CINCLANTFLT
B
Where do you send the ODCR if there is a discrepancy on fitness reports?

a. BUPERS
b. EPMAC
c. CNO
d. CINCLANFLT
A
If you receive your 6th personal naval military decoration, what color of star is worn?

a. Gold
b. Bronze
c. Silver
d. None
C
How many Navy Achievement medals can each CO award each year?

a. 1 for every 10 personnel
b. 1 for every 50 personnel
c. 1 for every 75 personnel
d. Unlimited
D
What awards can be presented to foreign national personnel?

a. Legion of Merit
b. Navy Cross
c. Navy & Marine Corps Achievement medal
d. Navy & Marine Corps Commendation medal
C
Naval writing standards and sample letters may be found in which of the following publications?

a. MILPERSMAN
b. SECNAVINST 5216.5D
c. SECNAVINST 5210.11D
d. SECNAVINST 5215.1C
B
From which of the following would you request a port call?

a. SATO
b. PSD
c. NAVPTO
d. None of the above
C
What publication governs the Navy Personnel Security Program?

a. OPNAVINST 5510.1H
b. SECNAVINST 5550.1F
c. BUPERSINST 5210.40
d. SECNAVINST 5510.30A
D
The security manager must be at what rank?

a. LT/GS7 and above
b. XO or CO only
c. E7/GS9 and above
d. Any officer or GS11 and above
D
What publication would you refer to for instructions for verification and submission of changes to the officer data card?

a. NAVPERS 15839 VOL II
b. NAVPERS 15839 VOL I
c. Both A and B
d. MILPERSMAN
A
Who is responsible for reviewing the ODC for accuracy?

a. YNC
b. XO
c. CO
d. The officer
D
Where is the officer data card sent if corrections are required?

a. BUPERS
b. EPMAC
c. Chief of Naval Personnel
d. SECNAV
C
When determining leave between PCS stations, in what order do you compute the travel time?

a. Leave, proceed, travel
b. Travel, leave, proceed
c. Proceed, travel, leave
d. Travel, proceed, leave
D
What publication(s) gives detailed instructions for preparing and distributing of the DD214?

a. MILPERSMAN
b. BUPERSINST 1900.8
c. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1900.1
d. Both a and b
B
The authorizing official on a DD214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, must be of what minimum rank?

a. CO or XO only
b. 01 or GS11 and above
c. E9 or GS9 and above
d. E7 or GS7 and above
D
What copy(ies) of the DD214, will be provided to the member?

a. Original only
b. Copies 2 and 4
c. Original and copy 4
d. Copy 3 only
C
The DD214 will be issued to all but which of the following personnel?

a. E4 separated after 120 days of active duty for training
b. E6 re-enlisted for 6 years
c. E7 released from active duty
d. E8 discharged to accept appointment to CWO
B
When typing the DD214, what is placed in the unused space in a large block?

a. Type in a diagonal line “NO FURTHER ENTRIES THIS BLOCK”
b. Type in a diagonal line “N F E T B”
c. Type in a diagonal line “X’s”
d. Nothing, leave unused space blank
C
When making corrections in the shaded area on a DD214, you must initial all copies?

a. True
b. False
B
What directive(s) contains procedures involved with officer
separations?

a. MILPERSMAN and OFFTRANSMAN
b. MILPERSMAN only
c. Navy Transportation Manual
d. JFTR
A
In accordance with the MILPERSMAN, how is a request for retirement submitted by the Officer’s?

a. Letter
b. Message
c. E-mail
d. Officer Detailer submits request
A
Statutory age retirement for regular officers shall be on the first day of the month following the month in which he/she becomes what age?

a. 55
b. 58
c. 62
d. 64
C
Who approves an officer’s retirement request?

a. SECDEF
b. SECNAV
c. CNO
d. CHNAVPERS
B
When are CDR FITREPs due?

a. August
b. September
c. October
d. December
A
When are LCDR FITREPs due?

a. July
b. August
c. September
d. October
D
When are CW03 and CW04 FITREPs due?

a. March
b. April
c. May
d. June
A
Which of the following administrative comments are prohibited on a FITREP or EVAL?

a. Previous failure of selection
b. NJP proceedings
c. Change of name, designator or rating
d. Civil court actions
A
How many days after due date must FITREP/EVAL reports be
mailed for active duty members?

a. Within 15 days
b. Within 10 days
c. Within 20 days
d. Within 30 days
A
When is mid-term counseling due for E5’s?

a. March
b. May
c. September
d. November
C
When are E7/E8 FITREPs due?

a. August/September
b. August
c. September
d. July/August
C
Which of the following is not a type of report?

a. Regular
b. Concurrent
c. Not Observed
d. Operational Commander
C
Reports on E4 and below may be entirely or partially
handwritten.

a. True
b. False
A
If there is no Senior Rater, what must be typed in the
Senior Rater Block?

a. Repeat the Raters Name
b. Reporting Seniors Name
c. None Available
d. Nothing, leave blank
C
Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash within what minimum
distance from the U.S. coastline?

a. 20 nm
b. 25 nm
c. 30 nm
d. 35 nm
B
Which of the following personnel can be victims of sexual
harassment?

a. Men only
b. Women only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above
C
Which of the following terms defines the horizontal openings
for access through decks?

a. Hatches
b. Doors
c. Manholes
d. Scuttles
A
What is the additional ship control space used by the
squadron commander or admiral called?

a. Signal bridge
b. Main control
c. Flag bridge
d. Bridge wing
C
How many years of service must a person complete to be
eligible to wear one service stripe?

a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
D
What officer is designated as the ship’s damage control officer?

a. Executive Officer
b. Officer of the Deck
c. Engineer Officer
d. Operations Officer
c
What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)?

a. Be a PO2 or above
b. Complete the PQS
c. Complete fire-fighting school
d. Be designated by the LCPO
B
When handling lines or taking part in underway replenishment, you must always wear what article of safety equipment?

a. Inherently buoyant life jacket
b. Inflatable life jacket
c. Safety glasses
d. Ear plugs
A
What publication establishes policy governing voluntary retirement of officers on the active duty list and voluntary retirement and transfer to Fleet Reserve of enlisted members?

a. SECNAVINST 1811.3
b. SECNAVINST 1920.1 (series)
c. MILPERSMAN
d. MILPERSMAN & DOD PAYMAN
A
Final approval of request for transfer to the Fleet Reserve and for further transfer to the Retire List rest with what official?

a. President
b. CNO
c. SECNAV
d. CHNAVPERS
D
Limited Duty Officers and Chief Warrant Officers serving under a temporary appointment will transfer to Fleet Reserve in the highest enlisted grade if less than how many years of active duty commissioned service has been completed?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
B
Retired warrant officers or enlisted members who have been advanced while on the retired list to a higher commissioned grade may request restoration to the former warrant officer or enlisted status within three months.

a. True
b. False
A
Who may constitute a Summary Courts-Martial?

a. LT
b. YNCM
c. Chief Master at Arms
d. CMC
A
By policy how many members are on a Special Courts-Martial board?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
C
How are charges reflected on the Charge Sheet?

a. Roman numerals
b. Arabic numerals
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
A
Who is responsible for authenticating the Special
Courts-Martial record of trial?

a. Military Judge
b. Trial Counsel
c. Defense Counsel
d. Convening Authority
A
Who will authenticate the Special Courts-Martial record of trial should the judge be unable to do so?

a. The Trial Counsel
b. Defense Counsel
c. Military Judge
d. Convening Authority
A
What directive gives policy on how official files must be destroyed or forwarded to records center?

a. SECNAVINST 1650.1F
b. SECNAVINST 5212.5C
c. SECNAVINST 5213.11D
d. SECNAVINST 5200.18
B
How are classified files destroyed at shore commands?

a. Burning
b. Shredding
c. Scrapped
d. Throw it overboard at sea
A
How should classified files be destroyed at sea?

a. Burning/Pulping
b. Shredding
c. Throw it overboard
d. Scrapped
A
What publication contains instructions on the shipping procedures for classified records?

a. Security Manual
b. MILPERSMAN
c. Navy Regulations
d. Records Disposition Manual
A
What is required to make a reports tickler file an effective tool?

a. Daily attention
b. Quarterly attention
c. Semi-annually attention
d. Annually attention
A
What is the term used when an individual travels to a command that isn’t the individual’s permanent duty station?

a. PCS
b. TEMADD
c. TEMDU
d. TEMDUIN
B
What form is used to prepare TEMADD orders?

a. NAVPERS 1320/16
b. NAVPERS 1070/604
c. OPNAV Form 5520/20
d. NAVPERS 7220/2
A
A Passenger Reservation Request is required on all members regardless of rank for travel OUTCONUS?

a. True
b. False
A
Where are per diem rates found for estimating cost of TEMADD travel?

a. JFTR
b. MILPERSMAN
c. Foreign Clearance Guide
d. DJMS Manual
A
What form is used to liquidate travel after returning from TEMADD travel?

a. DD Form 1351-2
b. DD Form 392-2
c. NAVPERS 1320/16
d. NAVPERS 1070/604
A
What level of security clearance and access may be granted using the NAC as the investigative basis?

a. Confidential only
b. Confidential and Secret
c. Secret Only
d. Official Use Only
B
What is the highest security clearance and access that may be granted using the background investigation (BI) as the investigative basis?

a. Confidential only
b. Secret only
c. Both a and b
d. Top Secret
D
Which of the following is not required to be on the OPNAV Form 5520/20 Certificate of Personnel Security Investigation, Clearance, and Access?

a. Date of Birth
b. Place of Birth
c. U.S. Citizenship
d. Marital Status
D
Except in time of war, how is dismissal from the service done for Officer’s

a. General Courts-Martial
b. Special Courts-Martial
c. Summary Courts_Martial
d. All of the above
A
What publication specifies the format of an unqualified resignation?

a. DJMS Manual
b. BUPERSINST 1301.10
c. MILPERSMAN
d. OFFTRANSMAN
C
Who normally issues separation orders for discharge, retirement, or release of officers to inactive duty?

a. SECNAV
b. CNO
c. CHNAVPERS
d. PSD
C
What type of officer discharge is issued if an officer’s service has been honest and faithful?

a. Honorable
b. General
c. Other Than Honorable
d. All the above
A
A member was on unauthorized absence for more than 24 hours. The command must prepare what form within 5 working days?

a. NAVPERS 1070/606
b. NAVPERS 1070/613
c. NAVPERS 1070/607
d. DD Form 458
A
What is the normal timeframe for routine message to be sent out?

a. 8 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 2 hours
B
What is the normal timeframe for priority message to be sent out?

a. 5 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 2 hours
C
What is the normal timeframe for immediate message to be sent out?

a. 15 min
b. 20 min
c. 25 min
d. 30 min
D
When typing a naval message, what is the maximum # of character per line?

a. 65
b. 66
c. 67
d. 69
D
When are messages usually destroyed?

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
A
What publication should be consulted for detailed information concerning planning, organizing, and conducting official and unofficial social events?

a. The Social Usage and Protocol Handbook
b. MILPERSMAN
c. Navy SORM
d. U.S. Navy Regulations
A
How is the date written in a formal invitation if dinner starts at 7:30 p.m.?

a. Nineteen Thirty
b. half past seven o’clock
c. 7:30 p.m.
d. Seven Thirty
B
Where is the boat schedule shown in a formal invitation when the function will be held aboard ship?

a. lower left corner
b. lower right corner
c. upper right corner
d. centered on the last line
A
What is always repeated when accepting an invitation?

a. date
b. time
c. place
d. All of the above
D
Once you receive an Invitation, you should respond in what what timeframe?

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 96 hours
A